Misc Questions Flashcards by Stacy Silver

Name three red cell immune antibodies.
(The antibodies named must represent three different systems!)

Any antibody in the Rh, Kell, Kidd or Duffy System plus anti-S or anti-s.

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What immunoglobulin class would you expect the red cell immune antibodies to be?

IgG

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Name three non-red cell immune antibodies. (The antibodies named must represent
three different systems!)

Any antibody in the ABO, Lewis, P or Ii system, plus anti-M and anti-N.

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What immunoglobulin class would you expect non-red cell immune antibodies to be?

IgM

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Define the term “non-red cell immune”.

Antibodies formed in response to unknown antigenic stimulus (i.e. not red cells).

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Define the term “red cell immune”.

Antibodies formed in response to exposure to red cells either through transfusion or
pregnancy (individual lacks corresponding antigen).

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Why must screening cells be group O?

Screening cells must be group O (lack A and B antigens) so that they can be used with
sera from patients of all ABO groups.

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Why must antigens on screening cells be in double dose (i.e. result from homozygous
genotypes) wherever possible?

These cells are the most sensitive for detecting weakly reacting antibodies and
antibodies which show dosage effect. (i.e. they have the greatest expression of
antigen.)

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Use Screening Cell Profile S-1689: Which screening cell has the phenotype K-k+?

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Use Screening Cell Profile S-1689: Which screening cell has the Fyb antigen in double dose?

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Use Screening Cell Profile S-1689: Which cell has the phenotype Jk(a+b+)?

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Use Screening Cell Profile S-1689: Which cell has a single dose expression of the S antigen?

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Use panel 773: The panel cells positive for the Lea antigen are

1, 5

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Use panel 773: The panel cells positive for the Jka antigen are

1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9

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Use panel 773: Cell(s) with a double dose expression of the Jka antigen are

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Use panel 773: Cell(s) with a single dose of the Jka antigen are

1, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9

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Use panel 773: The panel cells which have the phenotype Fy(a+b+) are

2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10

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Use panel 773: The red cell antigens on panel cell 7 are

c, e, k, Fya, Jkb, s, N, P1

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Use panel 773: Panel cell(s) positive for the Fyb antigen (is) are

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10

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Use panel 773: The cell(s) which have the Fyb antigen in double dose is (are)

1, 8, 9

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Use panel 773: The cells which have the Fya antigen in single dose is (are)

2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10

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Use panel 773: The panel cell(s), which has (have) the phenotype Jk(a+b+) (is) are

1, 3, 5, 6, 8, 9

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Use panel 7-11: The possible antibodies that could be present in the patient’s serum sample are:
a) anti-C, -K, -Fya, -Leb
b) anti-D, -C, -E, -K, -Fya. -Leb, -P1
c) anti-D, -K, -Leb
d) anti-D, -C, -E
e) anti-C, -Fya, -Leb

a) anti-C, -K, -Fya, -Leb

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Use panel 7-11: The probable antibodies that could be present in the serum sample are:
a) anti-C, -K, -Fya, -Leb
b) anti-D, -C, -E, -K, -Fya, -Leb, -P1
c) anti-D, -K, -Leb
d) anti-D, -C, -E
e) anti-C, -Fya, -Leb

e) anti-C, -Fya, -Leb

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Use panel 7-11: Which antigen/antibody reaction was enhanced by enzyme treatment of red cells? (See column (B)). a) anti-D with D positive red cells. b) anti-Fya with Fy(a+) positive red cells c) anti-Leb with Le(b+) positive red cells d) anti-K with K+ positive red cells e) anti-C with C+ positive red cells

e) anti-C with C+ positive red cells

Use panel 7-11: Which antigen/antibody reaction was inhibited by the enzyme treated red cells? (See column (B)) a) anti-D with D positive red cells b) anti-Fya with Fy(a+) positive red cells. c) anti-Leb with Le(b+) positive red cells d) anti-K with K+ positive red cells e) anti-C with C+ positive red cells

b) anti-Fya with Fy(a+) positive red cells.

Use panel 7-11: Probable antibody specificity(ies) in serum sample are: a) anti-D, anti-Fya b) anti-Fya c) anti-C, -Fya d) anti-C e) anti-D, -C

c) anti-C, -Fya

Which immunoglobulin class of antibodies will anti-IgG globulin detect? a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgE e) IgD

a) IgG

A serum sample contains anti-E and anti-Fya. Which of the following sets of cells would you select to confirm the presence of these antibodies? a) E+, Fy(a+); E-Fy(a+); E-Fy(a-) b) E+, Fy(a-); E+, Fy(a+); E- Fy(a-) c) E+, Fy(a-); E-; Fy(a+); E-, Fy(a-)

c) E+, Fy(a-); E-; Fy(a+); E-, Fy(a-)

Saliva from an individual with the phenotype B Le(a+b-) would neutralize: a) anti-B, anti-H, and anti-Leb b) anti-B, anti-H and anti-Lea c) anti-Lea d) anti-Leb e) anti-B, anti-H, anti-Lea and anti-Leb

c) anti-Lea

After examination of a cell panel, anti-D, -C, -K, -Fya, -Jka, -Lea and anti-M cannot be eliminated. The patient's phenotype is D+C-E+c+e-, Fy(a+b-), K-, Jk(a+b+), Le(a+b-), MN+. Which of the antibodies listed can now be eliminated? a) anti-D, -Jka, -M b) anti-C, -K, -Jka, -M c) anti-C, -K, -M d) anti-D, -Fya, -Lea, -Jka e) anti-D, -Jka, -M

d) anti-D, -Fya, -Lea, -Jka

The antibodies which may still be present in the serum specimen in question 15 above are: a) anti-D, -Jkb, -M b) anti-C, -K, -M, -Jkb c) anti-C, -K, -M d) anti-D, -Fya, -Lea, -Jkb e) anti-D, -Fya, -Jka, -Lea

c) anti-C, -K, -M

To resolve the antibody mixture in question 16, the technologist decides to absorb out the Rh antibody in the mixture. Which cell would you choose for this process? a) D+, Jk(b-), M b) C+, K-, M c) C-, K+, M d) D+, Fy(a-), Le(a-), Jk(b-) e) D-, Fy(a+), Jk(b+), Le(a-)

b) C+, K-, M

A serum sample contains anti-K and anti-Jka. Which of the following sets of cells would you select to confirm the presence of these antibodies? a) K+, Jk(a+); K-, Jk(a+); K-, Jk(a-) b) K+, Jk(a-); K+, Jk(a+); K-, Jk(a-) c) K+, Jk(a-); K-, Jk(a+); K-, Jk(a-)

c) K+, Jk(a-); K-, Jk(a+); K-, Jk(a-)

Saliva from an individual with the phenotype A Le(a-b+) would neutralize: a) anti-A, anti-H, anti-Leb b) anti-A, anti-H, anti-Lea c) anti-Leb d) anti-Lea e) anti-A, anti-H, anti-Lea and anti-Leb

e) anti-A, anti-H, anti-Lea and anti-Leb

After examination of a cell panel, anti-E, -K, - Fyb, -Jka, -Leb and anti-P1 cannot be eliminated. The patient's phenotype is D+C-E-c+e+, K+k+, Fy(a+b-), Jk(a+b+); Le(a-b+), P1- and M+N+. Which of the antibodies can now be eliminated? a) anti-K, -Jka, -Leb b) anti-E, - Fyb, -P1 c) anti-E, -Jka, -Leb d) anti-K, - Fyb e) anti-E, -K, - Fyb, -Jka

a) anti-K, -Jka, -Leb

The antibodies which may still be present in the serum specimen in question 20 above are: a) anti-K, -Jka, -Leb b) anti-E, - Fyb, -P1 c) anti-E, -Jka, -Leb d) anti-K, - Fyb, -P1 e) anti-E, -K, - Fyb, -Jka

b) anti-E, - Fyb, -P1

To resolve the antibody mixture in question 21 above, the technologist decides to absorb out one of the antibodies in the mixture. Which cell would you choose for this process? a) K+, Jk(a-), Le(b-) b) E+, Fy(b-), P1- c) E+, Jk(a-), Le(b-) d) K+, Fy(b-), P1- e) E+, K-, Fy(b-), Jk(a-)

b) E+, Fy(b-), P1-

T or F: Serum from individuals with multiple myeloma may display rouleaux on testing.

T or F: Polyagglutination is caused by T-activation.

T or F: Anti-P1 and anti-I display dosage when reacted with their corresponding antigen.

T or F: It may be very difficult to find compatible blood for a patient with an antibody to a high incidence antigen

T or F: Autoantibodies may react with all panel cells making it difficult to establish the presence of an alloantibody.

T or F: Prozone is occuring when an undiluted antibody agglutinates its corresponding antigen but does not agglutinate when it is diluted.

T or F: The dispersion of apparent red cell aggregates using a saline replacement technique confirms the presence of agglutination.

T or F: Arachis hypogaea lectin will agglutinate T-activated cells.

Anti-P1 is an example of an antibody: a) to low incidence antigens b) to high incidence antigens c) showing variation in reactivity with red cells from different P1+ individuals d) which is weakly reactive e) which is rarely encountered

c) showing variation in reactivity with red cells from different P1+ individuals

One disease state which may be responsible for the appearance of rouleaux formation in a test procedure is: a) pernicious anemia b) flu c) heart condition d) multiple myeloma

d) multiple myeloma

Bacterially infected red cells are an example of panagglutination: a) True b) False

b) False

What would you do to prevent a misleading reaction due to Wharton's jelly from occurring? a) Obtain heel prick specimen b) perform a direct antiglobulin test c) wash cells x 5 d) (b) or (c) e) (a) or (c)

e) (a) or (c)

Use Panel 773: Q35: a) What antibody is this? b) Why the stronger reaction with cell #3

a) anti-E b) antigen in double dose on cell 3, single dose in cell 5.

Use Panel 773: Q36: a) What antibody is this? b) What is its probable immunoglobulin class?

a) anti-K b) IgG

Use Panel 773: Q37: a) What is the antibody? b) What is the term given to this phenomenon?

a) anti-c b) dosage

Use Panel 773: Q39: a) What antibody is this? b) The tests were repeated 3 days later on the same sample of serum, and all results were negative. Why?

a) Anti-Jka b) Complement levels have deteriorated

A patient has an identical phenotype to cell #1 on Panel 773, and is transfused with donor blood phenotypically identical to cell #2. a) What antibodies could the patient theoretically form? b) Of the above list, which are the two more commonly encountered antibodies?

a) anti-K, -Fya, anti-S b) anti-K, anti-Fya (Note: Anti-Leb and -N are NOT red cell immune. The antigens are foreign but the patient is not likely to respond to them.)

Use Panel 773: Q42: Which antibodies are present?

anti-E, -K (must rule out anti -V, -Jka)

Use Panel 773: Q43: Which antibodies are present?

anti-D, -K (must rule out anti -E, -Cw, -V, -Jka, -Lea, -M)

Use Panel 773: Q44: This is a mixture of three antibodies. a) What is the "cold" antibody? b) What antibodies are reacting in the indirect antiglobulin test?

a) anti-N b) anti-C, anti-D (must rule out anti -E, -Cw, -V, -K, -Jka)

Use Panel 773: Q45: What antibodies could be present?

a) anti-D, -C, -E, -Cw, -V, -K, -Fyb, -Jka, -Xga, -Lea-Leb, -S, -M, -P1.

Use Panel 773: Q45: To help solve this problem, the serum was reacted with another cell of phenotype: D-C+E+c+e+, Cw+, K+k-, Le(a+b-) M+N-S+sFy(a+b-) Jk(a+b-) and the serum failed to react with the above cell in the indirect antiglobulin test. What antibodies could now be present?

b) anti-D, -Fyb, (anti-Leb cannot be ruled out).

Do Q46

a) anti-D, -C, -E, -Cw, -V, -K, -Jka, -Lea, -M b) anti-C, -E, -Cw, -V, -Lea, -M c) anti-D, -K, (anti-Jka cannot be eliminated) d) i) anti-D ii) anti-K

a) List five antibodies which often fail to react with enzyme treated cells:

anti-Fya, -Fyb, -M, -N, -S

List three antibodies (each antibody from a different system) which are often enhanced by using enzyme treated cells.

any antibody from the Rh, Kidd, Lewis, Ii system

Why are controls necessary when using enzyme treated cells?

to ensure that the cells are not overly treated (they will become polyagglutinable).

Explain what is meant by the term aerosol. Why are aerosols dangerous in a laboratory?

An aerosol is minute particles of liquid suspended in the air. Aerosols are potentially infectious if contaminated by bacteria or viruses.

List two ways in which aerosols may be eliminated or minimized in a blood bank laboratory.

Two ways in which aerosols can be eliminated include: 1. do not operate centrifuges with lids open 2. do not open head of centrifuge while head is rotating 3. cover tubes containing large volumes of liquid while centrifuging them 4. remove corks from clotted blood samples in a fume hood 5. separate serum from cells in a fumehood 6. care in adding saline to tubes to avoid bubbles.

Explain why units of donor red cells must be stored in a blood bank refrigerator rather than in a domestic refrigerator.

Blood is stored in a "Blood Bank" rather than a domestic refrigerator, because a "Blood Bank" has a circulating fan which results in even distribution of temperature. The air in a domestic refrigerator moves by convection, which results in warm and cold spots, either of which may harm the red cells. Blood banks also have alarms to alert the technologist if the optimum conditions are not maintained. BB fridges/freezers must have a continuous monitoring device or the temp would need to be taken every 4 hours.

When and how often should blood bank centrifuges be calibrated serologically?

Serofuges should be calibrated serologically: 1. at installation, and every six months thereafter 2. when new parts are installed. However, there is no laboratory standard that specifies how often serofuges must be calibrated. The frequency would be site specific.

How often should Serofuge timers be checked?

Timers should be monitored monthly or at least quarterly. However, there is no laboratory standard that specifices how often serofuge timer must be checked. The frequency would be site specific – some sites are done every 6 months.

a) Explain why it is necessary to use a "single dose" expression of antigen as a positive control when testing antisera. b) Explain why a double dose expression of antigen is necessary for screening cells.

When testing for antigen on red cells, we wish to ensure that the antiserum will detect a weak expression of antigen. The weakest expression of antigen expected in the general population is the single dose. Therefore, if the reagent reacts with a single dose of antigen on the control cell we know that it will react with a single dose of antigen in the patient samples. When testing for the presence of antibody in serum, we must use the most sensitive expression of antigen - that is the double dose - even weak antibodies will react with this expression of antigen.

List four pieces of information which must appear on a vial of antiserum.

1. product name 2. manufacturer's name 3. method for use 4. lot number 5. expiry date 6. storage temperature 7. volume of antiserum in vial.

State whether the prospective donor would be accepted, temporarily deferred or permanently deferred. The prospective donor: had her gall bladder removed two months previously

temporarily deferred

State whether the prospective donor would be accepted, temporarily deferred or permanently deferred. The prospective donor: had his hemoglobin level checked and the drop of blood fell to the bottom of the copper sulfate solution.

temporarily deferred. Canadian Blood Services no longer does copper sulfate. They use the HemaCue POCT that provides them with the hemoglobin value. Female minimum is 125 g/L and males is minimum 130 g/L

State whether the prospective donor would be accepted, temporarily deferred or permanently deferred. The prospective donor: is being medicated for active allergies

temporarily deferred

State whether the prospective donor would be accepted, temporarily deferred or permanently deferred. The prospective donor: had hepatitis as a teenager

permanently deferred

State whether the prospective donor would be accepted, temporarily deferred or permanently deferred. The prospective donor: is a healthy female weighing 57 kilograms

accepted

This is a function that is performed by the components of the anticoagulant CPDA-1. List the component(s) of CPDA-1 beside the function for which it is(are responsible: responsible for anticoagulation

trisodium citrate

This is a function that is performed by the components of the anticoagulant CPDA-1. List the component(s) of CPDA-1 beside the function for which it is(are responsible: nutrient for the red cells

dextrose

This is a function that is performed by the components of the anticoagulant CPDA-1. List the component(s) of CPDA-1 beside the function for which it is(are responsible: necessary to help maintain red cell viability

monobasic sodium phosphate and adenine

This is a function that is performed by the components of the anticoagulant CPDA-1. List the component(s) of CPDA-1 beside the function for which it is(are responsible: lowers pH of CPDA-1 solution

citric acid

What combination of anticoagulant and additive solution is used by the CBS for the standard Red Blood Cell preparation? What are the components of the additive solution?

CPD & SAG-M.

What is the name of the procedure that involves the harvesting of granulocytes with the subsequent reinfusion of the remaining blood?

Leukopheresis

What is the purpose of compatibility testing?

To detect antibodies in the patient's serum which may shorten the life of transfused red cells.

List two limitations of the compatibility test.

Any two of the following: 1. does not ensure normal survival of donor cells 2. may not prevent alloimmunization of recipient to RBC antigens 3. will not detect all ABO or Rh discrepancies 4. will not detect all alloimmune antibodies 5. will not prevent all hemolytic transfusion reactions.

What are the advantages of screening and identifying irregular antibodies in the patient's serum before compatibility testing?

When the identity of the alloantibody is known, you can phenotype donor units and preselect antigen negative units for the crossmatch.

A major crossmatch is performed between patient's ______________________ and donor __________________________________.

Patient's serum, donor red cells

What blood group is used for an intrauterine transfusion?

O, Rh-negative

If a group A patient required two units of red cells and if there is no group A donor blood available, what other blood group would you recommend be given to this patient?

What two checks would you make on a patient's identity before drawing blood?

Ask patient to state name (verbal challenge: "What is your name?") Check wristband

What blood group is used for an exchange transfusion on a three day old group B infant who is suffering from H.D.N. due to anti-D?

O, Rh-negative

If a group AB patient requires two units of blood and if there is no group AB donor blood available, what other blood group would you recommend be given to this patient?

A or B or O (in that order of preference)

A group A2 patient requires blood for transfusion. Only one unit of three units crossmatched was compatible. The antibody screening test was negative. What is the most likely cause of the incompatibility?

Person is A2 with anti-A1 in serum

A patient has received three units of non-group specific blood two days previously. What effect may be noticed in routine ABO direct grouping?

mixed field reaction

List one problem which may occur in Rh grouping giving a false negative result.

failure to add antiserum; use of inactivated antiserum.

List one problem which may occur in Rh grouping giving a false positive result.

positive DAT (only a concern if doing a Weak D test. Most labs use saline Anti-D also so they don’t even do an Rh Control.

An irregular antibody was detected with the screening cells, but the crossmatch with two donor units was compatible. How would you explain these results? (auto-control was negative).

Donor units lack antigen corresponding to patient's antibody.

A patient's serum reacts with only one donor out of one hundred tested. The antibody screening tests were negative, as was the panel investigation. Give a possible reason for the above findings.

Donor unit may have positive DAT, or patient may have antibody to low incidence antigen.

_____________may occur as a secondary condition in patients who have primary atypical pneumonia.

Cold Hemagglutinin Disease (CHD)

What is the specificity of the Donath-Landsteiner antibody?

anti-P (i.e. anti-P+P1)

What is the immunoglobulin class of the Donath-Landsteiner Antibody?

IgG

Name two drugs which have been responsible for inducing a hemolytic anemia.

Sulphonamide, penicillin, cephalothin, methyldopa, quinine, quinidine, etc

To accurately determine the Rh phenotype of an individual with a positive direct antiglobulin test, anti-D antisera reactive in a _____________ medium must be used.

Saline

In warm autoantibody A.I.H.A. the autoantibody often demonstrates specificity within the ______________ blood group system.

A crossmatch is performed between: a) patient's cells and donor's cells b) patient's cells and donor's serum c) patient's cells and patients' serum d) patient's serum and donor's cells e) donor's cells and donor's serum

d) patient's serum and donor's cells

Harmless cold autoantibodies generally have a titre of less than _____________ at 4C.

The identity of an IgG alloantibody in a patient's serum has been confirmed. The donor units for transfusion to this patient must be: a) group specific and crossmatched b) tested for the presence of the corresponding antigen and antigen positive blood should be transfused c) tested for the presence of the corresponding antigen and antigen negative blood should be transfused d) tested for the presence of the same antibody e) group compatible and crossmatched

c) tested for the presence of the corresponding antigen and antigen negative blood should be transfused

A group A patient requires two units of blood and group specific blood is not available. The blood you would recommend be given to this patient is: a) B concentrated red cell b) O whole blood c) AB whole blood d) O concentrated red cells e) AB concentrated red cells

d) O concentrated red cells

When issuing group specific uncrossmatched blood for an emergency situation, which of the following procedures does not need to be performed before the blood is issued? a) obtain the patient's specimen b) ABO and Rh group the specimen c) confirmation of ABO and Rh group of donor d) remove segment from donor unit e) set up the crossmatch

e) set up the crossmatch

O Rh-negative uncrossmatched concentrated red cells have been issued, and there is an urgent request for plasma to be supplied for the same patient. Which group of plasma would you issue? a) A b) B c) AB d) O

c) AB

A group B patient requires two units of blood and group specific blood is not available. The blood you would recommend be given to this patient is: a) AB concentrated red cells b) O whole blood c) A concentrated red cells d) O concentrated red cells e) AB whole blood

d) O concentrated red cells

A patient has received three units of non-group specific (but compatible) blood two days previously. The effect noticed in routine ABO direct grouping may be: a) hemolyzed cells b) 4+ reactions c) 1+ reactions d) mixed field reactions e) spontaneous agglutination of cells

d) mixed field reactions

A patient's serum reacts with only one donor out of one hundred tested. The antibody screening tests were negative, as was the panel investigation. A possible reason for the above findings may be: a) that the patient is group A2B with anti-A1 in his serum b) rouleaux formation c) an autoantibody d) an antibody to a low incidence antigen e) an antibody to a high incidence antigen

d) an antibody to a low incidence antigen

Which cell do you feel would be most help in confirming the identity of an anti-I? a) A1I b) OI c) Oi d) A2I e) BI

c) Oi

Drugs which have been responsible for inducing a hemolytic anemia are: a) penicillin b) cephalothin c) methyldopa d) aldomet e) all of the above

e) all of the above

In cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia, the autoantibody often demonstrates specificity within which blood group system? a) Ii b) P c) Kell d) MNSs e) Rh

a) Ii

Anti-IH would react strongly with which of the following: a) A1I b) A2I c) Oi d) OI e) both A2I and OI

e) both A2I and OI

The autoantibody that may be present in patients with primary atypical pneumonia is: a) anti-P b) anti-I c) anti-i d) anti-e e) anti-H

b) anti-I

Match the item to a description: febrile reaction a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies (only true for red cells)

Match the item to a description: hemoglobinemia a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction

Match the item to a description: hyperkalemia a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

a) complication of massive transfusion

Match the item to a description: gradual fall in hemoglobin a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction

Match the item to a description: circulatory overload a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

a) complication of massive transfusion

Match the item to a description: complement binding antibodies involved a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction

Match the item to a description: pre-existing antibody involved a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

Match the item to a description: hypocoagulable state a) complication of massive transfusion b) feature of delayed hemolytic reaction c) may be seen following transfusion of blood to patients who have anti-leukocyte antibodies d) feature of intravascular hemolytic transfusion reaction e) feature of an immediate transfusion reaction

a) complication of massive transfusion

Match the item to a description: urticarial reactions a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

Match the item to a description: unexplained hyper-bilirubinemia a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

b) feature of an extravascular reaction

Match the item to a description: hypocoagulable state a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

d) complication of massive transfusion

Match the item to a description: anaphylactic-like reaction a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components

Match the item to a description: circulatory overload a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

d) complication of massive transfusion

Match the item to a description: non-complement binding antibodies involved a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

b) feature of an extravascular reaction

Match the item to a description: pre-existing antibody involved a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

c) feature of an immediate reaction

Match the item to a description: gradual fall in hemoglobin a) may be seen in IgA deficient persons who are transfused with plasma components b) feature of an extravascular reaction c) feature of an immediate reaction d) complication of massive transfusion e) may be seen following blood transfusion to patients who are sensitive to donor allergens

b) feature of an extravascular reaction

True or False: In an allergic reaction, the chief symptom is urticaria

True

True or False: Antibodies with Rh specificity are responsible for intravascular hemolysis

False

True or False: Methemalbumin may be detected immediately after an incompatible transfusion of red cells.

False

True or False: Red cell febrile reactions are caused by anti-leukocyte antibodies present in the recipient's plasma.

True

True or False: Non-immune hemolytic reactions occur when some agent other than antibody destroys the red cells

True

True or False: Circulatory overload may be avoided by transfusing concentrated red cells rather than whole blood

True

True or False: Thrombophlebitis occurs because of hyperkalemia.

False

True or False: A possible symptom of an acute intravascular hemolytic reaction is renal failure

True

True or False: Citrate toxicity leads to hypercalcemia.

False

True or False: Red cell concentrates are transfused to patients known to suffer anaphylactic-like reactions

False

True or False: In an anaphylactic-like reaction, the recipient's anti-IgA is reacting with IgA in the donor plasma.

True

True or False: Delayed transfusion reactions may go unnoticed unless they are caused by a hemolytic antibody such as anti-Jka.

True

True or False: Haptoglobin levels are above normal in patients suffering a hemolytic transfusion reaction.

False

True or False: Leukocyte-poor red cell concentrates are transfused to avoid anaphylactic-like reactions.

False

True or False: An immediate reaction may occur if a transfused donor unit contains an antibody corresponding to one of the patient's red cell antigens

True

True or False: Leukocyte poor red cell concentrates are recommended for transfusion to patients known to suffer anaphylactic-like reactions.

False

True or False: A hypercoagulable state may be induced by massive transfusion

False

True or False: The post-transfusion Rh control may be positive if the post-transfusion DAT is positive.

True

True or False: A transfusion reaction is defined as any adverse reaction produced in the recipient due to the transfusion of blood or blood products.

True

True or False: Tests for haptoglobin, methemalbumin and bilirubin may provide useful information if routine serological testing for a transfusion reaction proves inconclusive.

True

Anti-Jka was not detectable at the time of transfusion. One Jk(a+) unit was transfused and anti-Jka was detectable in the post-transfusion serum 5 days after the transfusion. Would this be classified as an immediate or delayed transfusion reaction? a = immediate reaction b = delayed reaction c = intravascular hemolysis d = extravascular hemolysis e = immediate or delayed reaction

b = delayed reaction

Anti-Jka was not detectable at the time of transfusion. One Jk(a+) unit was transfused and anti-Jka was detectable in the post-transfusion serum 5 days after the transfusion. would the cells be destroyed predominantly intra- or extravascularly? a = immediate reaction b = delayed reaction c = intravascular hemolysis d = extravascular hemolysis e = immediate or delayed reaction

c = intravascular hemolysis

If the pre-transfusion antibody screen is positive (2+) (autocontrol negative) and the post-transfusion antibody screen is weakly positive (autocontrol weak positive), what type of reaction would this indicate? a = immediate reaction b = delayed reaction c = intravascular hemolysis d = extravascular hemolysis e = immediate or delayed reaction

a = immediate reaction

Sensitized red cells are removed predominantly by the macrophages of the spleen and liver; what type of hemolysis does this represent? a = immediate reaction b = delayed reaction c = intravascular hemolysis d = extravascular hemolysis e = immediate or delayed reaction

d = extravascular hemolysis

A group O patient was accidently transfused with one unit of group A concentrated red cells. This would cause an ___________________ transfusion reaction. The red cell destruction would take place predominantly because the antibody involved in this reaction is _______________ which ______________________________.

Immediate; intravascularly; complement binding; results in lysis of group A red cells.

In an immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction, antibody is usually detected in the pre-transfusion sample, but the antibody may be weakly detectable or absent in the post-transfusion sample. Briefly explain in point form:

Antibody is absorbed onto antigen-positive donor red cells and is therefore removed from circulation.

In a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction, antibody is detected in the posttransfusion sample, but is absent in the pre-transfusion sample. Briefly explain in point form:

Antibody is below detectable levels in pre-sample; levels increase rapidly due to an anamnestic response, therefore detectable in post serum.

See Case 1

anti-Lea

See Case 2

anti-S

See Case 3

anti-Fya

See Case 4

anti-E

See Case 5

anti-C

See Case 6

anti-K

See Case 7

anti-P1

See Case 8

anti-Leb

See Case 9

anti-Lea, -Jka

See Case 10

anti-Leb, -K (must rule out anti-E)

See Case 11

anti-E, -S

See Case 12

anti-K, -N

See Case 13

anti-D, -Fya

See Case 14

anti-E, Leb

See Case 15

anti-c, -Lea (must rule out anti-E)

See Case 16

anti-E, -Jka (must rule out anti-K, -Lea)

See Case 17

anti-E, -Jka, -Lea (must rule out anti-K, -E)

See Case 18

anti-E, -S, -M (must rule out anti-Lea, -E)

See Case 19

anti-K, -E, -Leb

See Case 20

anti-C, -Fya, -Lea (must rule out anti-D, -E, -K, Jka, -Leb, -S, -M)

See Case 21

anti-E, -K, -Lea (must rule out anti-Jka)

See Case 22

anti-E, -K, -Fya (must rule out anti-Jka, -Jka)

See Case 23

anti-C, K, N (must rule out anti-Lea)

See Case 24

anti-E, -K, -Jka (must rule out anti-Lea)

Misc Questions Flashcards

(184 cards)