1
Q
Define microbe and give examples
A
Microbe refers to microscopic organisms. Examples include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa.
Microbes are essential for various ecological processes and human health.
2
Q
List the classification hierarchy of living organisms
A
- Domains
- Kingdoms
- Phyla
- Classes
- Orders
- Family
- Genus
- Species
This hierarchy helps in the systematic categorization of organisms.
3
Q
What are the main characteristics of viruses?
A
Viruses are acellular, cannot reproduce independently, and consist of genetic material surrounded by a protein coat.
They require a host cell to replicate.
4
Q
Which organisms are classified as pathogens?
A
- Prokaryotic cells (bacteria)
- Eukaryotic cells (fungi, protozoa)
- Infectious particles (viruses, prions)
Pathogens can cause diseases in hosts.
5
Q
What are the methods used for bacterial identification?
A
- Phenotype
- Genetics
- Serology
- Phage testing
- Bergey’s Manual
These methods help in accurately identifying bacterial species.
6
Q
What is the ecological role of microbes on Earth?
A
Microbes play crucial roles in nutrient cycling, decomposition, and as symbionts in various ecosystems.
They are also significant in human health and industry.
7
Q
What percentage of microbial species are beneficial to humans?
A
Approximately 90% of microbial species are beneficial, while 10% are harmful.
Beneficial microbes contribute to digestion, immunity, and various biotechnological applications.
8
Q
What are the top causes of human death?
A
Infectious diseases rank among the top causes of human death, including diseases like heart disease, cancer, and respiratory infections.
Infectious diseases have historically been significant contributors to mortality.
9
Q
How does COVID-19 fit into the list of infectious disease deaths?
A
COVID-19 has become a leading cause of infectious disease deaths globally since its emergence in late 2019.
It has significantly impacted global health systems.
10
Q
Name examples of historical epidemics
A
- Tuberculosis (TB)
- Black Death
- Cholera
- Smallpox
- Influenza
- AIDS
- COVID-19
These epidemics have shaped public health responses and societal changes.
11
Q
What factors have reduced the number of epidemics?
A
- Improved sanitation
- Vaccination
- Antibiotics
- Public health policies
The scientific method has also contributed to advancements in these areas.
12
Q
Why haven’t all epidemics been eliminated?
A
Emerging and reemerging diseases, such as COVID-19 and measles, continue to pose threats due to factors like mutation and global travel.
These factors complicate disease eradication efforts.
13
Q
Who disproved spontaneous generation?
A
Louis Pasteur is credited with disproving spontaneous generation through his experiments with microbial growth.
This led to significant advancements in microbiology and hygiene.
14
Q
What is the cell theory?
A
The cell theory states that all living organisms are composed of cells, and that cells are the basic unit of life.
This theory is fundamental to biology and microbiology.
15
Q
What discovery is associated with endospores?
A
The discovery of endospores is attributed to Ferdinand Cohn, who identified their role in bacterial survival under harsh conditions.
Endospores allow bacteria to withstand extreme environments.
16
Q
What is germ theory?
A
Germ theory posits that many diseases are caused by microorganisms.
This theory revolutionized the understanding of disease transmission and prevention.
17
Q
What are some methods of disease prevention?
A
- Handwashing
- Antisepsis
- Vaccination
These methods have been effective in reducing the incidence of infectious diseases.
18
Q
What are the two types of disease treatment mentioned?
A
- Chemotherapy (synthetic drugs)
- Antibiotics
These treatments target pathogens to alleviate infections.
19
Q
What is microbial taxonomy?
A
Microbial taxonomy refers to the classification of microbes based on shared characteristics and evolutionary relationships.
It aids in understanding microbial diversity and ecology.
20
Q
What is binomial nomenclature?
A
Binomial nomenclature is a system for naming species using two terms: the genus name and the species identifier.
This system standardizes the naming of organisms.
21
Q
What role do mutations play in microbial evolution?
A
Mutations generate new strains, types, and variants of pathogens, contributing to the emergence and reemergence of diseases.
This process is vital for the adaptability of microbes.
22
Q
What is the definition of an etiological agent/pathogen?
A
An etiological agent/pathogen is a microorganism that causes disease.
23
Q
What is the difference between contamination and infection?
A
Contamination refers to the presence of pathogens, while infection indicates that pathogens are actively multiplying and causing harm.
24
Q
Who was Dr. John Snow and what was his role in epidemiology?
A
Dr. John Snow investigated and stopped a cholera epidemic in London, demonstrating the importance of epidemiology.
25
What are the types of symbiotic relationships?
The types of symbiotic relationships are:
* Mutualism (+, +)
* Commensalism (+, 0)
* Parasitism (+, -)
* Amensalism (-, 0)
26
What factors influence the acquisition of microbiota in infants?
Breastfeeding and birth method influence the acquisition of permanent microbiota residents.
27
What are the benefits of microbiota?
Microbiota can aid in digestion, protect against pathogens, and contribute to immune function.
28
How does Lactobacillus benefit the vaginal tract?
Lactobacillus helps maintain an acidic environment, preventing infections.
29
What are Koch's postulates?
Koch's postulates are a series of criteria used to establish a causative relationship between a microbe and a disease.
30
What is the correct order of Koch's postulates?
1. The microorganism must be found in abundance in all organisms suffering from the disease but should not be found in healthy organisms.
2. The microorganism must be isolated from a diseased organism and grown in pure culture.
3. The cultured microorganism should cause disease when introduced into a healthy organism.
4. The microorganism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased experimental host and identified as being identical to the original specific causative agent.
31
When are Koch's postulates not useful?
Koch's postulates are not useful for diseases caused by multiple pathogens or in cases where the pathogen cannot be cultured.
32
What are the stages of the disease cycle?
The stages of the disease cycle are:
* Survival outside host
* Transmission
* Entry
* Attachment
* Colonization
* Tissue damage
* Portal of exit
33
What are the types of reservoirs for pathogens?
Types of reservoirs include:
* Human (endogenous/exogenous, symptomatic/asymptomatic)
* Animal (zoonoses)
* Non-living
* Special (Nosocomial)
34
What is an example of zoonoses?
An example of zoonoses is rabies.
35
What are the top 3 types of nosocomial infections?
The top 3 types of nosocomial infections are:
* Urinary tract infections
* Surgical site infections
* Bloodstream infections
36
What is the difference between communicable and non-communicable diseases?
Communicable diseases can be transmitted between individuals, while non-communicable diseases cannot.
37
What are the types of transmission for diseases?
Types of transmission include:
* Contact (direct and indirect)
* Vehicle (water, food, aerosols)
* Vectors (mechanical and biological)
38
What is an example of direct contact transmission?
An example of direct contact transmission is touching an infected person.
39
What are examples of vehicle transmission?
Examples of vehicle transmission include:
* Water
* Food
* Aerosols
40
What are the types of vectors in disease transmission?
The types of vectors are:
* Mechanical
* Biological
41
What are universal precautions?
Universal precautions are measures taken to prevent the transmission of infections in healthcare settings.
42
What is disease pathogenicity measured by?
Disease pathogenicity is measured by Infectious Dose (ID50) and Lethal Dose (LD50).
43
What are virulence factors?
Virulence factors include:
* Contamination numbers
* Attachment to host
* Avoidance of phagocytosis
* Extracellular enzymes
* Exotoxins
* Endotoxins
44
What are the stages of disease in a host from the microbial numbers perspective?
1) incubation period
2) prodromal period
3) Illness
4) Decline
5) Convalescence
## Footnote
Each stage represents a different phase in the progression of a disease.
45
What are the common suffixes used to describe signs and symptoms of diseases?
-itis, -emia, -osis/iasis, -oma
## Footnote
These suffixes indicate inflammation, presence of blood, abnormal condition, and tumor, respectively.
46
What are the differences between acute and chronic diseases?
Acute diseases occur suddenly and are severe; chronic diseases develop slowly and persist over time.
## Footnote
Examples include the flu (acute) versus diabetes (chronic).
47
What is the difference between local, systemic, and focal infections?
Local infections are restricted to one area, systemic infections affect the entire body, and focal infections start in one area but spread elsewhere.
## Footnote
An example of a local infection is a skin infection, whereas systemic infections include sepsis.
48
What are primary and secondary infections?
Primary infections are the initial infections, while secondary infections occur as a result of the primary infection.
## Footnote
For example, a cold (primary) can lead to a bacterial sinus infection (secondary).
49
What factors may be correlated with disease outbreaks in a population?
Environmental conditions, population density, vaccination rates, and public health measures.
## Footnote
Epidemiologists investigate these factors to understand disease dynamics.
50
Which is better for understanding disease, correlations or cause & effect?
Cause & effect is better, as it shows direct relationships.
## Footnote
Correlations can suggest relationships but do not establish causation.
51
Why is it not always possible to obtain experimental proof in epidemiology?
Ethical considerations, logistical challenges, and complexity of human populations.
## Footnote
Some experiments may not be feasible due to ethical concerns.
52
Name a government agency that monitors disease outbreaks.
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
## Footnote
Other examples include the World Health Organization (WHO).
53
What is a notifiable disease?
A disease that must be reported to government authorities.
## Footnote
Examples include measles and tuberculosis; the list varies by region due to public health priorities.
54
Explain mortality, morbidity, incidence, and prevalence data.
Mortality refers to death rates, morbidity refers to illness rates, incidence is the number of new cases, and prevalence is the total number of cases at a given time.
## Footnote
These metrics help public health officials assess disease burden.
55
What is an Epi-curve or chart?
A graphical representation of the number of cases of a disease over time.
## Footnote
It helps visualize the progression and pattern of an outbreak.
56
What is the cell theory?
The cell theory states that all living organisms are composed of cells, and all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
57
Compare Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Prokaryotes lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, while eukaryotes have both.
58
What are the types of microscopy used to observe bacterial cell morphology?
Light microscopy, electron microscopy, and fluorescence microscopy.
59
Define Glycocalyx.
A Glycocalyx is a gelatinous polymer surrounding a cell, including capsules, slime layers, and biofilms.
60
What is the function of Flagella?
Flagella provide motility to bacteria and can be classified by their arrangement: monotrichous, lophotrichous, amphitrichous, and peritrichous.
61
What are Fimbriae?
Fimbriae are hair-like structures that help bacteria adhere to surfaces.
62
What is the difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative cell walls?
Gram-positive walls have a thick peptidoglycan layer, while Gram-negative walls have a thin peptidoglycan layer and an outer membrane.
63
What effects do lysozyme, penicillin, and mutation have on cell types?
Lysozyme disrupts cell walls, penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis, and mutations can affect cell integrity.
64
What is passive transport?
Passive transport is the movement of molecules across a cell membrane without energy input, including diffusion, osmosis, and facilitated transport.
65
Give examples of molecules involved in passive transport.
Oxygen, carbon dioxide, and water.
66
What is active transport?
Active transport is the movement of molecules against their concentration gradient, requiring energy.
67
Give examples of molecules involved in active transport.
Sodium ions, potassium ions, and glucose.
68
What is the composition of cytoplasm?
Cytoplasm is composed of 70-80% water.
69
Describe the genetic material of prokaryotic cells.
Prokaryotic cells typically have a circular chromosome and may contain extrachromosomal plasmids.
70
What are 70s ribosomes?
70s ribosomes are the type of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cells, essential for protein synthesis.
71
What are inclusions and granules?
Inclusions are storage sites for nutrients, while granules are dense clusters of substances within the cytoplasm.
72
What is the medical significance of endospores?
Endospores are resistant structures that allow bacteria to survive extreme conditions, posing challenges in sterilization.
73
What are the characteristics of atoms and molecules?
Atoms are the basic units of matter, while molecules are formed by the chemical bonding of atoms.
74
What are the types of bond types?
Ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds.
75
What is the difference between hydrophilic and hydrophobic?
Hydrophilic substances attract water, while hydrophobic substances repel water.
76
What are functional groups?
Functional groups are specific groups of atoms within molecules that determine the characteristics and chemical reactivity of the compound.
77
Identify the functional group -OH.
-OH is a hydroxyl group.
78
Identify the functional group -COOH.
-COOH is a carboxyl group.
79
What are carbohydrates?
Carbohydrates are organic compounds made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, serving as energy sources.
80
What are proteins?
Proteins are large molecules composed of amino acids, essential for various biological functions.
81
What are lipids?
Lipids are hydrophobic molecules, including fats, oils, and phospholipids.
82
What are nucleic acids?
Nucleic acids are biomolecules, such as DNA and RNA, that carry genetic information.
83
What is hydrolysis?
Hydrolysis is the process of breaking down polymers into monomers by adding water.
84
What is dehydration synthesis?
Dehydration synthesis is the process of forming polymers by removing water from monomers.
85
Fill in the blank: Hydrolysis _______ polymers.
breaks down
86
Fill in the blank: Dehydration synthesis _______ polymers.
builds
87
What are the main enzyme characteristics?
• Specificity
• Catalytic efficiency
• Regulation
• Sensitivity to environmental conditions
## Footnote
Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in cells.
88
What is catalysis?
The process of accelerating a chemical reaction by adding a catalyst, which is not consumed in the reaction.
## Footnote
Enzymes act as biological catalysts, facilitating reactions in living organisms.
89
How can an enzyme be inhibited?
• Competitive inhibition
• Non-competitive inhibition
• Allosteric inhibition
## Footnote
Inhibition can occur through various mechanisms that prevent the enzyme from catalyzing its reaction.
90
What is denaturation of an enzyme?
The process in which an enzyme loses its functional shape, rendering it inactive.
## Footnote
Denaturation can be caused by changes in temperature, pH, or other environmental factors.
91
Define anabolism.
The metabolic process that builds larger molecules from smaller ones, requiring energy.
## Footnote
Anabolism is part of metabolism and is crucial for growth and repair.
92
Define catabolism.
The metabolic process that breaks down larger molecules into smaller ones, releasing energy.
## Footnote
Catabolism provides the energy needed for anabolic reactions.
93
What is bond energy?
The amount of energy required to break a bond between two atoms.
## Footnote
Bond energy is a key concept in understanding energy transfer during chemical reactions.
94
What does the acronym 'Redox' stand for?
Reduction and oxidation reactions occurring simultaneously.
## Footnote
Redox reactions are critical in cellular respiration and energy transfer.
95
What are the electron carriers involved in metabolism?
• NAD+
• FAD
## Footnote
These carriers transport electrons during metabolic reactions, playing a vital role in energy production.
96
What is substrate-level phosphorylation?
A process of generating ATP by transferring a phosphate group directly from a substrate to ADP.
## Footnote
This occurs during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle.
97
What is oxidative phosphorylation?
The process of ATP generation that occurs in the electron transport chain, using energy from electrons.
## Footnote
This method is highly efficient and produces the majority of ATP in aerobic respiration.
98
What occurs during glycolysis?
The breakdown of glucose into pyruvate, producing a small amount of ATP and NADH.
## Footnote
Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
99
What is the Krebs cycle?
A series of reactions that further oxidizes pyruvate, producing ATP, NADH, FADH2, and CO2.
## Footnote
The Krebs cycle occurs in the mitochondrial matrix in eukaryotes.
100
What is the electron transport chain?
A series of proteins in the inner mitochondrial membrane that transfer electrons and pump protons to generate ATP.
## Footnote
This process is the final stage of aerobic respiration.
101
What is aerobic respiration?
The process of producing cellular energy with oxygen as the final electron acceptor.
## Footnote
The overall equation is C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP.
102
What is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
Oxygen (O2)
## Footnote
Oxygen plays a crucial role in accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain.
103
Define anaerobic respiration.
The process of producing energy without oxygen, using alternative electron acceptors.
## Footnote
Anaerobic respiration can yield less energy compared to aerobic respiration.
104
What are the possible final electron acceptors in anaerobic respiration?
• NO (Nitrate)
• CO (Carbon monoxide)
• SO (Sulfate)
• S (Sulfur)
## Footnote
These acceptors vary based on the specific anaerobic organisms involved.
105
What is fermentation?
A metabolic process that converts sugars to acids, gases, or alcohol in the absence of oxygen.
## Footnote
Fermentation allows for ATP production when aerobic respiration is not possible.
106
What is the equation for fermentation?
C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + ATP
## Footnote
This equation represents alcoholic fermentation, commonly utilized in brewing.
107
What is the final electron acceptor in fermentation?
Organic molecules (e.g., pyruvate or acetaldehyde)
## Footnote
The acceptor can vary depending on the type of fermentation.
108
What part of fermentation is used for disease diagnosis?
The production of gases or acids as byproducts of fermentation.
## Footnote
Certain microorganisms can be identified based on their fermentation profiles.
109
What are alternative substrates for respiration?
• Carbohydrates (hydrolysis)
• Lipids (B oxidation)
• Proteins (deamination)
## Footnote
These substrates can be utilized for energy production when glucose is not available.
110
What is a prion?
A prion is a misfolded protein that can induce other proteins to misfold, leading to neurodegenerative diseases.
111
True or False: Archaebacteria are prokaryotic organisms.
True
112
Fill in the blank: Eubacteria have __________ cell walls that contain peptidoglycan.
rigid
113
Which kingdom includes organisms that are mostly unicellular and can be autotrophic or heterotrophic?
Protista
114
What characteristic distinguishes animals from other kingdoms?
Animals are multicellular, eukaryotic organisms that are heterotrophic and typically have nervous and muscular systems.
115
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fungi? A) Eukaryotic B) Photosynthetic C) Heterotrophic D) Cell walls made of chitin
B) Photosynthetic
116
What is the primary function of the cell wall in plantae?
The cell wall provides structural support and protection, and is primarily made of cellulose.
117
True or False: Eubacteria can be found in extreme environments.
False
118
What type of reproduction is common in fungi?
Fungi commonly reproduce through spores.
119
Fill in the blank: Archaebacteria are known for their ability to survive in __________ environments.
extreme
120
What are the two main types of cells that pathogens can have?
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic.
121
True or False: All pathogens are cellular.
False.
122
What type of pathogen is a virus considered to be?
An infectious particle.
123
Fill in the blank: Prokaryotic cells lack a _____.
Nucleus.
124
Which type of cell is generally smaller, prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
Prokaryotic.
125
Name one characteristic of eukaryotic cells.
They have membrane-bound organelles.
126
True or False: Bacteria are eukaryotic pathogens.
False.
127
What type of pathogen can reproduce independently?
Cellular pathogens (prokaryotic and eukaryotic).
128
Which type of pathogens are known to be unicellular?
Prokaryotic pathogens.
129
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a eukaryotic pathogen? A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Virus
B) Fungi.
130
What is a characteristic of viruses?
They cannot reproduce independently and require a host.
131
Fill in the blank: Eukaryotic pathogens include _____ and protozoa.
Fungi.
132
True or False: Viruses contain cellular structures.
False.
133
What is the main difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
Prokaryotic cells do not have a nucleus, while eukaryotic cells do.
134
Name one example of a prokaryotic pathogen.
Escherichia coli (E. coli).
135
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of prokaryotic cells? A) No nucleus B) Complex organelles C) Smaller size
B) Complex organelles.
136
What type of pathogen includes multicellular organisms?
Eukaryotic pathogens.
137
Fill in the blank: Infectious particles such as _____ do not have a cellular structure.
Viruses.
138
True or False: All eukaryotic pathogens are multicellular.
False.
139
What is a common characteristic of prokaryotic pathogens?
They often have a cell wall.
140
Name one type of infectious particle.
Virus.
141
What type of nucleic acid can viruses contain?
DNA or RNA.
142
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a characteristic of eukaryotic cells? A) Circular DNA B) Larger size C) No membrane-bound organelles
B) Larger size.
143
What is the primary function of a cell wall in prokaryotic pathogens?
To provide structure and protection.
144
True or False: All pathogens can be classified as either prokaryotic or eukaryotic.
False.
145
Which type of pathogen is typically associated with causing diseases in humans?
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens.
146
Who is known as the father of microbiology?
Louis Pasteur
147
True or False: Robert Koch developed postulates to establish a causal relationship between a microbe and a disease.
True
148
Fill in the blank: _______ discovered the first antibiotic, penicillin.
Alexander Fleming
149
Which scientist is credited with the invention of the microscope?
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
150
What major discovery is Edward Jenner known for?
The smallpox vaccine
151
Multiple Choice: Who proposed the germ theory of disease? A) Louis Pasteur B) Edward Jenner C) Robert Hooke D) Joseph Lister
A) Louis Pasteur
152
Short Answer: What did Joseph Lister introduce to surgical practice?
Aseptic techniques
153
True or False: The discovery of viruses was made by Dmitri Ivanovsky.
True
154
Fill in the blank: The first vaccine was developed by _______.
Edward Jenner
155
What technique did Robert Koch develop to isolate bacteria?
Pure culture techniques
156
What is a subspecies?
A subspecies is a taxonomic category that ranks below species, representing a population of organisms that are genetically distinct and adapted to specific environments.
157
True or False: Variants are always considered subspecies.
False
158
Fill in the blank: A subspecies is often identified based on __________ characteristics.
morphological or behavioral
159
Which of the following is an example of a subspecies? A) Canis lupus familiaris B) Canis lupus C) Canis latrans
A) Canis lupus familiaris
160
What differentiates a variant from a subspecies?
Variants are typically minor genetic differences within a species that do not warrant classification as a subspecies.
161
What is diffusion?
Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
162
True or False: Osmosis is a type of diffusion that specifically involves water molecules.
True
163
Fill in the blank: Facilitated diffusion requires __________ to help transport substances across the cell membrane.
transport proteins
164
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of osmosis? A) It involves water B) It requires energy C) It occurs across a semipermeable membrane.
B) It requires energy
165
What is the primary difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion?
Facilitated diffusion requires specific transport proteins, while diffusion does not.
166
What type of immunity is characterized by fast, nonspecific defenses?
Innate immunity
## Footnote
Includes defenses such as skin, phagocytes, and complement systems.
167
What is the function of the capsule in S. pneumoniae?
Prevents phagocytosis
## Footnote
The capsule acts as a virulence factor, aiding in evasion of the immune response.
168
What is the role of the Lipid A portion of LPS?
Endotoxin in Gram-negatives
## Footnote
Lipid A is a component of the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria, contributing to their pathogenicity.
169
What disease is described as zoonotic and transmitted from animals?
Rabies
## Footnote
Rabies virus is commonly spread through bites from infected animals.
170
Which antibody is the first produced during an initial infection?
IgM
## Footnote
IgM is typically the first antibody to respond to an infection, indicating early immune response.
171
What type of disease is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Prion disease
## Footnote
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is caused by prions, which are misfolded proteins that induce abnormal folding of normal cellular proteins.
172
Which protozoan causes malaria?
Plasmodium
## Footnote
Plasmodium is a genus of parasitic protozoa, and several species are responsible for malaria in humans.
173
What bacterium is known to cause gastric ulcers?
Helicobacter pylori
## Footnote
Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative bacterium that colonizes the stomach lining and is linked to the development of peptic ulcers.
174
What type of virus is HIV classified as?
Retrovirus
## Footnote
HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a member of the Retroviridae family, characterized by its ability to reverse transcribe RNA into DNA.
175
What disease is associated with Coccidioides?
Coccidioidomycosis
## Footnote
Coccidioidomycosis, also known as Valley fever, is caused by inhaling spores from the Coccidioides fungus.
176
What does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain detect?
Mycolic acid in Mycobacterium
## Footnote
The Ziehl-Neelsen stain is specifically used to identify acid-fast bacteria, which have a waxy cell wall containing mycolic acid.
177
What laboratory technique separates DNA fragments by size?
Gel electrophoresis
## Footnote
Gel electrophoresis is a method used to separate nucleic acids or proteins based on their size and charge.
178
What technique is used to amplify DNA?
PCR
## Footnote
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a widely used method to make millions of copies of a specific DNA segment.
179
What is antigen-antibody binding seen in?
Precipitation, flocculation, and agglutination
## Footnote
This refers to the various reactions where antigens and antibodies interact, leading to visible aggregates or precipitates.
180
What is yogurt produced by?
Lactic acid fermentation
## Footnote
This process involves the conversion of sugars into lactic acid by bacteria, which gives yogurt its characteristic flavor and texture.
181
What type of vaccine uses weakened pathogens?
Live attenuated
## Footnote
Examples include the MMR vaccine, which protects against measles, mumps, and rubella.
182
What is the effect of having enough people immune to a disease?
Breaks transmission chain
## Footnote
This concept is known as herd immunity, which helps protect those who are not immune.
183
What is bioremediation by microbes?
Microbes digest organic matter in sewage
## Footnote
This process helps in cleaning up contaminated environments by using microorganisms to break down pollutants.
184
What does BSL-4 stand for?
Maximum safety laboratory
## Footnote
BSL-4 labs are designed to work with high-risk pathogens like Ebola and smallpox, requiring the highest level of containment.
185
What type of bacteria is Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Acid-fast bacilli, respiratory disease
## Footnote
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is known for causing tuberculosis, primarily affecting the lungs.
186
What is an obligate anaerobe?
Growth only at the bottom where no oxygen is present
## Footnote
Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and rely on fermentation or anaerobic respiration.
187
What is Clostridioides difficile associated with?
Overgrowth after antibiotic therapy
## Footnote
Clostridioides difficile can lead to antibiotic-associated diarrhea and colitis.
188
What type of disease is Lyme disease?
Vector-borne (Ixodes tick)
## Footnote
Lyme disease is transmitted through the bite of infected Ixodes ticks.
189
What is a nosocomial infection?
Hospital-acquired
## Footnote
Nosocomial infections are infections that patients acquire while receiving treatment for other conditions within a healthcare setting.
190
What is a prion?
Smallest infectious agent, only protein
## Footnote
Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause neurodegenerative diseases.
191
What role do pili play in bacteria?
DNA transfer and attachment
## Footnote
Pili are hair-like structures that facilitate adhesion to surfaces and genetic exchange through conjugation.
192
What is the purpose of a Gram stain?
Differentiates based on cell wall structure
## Footnote
The Gram stain is a crucial laboratory technique used to classify bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative.
193
What is the function of RNA polymerase?
Synthesize RNA from a DNA template
## Footnote
RNA polymerase is essential for transcription in cellular processes.
194
What is an obligate aerobe?
Requires oxygen for growth
## Footnote
Obligate aerobes must have oxygen to survive and grow, utilizing it for cellular respiration.
195
What type of bacteria is Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Acid-fast bacilli, respiratory disease
## Footnote
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is known for causing tuberculosis, primarily affecting the lungs.
196
What is an obligate anaerobe?
Growth only at the bottom where no oxygen is present
## Footnote
Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and rely on fermentation or anaerobic respiration.
197
What is Clostridioides difficile associated with?
Overgrowth after antibiotic therapy
## Footnote
Clostridioides difficile can lead to antibiotic-associated diarrhea and colitis.
198
What type of disease is Lyme disease?
Vector-borne (Ixodes tick)
## Footnote
Lyme disease is transmitted through the bite of infected Ixodes ticks.
199
What is a nosocomial infection?
Hospital-acquired
## Footnote
Nosocomial infections are infections that patients acquire while receiving treatment for other conditions within a healthcare setting.
200
What is a prion?
Smallest infectious agent, only protein
## Footnote
Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause neurodegenerative diseases.
201
What role do pili play in bacteria?
DNA transfer and attachment
## Footnote
Pili are hair-like structures that facilitate adhesion to surfaces and genetic exchange through conjugation.
202
What is the purpose of a Gram stain?
Differentiates based on cell wall structure
## Footnote
The Gram stain is a crucial laboratory technique used to classify bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative.
203
What is the function of RNA polymerase?
Synthesize RNA from a DNA template
## Footnote
RNA polymerase is essential for transcription in cellular processes.
204
What is an obligate aerobe?
Requires oxygen for growth
## Footnote
Obligate aerobes must have oxygen to survive and grow, utilizing it for cellular respiration.
205
What is the smallest infectious agent that is only a protein?
Prion
## Footnote
Prions are misfolded proteins that can cause disease.
206
What structure is used for DNA transfer and attachment in bacteria?
Pili
## Footnote
Pili are hair-like structures that facilitate conjugation and adhesion.
207
What laboratory technique differentiates bacteria based on cell wall structure?
Gram stain
## Footnote
The Gram stain categorizes bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative.
208
What is the function of RNA polymerase?
Synthesize RNA from a DNA template
## Footnote
RNA polymerase is essential for transcription.
209
What type of organism requires oxygen for growth?
Obligate aerobe
## Footnote
Obligate aerobes cannot survive without oxygen.
210
What term describes 'jumping genes'?
Transposon
## Footnote
Transposons can move within and between genomes.
211
What is the mechanism by which the complement system kills pathogens?
Inserting pores in membranes (MAC complex)
## Footnote
The Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) disrupts the integrity of bacterial membranes.
212
Which virus is linked to cervical cancer?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
## Footnote
Certain strains of HPV are high-risk for cervical cancer.
213
In what year was smallpox declared eradicated?
1980
## Footnote
Smallpox is the first disease to be eradicated globally through vaccination.
214
Who is known as the father of microbiology?
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
## Footnote
He was the first to observe and describe microorganisms using a microscope.
Microbiology
flashcards
Decks in class (36)
# Cards
-
Chemistry & Biochemistry49
-
Ch 8 Metabolic109
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Ch. 13 Microbes131
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Ch, 4 Prokaryotes54
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Midterm Prep214
-
Ch 189
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Ch. 2104
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Ch. 489
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Practice Test140
-
Scientific Disease Names10
-
Euk Vs Prok167
-
DNA Rep27
-
Lab Practicum19
-
Ch. 5 Eukaryotes245
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Ch. 6147
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Ch. 9386
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Test 2 Review132
-
#11-51 Cards31
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Ch. 7285
-
Ch. 11349
-
Ch. 12415
-
Extra 12450
-
Lab Review128
-
Lec 3 Review64
-
Ch 1456
-
Disease Cards 21-28, 52-6825
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Disease Card Quiz177
-
Ch. 15315
-
Ch. 16319
-
Final Study Guide174
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#10-20137
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#21-31169
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#32-43155
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#44-54160
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#55-68211
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Ch 1748
