Midterm Study Guide

Question 1

After placing zygomatic implants, what is the immediate next step for the
prosthodontist?

Answer 1

a. Immediate loading
b. Early loading
c. Delayed loading
d. 2nd stage loading

a. Immediate loading

Question 2

Which of the following radiographic exams should be assessed before zygomatic implant
placement?

Answer 2

a. PA
b. Lateral cephalometric
c. Mandibular analysis

Lateral ceph, pano, CT, then PA
Pano = anatomy and pathology
PA = supplementary
Lateral ceph = sagittal relationship of jaws
CT = bone volume

Question 3

What is the classic treatment planning requirement for zygomatic implant placement?

Answer 3

a. 2 zygomatic implants + 2 mini implants
b. 2 zygomatic implants + 2 regular implants
c. 4 zygomatic implants + 2 regular implants
d. 2 zygomatic implants + 4 regular implants

b. 2 zygomatic implants + 2 regular implants

Question 4

How much can you expect to lift via intracrestal sinus lift?

Answer 4

a. 1-2 mm
b. 3-4 mm
c. 4-6 mm
d. 8-10 mm

a. 1-2 mm

5mm can be done- monster if >5mm

Question 5

Which of the following is the recommended initial maxillary residual ridge for predictable result with an intracrestal sinus lift?

Answer 5

a. 1-2 mm
b. 3-4 mm
c. 4-6 mm
d. 8-10 mm

c. 4-6 mm

Question 6

Which of the following describes the Schneiderian membrane?

Answer 6

a. Pseudostratified ciliated squamous epithelium
b. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
c. Stratified ciliated squamous epithelium
d. Stratified ciliated columnar epithelium

b. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

Question 7

What is the minimum ridge width for alveolar ridge splitting?

Answer 7

a. 1-2 mm
b. 2-4 mm
c. 4-6 mm
d. 8-10 mm

b. 2-4 mm

3mm preferres

Question 8

Which of the following is an indication for lateral window lift?

Answer 8

a. Less than 4 mm of native maxillary alveolar bone

Question 9

Which of the following is an example of a xenograft?

Answer 9

a. Bioactive glass ceramic
b. Bovine bone
c. Cadaver bone
d. Symphysis bone

b. Bovine bone

Question 10

Which of the following grafts can NOT be used in a maxillary intracrestal sinus lift?

Answer 10

a. Autogenous
b. Alloplast
c. Gelfoam
d. NO graft

c. Gelfoam

Question 11

Which type of bone is essentially thick cortical bone?

Answer 11

a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

a. Type I

Question 12

Which of the following is a unique property of benzodiazepines?

Answer 12

a. Analgesia
b. Anticonvulsant

b. Anticonvulsant

Question 13

Which of the following is not a common side effect of benzodiazepines

Answer 13

a. Fatigue
b. Drowsiness
c. Respiratory depression
d. Mydriasis

d. Mydriasis (Dilation of the pupils)

Question 14

Which of the following was the first benzodiazepine?

Answer 14

a. Librium
b. Valium

a. Librium

Question 15

If someone were to overdose on benzodiazepine, what would you give them?

Answer 15

a. Romazicon

Question 16

Which of the following is true regarding Diprivan?

Answer 16

a. It is a competitive antagonist of benzodiazepine receptors
b. It has a half-life of 1-3 hours
c. It binds to opioid receptors

These are all technically wrong because it should be AGONIST

Question 17

Which of the following statements is true about Ketamine?

Answer 17

a. Selective NMDA receptor blocker
b. Non-selective NMDA receptor blocker
c. Selective GABA receptor blocker
d. Non-selective GABA receptor blocker

a. Selective NMDA receptor blocker

Question 18

Which of the following is the gold standard of pain medications?

Answer 18

a. Morphine
b. Fentanyl
c. Ketamine
d. Lorazepam

a. Morphine

Question 19

Which of the following are properties of Ketamine?

Answer 19

a. Dissociative, hallucinogenic, amnesic effect

Question 20

Which of the following is true about Propofol?

Answer 20

a. Causes arterial and venous constriction
b. Causes arterial and venous dilation
c. New meds like Thiopental are replacing it in IV sedation

b. Causes arterial and venous dilation

Question 21

Which of the following receptors is responsible for effects like dysphoria?

Answer 21

a. Mu
b. Kappa
c. Delta
d. Sigma

d. Sigma

Question 22

Which of the following is an undesirable effect of opioids?

Answer 22

a. Respiratory depression
b. Anti-histamine release

a. Respiratory depression

Question 23

Which of the following describes the potency of fentanyl compared to morphine?

Answer 23

a. 10x
b. 100x
c. 1000x
d. 10,000x

b. 100x

Question 24

Which of the following statements is true regarding Narcan?

Answer 24

a. Has greater affinity at mu receptors than kappa receptors
b. Has greater affinity at kappa receptors than mu receptors

a. Has greater affinity at mu receptors than kappa receptors

Question 25

How much Naloxone would you give to someone who overdosed on opioids?

Answer 25

a. 4.0 mg IV b. 0.4 mg IV c. 0.04 mg IV d. 40 mg IV **b. 0.4 mg IV**

Question 26

Which of the following statements are true regarding the classification of patient examination?

Answer 26

a. It was started by the American Society of Anesthesiologists b. It is a system used to estimate surgical risk c. It was founded in 1982 by ___ **a. It was started by the American Society of Anesthesiologists**

Question 27

Ideally, most patients at UMKC would be ___

Answer 27

a. ASA I-II b. ASA III-IV c. ASA IV-V d. ASA V-VI **a. ASA I-II**

Question 28

Which of the following is an example of ASA IV patients?

Answer 28

Unstable angina ## Footnote ASA 4 unstable angina >6mo w/out myocardial infarction, CVA >200/>115 severe CHF/COPD uncontrolled epilepsy uncontrolled IDDM uncontrolled disrhythmias

Question 29

Which of the following statements are true regarding MO sedation laws?

Answer 29

a. A license is not required for minimal sedation

Question 30

Which of the following are classifications of moderate sedation?

Answer 30

a. Enteral, Parenteral, Pediatric

Question 31

What is the OMS anesthesia training requirement?

Answer 31

a. Minimum of 4 consecutive months of training b. Minimum of 5 months of anesthesia training, 1 of which is pediatric training c. Must have at least 250+ office-based sedation cases **b. Minimum of 5 months of anesthesia training, 1 of which is pediatric training**

Question 32

Which of the following is not used to monitor during IV sedation?

Answer 32

a. Nasal hood b. Pulse oximeter c. ECG d. Compression monitor **a. Nasal hood**

Question 33

What wavelengths do the pulse oximetry use to measure % oxygenated Hb vs reduced Hb?

Answer 33

a. 650 nm and 950 nm

Question 34

What does capnography measure?

Answer 34

a. Inspired CO2 b. Expired CO2 c. Inspired O2 d. Expired O2 **b. Expired CO2**

Question 35

Which of the following is an advantage of capnography?

Answer 35

a. Real-time feedback on treatment

Question 36

Which of the following is the most safe and reliable definitive airways during IV sedation?

Answer 36

a. Endotracheal intubation

Question 37

Which of the following is an adjunctive airway used during IV?

Answer 37

a. Nasal pharyngeal airway b. Combination tube c. Laryngeal face airway **a. Nasal pharyngeal airway**

Question 38

Which of the following adjunctive airways would be best for a patient that is conscious?

Answer 38

a. Nasal pharyngeal airway b. Laryngeal mask airway c. Oral pharyngeal airway d. Endotracheal intubation **a. Nasal pharyngeal airway**

Question 39

Patient evaluation should always be done by ___?

Answer 39

a. The person who checked the patient in b. The person who explained the risks, benefits, and alternatives of sedation to the patient c. The person who planned and administers the sedation d. Any random person **c. The person who planned and administers the sedation**

Question 40

At UMKC, which of the following is most important?

Answer 40

a. Never treat a patient screened in the pre-doctoral clinic b. Never treat a stranger c. Never treat a patient without insurance **b. Never treat a stranger**

Question 41

Which of the following are formats of the medical history questionnaire?

Answer 41

Short and/or long

Question 42

What is the classification for airway examination prior to IV sedation?

Answer 42

Mallamapti classification

Question 43

Which of the following is nitrous oxide made from?

Answer 43

a. Ammonium nitrate

Question 44

Which of the following is a special property of nitrous oxide to humans?

Answer 44

a. 2nd gas effect b. Concentric effect **a. 2nd gas effect** 2nd gas effect and CONCENTRATION effect

Question 45

What color is the oxygen tank?

Answer 45

a. Blue b. Red c. Black d. White (in Tanzania) **d. White (in Tanzania)**

Question 46

Which of the following is true regarding nitrous tanks?

Answer 46

a. Size E oxygen tank has 1900 Psi and gaseous state only b. Size E oxygen tank has 750 Psi and gaseous state and liquid state c. Size E nitrous tank has 1900 Psi and gaseous state and liquid state d. Size E nitrous tank has 750 Psi and gaseous state only **a. Size E oxygen tank has 1900 Psi and gaseous state only**

Question 47

Chronic exposure to nitrous oxide is detrimental to ___?

Answer 47

a. Dental professionals b. Elderly patients c. Pediatric patients **a. Dental professionals**

Question 48

Use of what drug is automatically considered general sedation?

Answer 48

a. Fentanyl b. Morphine c. Versed d. Ketamine **d. Ketamine**

Question 49

In MO, what is the oldest age is considered a child?

Answer 49

a. 10 years old b. 11 years old c. 12 years old d. 13 years old **c. 12 years old**

Question 50

Horace Wells demonstrated nitrous oxide at Harvard Medical school in 1845.

Answer 50

a. True b. False **a. True**