Miscellaneous Flashcards

(67 cards)

1
Q

HPV subtypes associated with conjunctival intraepithelial neoplasia (name 3)

A

16, 18, 33

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2
Q

Chlamydia subtype associated with trachoma

A

A-C

D onwards: conjunctivitis & STI

L: Lymphogranuloma venereum

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3
Q

STUMPED: Causes of congenital corneal opacity

A

Sclerocornea
Trauma
Ulcer
Mucopolysaccharoidoses
Peter’s anomaly
Endothelial dystrophy (CHED)
Dermoid

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4
Q

Lesions in the cerebral peduncle cause…?

A

Ipsilateral 3rd
Contralateral hemiparesis
(Weber’s syndrome)

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5
Q

Rb gene is on which chromosome?

A

Chromosome 13

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6
Q

Aniridia inheritance

A

PAX6 gene
Chromosome 11
AD (but 1/3 sporadic)

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7
Q

Autosomal dominant RP - which gene?

A

RHO gene
Chromosome 3

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8
Q

X-linked RP - which 2 genes?

A

RPGR, RP2

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9
Q

Aniridia - what % sporadic?

A

20% sporadic and associated with Wilm’s tumour

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10
Q

Types of Stickler syndrome (1-4)? And inheritance

A

All AD inheritance, different gene mutations.
Type 1: ocular features (empty vitreous, lattice, RD, megophthalmos) + arthropathy, deafness, Pierre-Robin sequence
Type 2: Type 1 but with beaded vitreous
Type 3: systemic involvement only
Type 4: ocular involvement only

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11
Q

Inheritance of posterior polar cataracts?

A

Autosomal dominant
Familial in 50% (rest sporadic)

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12
Q

Optic nerve hypoplasia associated with which hormone deficiencies?

A

Hypopituitarism:
Growth hormone deficiency is most common > hypothyroidism > adrenal insufficiency > posterior pit issues (diabetes insipidus)

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13
Q

Are hydrophobic or hydrophilic lenses associated with a higher rate of PCO?

A

Hydrophilic = worse for PCO

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14
Q

Silicone oil: what sort of refractive shift in (a) pseudo/phakic and (b) aphakic eyes?

A

A) Hyperopic shift
B) Myopic shift

If lens is there, the thicker oil reduces the focusing power of the lens
If no lens - the oil acts as a lens

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15
Q

Myopic / hyperopic laser refractive surgery - what impact on IOL?

A

Myopic LRS: underestimates IOL power > hyperopic shift
Hyperopic LRS: overestimates IOL power > myopic shift

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16
Q

Congenital rubella triad (which 3 body systems affected)

A

Ocular, cardiac abnormalities and sensorineural deafness

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17
Q

Congenital rubella ophthalmic manifestations

A

Cataract
Salt and pepper retinopathy
Microphthalmia
Glaucoma

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18
Q

Anterior lenticonus is associated with which syndrome?

A

Alport syndrome

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19
Q

Posterior lenticonus is associated with which syndrome?

A

Lowe syndrome, causes an oil drop cataract

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20
Q

Which 4 gonioscopy lenses are indrect?

A

Goldmann, Zeiss, Posner, Sussman

(Stuff on the slitlamp: Goldmann and Zeiss, and ‘Posner-Schlossmann”

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21
Q

What is the 5 year risk for fellow eye for NAION?

A

15%

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22
Q

What is the SJS / TEN criteria by body surface area involved?

A

SJS: <10%
TEN: >30%

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23
Q

When do corneal EDs appear after onset of skin lesions in SJS/ TEN?

A

2-3 weeks

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24
Q

Inheritance of ocular vs oculocutaneous albinism?

A

Ocular - X-linked recessive
Oculocutaneous - autosomal recessive

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25
What eyedrop is used to confirm Adie's tonic pupil?
Pilocarpine 0.125% (muscarinic hypersensitivity)
26
27
Birdshot chorioretinopathy ERG changes
Reduced b wave (bipolar cells)
28
Screening criteria for ROP?
Gestational age 31 weeks or birthweight <=1.5kg
29
Hering's Law
Equal innervation of yoke muscles (Dissociated vertical deviation violates this)
30
Sherrington's Law
Reciprocal innervation - contraction of one with relaxation of antagonist (Duane's violates this)
31
Rhabdomyosarcoma subtypes - most common, best and worst prognosis?
Most common - embryonal Best prognosis - pleomorphic Worst prognosis - alveolar
32
33
PHACES syndrome stands for?
Posterior fossa abnormalities Haemangioma Arterial anomalies (cerebral) Cardiac / coarctation of aorta Eye abnormalities (microphthalmia / disc hypoplasia / morning glory / PPFV) Sternal cleft
34
PHACES syndrome - associated with what lid lesion?
Large segmental haemangiomas in frontotemporal region If large >5 cm2, consider MRI first to assess for neurovascular anomalies
35
Vigabatrin field screening
Baseline prior to starting treatment, then every six months for 5 years, then annually
36
Measure to test if data is normally distributed
Shapiro-Wilk test
37
4 notifiable conditions for DVLA
Blepharospasm Nyctalopia Diplopia Visual field defects
38
DVLA Group 1 and 2 horizontal field degrees requirement?
Group 1: 120 degrees, at least 50 right and left Group 2: 160 degrees, at least 70 right and left
39
NF1 is associated with what sort of brain tumour?
Gliomas
40
Simulated divergence excess exotropia: is bilateral LR recess better or unilateral recess / resect
Unilateral recess / resect is better for simulated divergence excess and bilateral LR recess for true divergence excess
41
V pattern strabismus: how many prism dioptres difference? Most common cause?
15 PD IO overaction (over elevation in adduction)
42
A pattern strabismus: how many prism dioptres difference? Most common cause?
10PD SO overaction (Over depression in abduction)
43
What is the formula to calculate number needed to treat?
1/ absolute risk reduction
44
Combined hamartoma of RPE and retina is associated with?
NF2
45
4 causes of dragged optic disc
1. Persistent foetal vasculature 2. Familial exudative vitreoretinopathy 3. Combined hamartoma of retina and RPE 4. Toxocara granuloma
46
Bacteria that can penetrate an intact epithelium (5 total)
CHANLS Corynebacterium (diphtheria) Haemophilus aegyptus Neisseria Listeria Shigella
47
Which organism carries the worst prognosis in traumatic endophthalmitis?
B. cereus (NOT Pseudomonas)
48
49
Which anti TB drug causes optic neuropathy
Ethambutol
50
What is the most common benign orbital tumour in adults
Cavernous venous malformation
51
Phytanic acid disorder of metabolism causing retinitis pigementosa and ichthyosis?
Refsum’s disease
52
3 physiological adaptations to deal with diplopia in strabismus
1. Suppression 2. Monofixation syndrome 3. Anomolous retinal correspondence
53
Most common cause of light near dissociation?
Bilateral blindness from loss of afferent input Accommodation miosis does not rely on functional photoreceptors or ganglion cells
54
Causes of light near dissociation?
Argyll Robertson pupil Adie’s syndrome Tectal lesions e.g. pinealoma Dorsal midbrain damage e.g. Parinaud syndrome
55
Palinopsia (abnormal persistence of images) is associated with a lesion in what area of the brain?
Parieto-occipital region
56
Which corneal dystrophy is associated with Meretoja syndrome?
Systemic amyloidosis Lattice type 2 dystrophy
57
Inheritance pattern of LHON
Mitochondrial
58
Average age of diagnosis of BILATERAL Rb
12 months (Unilateral - 24 months)
59
Type 1-4 collagen are found in? (Mnemonic)
Type 1 - there’s a tonne (everywhere, including sclera) Type 2 - in the goo (vitreous) Type 3 - heal me (wound healing) Type 4 - in the floor (basement membranes)
60
Congenital glaucoma gene mutation
CYP1B1 “Sip 1 bottle = baby glaucoma”
61
PAX6 gene is associated with?
PPAX6 Posterior embryotoxon Peter’s anomaly Aniridix AXenfeld anomaly
62
Which part of the lacrimal gland should a biopsy be taken from?
Orbital part (palpebral part of the gland contains the ducts)
63
CMV retinitis classically occurs at a CD4 count of less than?
50 cells / uL
64
Owl eye inclusions?
CMV
65
Ectopia lentis, Marfanoid with light hair and intellectual disability - what direction of ectopia?
Inferonasal Homocystinuria
66
Most common location of limbal dermoids?
Inferonasal (Remember closest to earlobe which is also involved in Goldenhar syndrome; preauricular skin tags)
67
When to use Knapp procedure?
Elevator palsy without excyclotorsion