MIscellaneous

Question 1

Marginal Weather

Answer 1

Marginal weather exists when ceiling is within 100 feet and/or visibility is within 1/2 mile of destination published approach minimums or derived alternate weather minimums as appropriate.

Question 2

Method 1

Answer 2

• One or more navigation aids, each providing a straight-in instrument approach
• Add 400 and 1 to any approach minimum

Question 3

Method 2

Answer 3

• Two or more navigation aids, each providing straight-in approaches to different, suitable runways
• Find the two lowest approaches first
• Add 200 to the higher ceiling and 1/2 to the higher visibility of the two approach minimums

Question 4

Thruflight Setup Check

Answer 4

• When on a subsequent flight, all of the following apply:
• Crew keeps the same aircraft
• Flight crewmembers remain the same, provided one flight crewmember remains on board
• Aircraft remains energized
• No maintenance action has been taken

Question 5

Engine Start Abort Criteria

Answer 5

• No light-off within 10 seconds after the first fuel flow indications (on ground only)
• Fuel flow drops to zero PPH immediately after lightoff
• ITT rises rapidly toward start limit (hot start)
• ITT approaches start limit (hot start)
• N2 remains steady or decreases for more than 5 seconds (hung start)
• Any usual noise or vibration occurs
• Engine instruments indicate abnormal conditions
• Visible burning coming on the exhaust pipe
• Oil pressure does not reach at least 34 psi after the engine reaches stabilized idle

Question 6

Limitations for ALT/TO

Answer 6

• Anti-skid must be operative
• ALT/TO may be used on wet runways, provided wet runway performance data is used
• Prohibited on slippery (wet ice) runways
• Prohibited if warnings of windshear or downdrafts are reported
• Prohibited when no ALT/TO performance data is provided for a runway with a Special Departure Procedure

Question 7

Minimum Battery Temp & Voltage for APU Start

Answer 7

-20C & 23.5 Volts

Between 19 - 23.5 volts, APU must be started off ground cart

Question 8

SG’s

Answer 8

Two IC-600 Symbol Generators (SGs).
The SGs interface work with many of the aircraft systems; they receive data from multiple inputs and send the appropriate information to the 5 CRT screens in the cockpit.

Question 9

DAU’s

Answer 9

Data Acquisition Unit
DAU 1 is dedicated to collect data from the forward airplane systems and #1 engine.
DAU 2 is dedicated to collect data from the aft airplane systems and #2 engine.

Question 10

RMU

Answer 10

Radio Management Units

Question 11

EICAS

Answer 11

Engine Indication and Crew Alert System

Question 12

AWU

Answer 12

Aural Warning Unit

Question 13

Unsatisfactory Takeoff Warning Indication

Answer 13

• Flaps are not in a takeoff configuration (9, 18, 22)
• Parking brake is set
• Pitch trim is out of the green range
• Any spoiler panel is deployed

Question 14

EGPWS

Answer 14

Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System

Question 15

SPS

Answer 15

Stall Protection System

Question 16

DC Power System

Answer 16

• Four independent engine-driven generators
• One APU starter-generator
• Two Ni-Cad batteries
• One lead-acid backup battery
• External power receptacle

Question 17

AC Power System

Answer 17

The main AC power source comes from a single-phase AC inverter, which converts 28 volt DC power into 115 AC.

Question 18

EDL

Answer 18

Electrical Distribution Logic

Question 19

When do the engine-driven generators come online?

Answer 19

56.4% N2

Question 20

What happens when a T-Handle is pulled?

Answer 20

• The engine-driven hydraulic shut-off valve
• The fuel shutoff valve (located in the belly of the aircraft)
• Engine lip anti-ice valve
• Engine bleed valve

Question 21

What systems do the inverters provide power to?

Answer 21

TCAS, GPWS and Windshear Computer

Question 22

How many fire bottles on the aircraft?

Answer 22

o Six fire bottles exist. There are:

• Two for the engines
• One for the APU
• Two for the baggage compartment
• One for the lavatory waste compartment

Question 23

Fire Detection Test

Answer 23

o Both Master Warning and Caution are illuminated
o Both fire handles are illuminated
o BAGG EXT button is illuminated
o EICAS Warnings – ENG 1(2) FIRE, APU FIRE, BAGG SMOKE
o EICAS Cautions – ENG 1(2) FIREDET FAIL, APU FIREDET FAIL
o Aural warning buzzer generates

Question 24

Conditions to active rudder hard over protection

Answer 24

o Rudder deflected above 5 degrees +/- 1 degree
o Force above 130 lbs. on the pedal to counteract rudder deflection
o Both engines running above 56% N2

Question 25

Conditions for Ground Spoiler Deployment

Answer 25

o Airplane on ground o Main landing gear wheel speed greater than 25 knots o Both engine thrust lever angles set to below 30 degrees or both engines N2 below 56%

Question 26

Conditions for Speed Brake Deployment

Answer 26

o Speed brake lever set to OPEN o Thrust lever angle of both engines set to below 50 degrees o Flaps at 0 or 9 degrees

Question 27

FPMU

Answer 27

Fuel Pump and Metering Unit

Question 28

Exemption 3585

Answer 28

Allows relief from conditional statements in the weather forecast (such as TEMPO, BCMG or PROB) that forecast the weather to be below the required weather minimums at the ETA, as long as the MAIN BODY of the forecast is above the required minimums.

Question 29

LAHSO Requirements

Answer 29

o Available landing distance to the hold-short point of 6,000 feet o Dry runway o Flaps 45 must be used o No tailwind component o No windshear reports on ATIS or pilot-reported in the previous 20 minutes o Vertical guidance – Electronic (ILS) or visual (VASI or PAPI only) o Compliance with the rejected landing procedure (RLP) if required. This information will be disseminated by FDC NOTAMS o Night LAHSO will be conducted only where approved FAA Lighting Configuration for LAHSO is installed and operational

Question 30

When is an Amended Release Required?

Answer 30

o Weather at the alternate listed on the release becomes forecasted to go below alternate minimums at the time of arrival o Diversion to any other airport not listed on the release (does not apply when under the PIC’s emergency authority) o New MEL/Deferred Maintenance Items o Aborted takeoff o Return to gate o Any time the actual cruise altitude has been changed to an altitude where performance numbers do not exist on the performance section

Question 31

Amended Release Information

Answer 31

o A clear statement of the amendment to the release o The time the amendment was issued o The initials of the dispatcher o Additional information should be recorded if available and conditions permit o For FAR Part 121 Domestic, the flight crew enters the release amendment on their copy with the dispatcher’s name. The dispatcher will generate a hard copy of the amended release. The PIC will carry the amended copy of the release to the destination

Question 32

CDL

Answer 32

Configuration Deviation List

Question 33

Minimum Hydraulic Fluid

Answer 33

1 Liter

Question 34

Electrically Heated Areas on Aircraft

Answer 34

o Windshields o Pitot tubes, pitot-static tube, AOA sensors, TAT probes and pressurization static ports o Lavatory water drain and water service nipples

Question 35

Nosewheel Turning Radius

Answer 35

5 degrees - rudder pedals | 76 degrees - tiller and rudder pedals

Question 36

LGEU

Answer 36

Landing Gear Electronic Unit

Question 37

Gear Warning Criteria

Answer 37

o RA value below 1200, low thrust lever angle o RA value below 1200, flaps selector between 22 and 45 and low thrust lever angle o Flaps lever selected at 45

Question 38

TBCH

Answer 38

Tuning Backup Control Head

Question 39

TCS

Answer 39

touch control steering

Question 40

Cockpit Emergency Equipment

Answer 40

``` o 3 oxygen masks and smoke goggles o 1 portable breathing equipment mask o 1 fire extinguisher o 1 crash axe o 2 flashlights o 3 life vests o 2 escape ropes ```

Question 41

Bleed Air uses

Answer 41

Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization and anti-ice.

Question 42

ECU's

Answer 42

Environmental Control Units

Question 43

PACK's

Answer 43

Pneumatic Air Conditioning Kits

Question 44

Accessory Gearbox Components

Answer 44

o Engine-driven Fuel, Hydraulic and Oil pumps o 2 Engine-driven generators o Permanent magnet alternators o Air Turbine Starter

Question 45

FCOC

Answer 45

Fuel-Cooled Oil-Cooler

Question 46

Minimum Oil Quantity

Answer 46

8 Quarts

Question 47

What data is entered for T/O by the Pilot

Answer 47

o Thrust mode (driven by the TLR) o ATIS temperature o Anti-ice on/off

Question 48

Passenger Weights

Answer 48

o The average Summer weight is 190 lbs., and is in effect from May 1st to Oct. 31st) o The average Winter weight is 195 lbs., and is in effect from Nov.1st to Apr. 30th)

Question 49

Stabilized Approach Criteria

Answer 49

1. A stabilized approach is characterized by a constant airspeed, constant angle, constant rate of descent approach profile with no more than normal bracketing corrections. 2. Flight Crewmembers will fly ALL approaches in accordance with the following stabilized approach criteria unless non-normal conditions require deviation and are briefed (for example flap non-normal, wake turbulence consideration). 3. From 1000' above the TDZE, the aircraft shall be: • With the final landing configuration selected • On glide path with a descent rate of 1000 FPM or less • On correct lateral track • Above idle thrust with airspeed trending towards calculated approach speed per SOP 4. A minimum height for Vap not less than 1000 feet above TDZE for approaches in IMC and not less than 500 feet above TDZE for approaches in Vmc. 5. From 500' above the TDZE, the aircraft shall be: • Above idle thrust at calculated approach speed per SOP (-0 knots to +10 knots) 6. If the above conditions are not met a missed approach or go-around must be executed. • If "Missed Approach" is called, this decision is not to be overruled, discussed or questioned and the PF will immediately initiate a go-around.

Question 50

V1 Definition

Answer 50

Decision Speed

Question 51

V2 Definition

Answer 51

It is the speed an aircraft with one engine inoperative must be able to attain in order to leave the runway and get 35 feet off the ground at the end of the runway, maintaining a 200 ft/min climb thereafter.