Miscellaneous Samples Flashcards

Given in class by the Inns or in the practice exam (209 cards)

1
Q

If a plaintiff issues proceedings for a liquidated debt and asserts there’s no defence available, what is the most appropriate procedural route to pursue and what test will the court apply?

A

Summary procedure. Test is from (Harrisrange v. Duncan): has the defendant
satisfied the court that he has a fair or reasonable probability of having a real
or bona fide defence

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2
Q

A defendant applies for summary judgment but the plaintiff produces some evidence suggesting a possible defence. What is the likely outcome?

A

Leave to defend will be granted as the threshold is a credible or arguable defence.

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3
Q

A defendant argues that a plaintiff company cannot pay costs if it loses and seeks security for costs. What must the defendant establish?

A

A prima facie defence and that the plaintiff company is unable to pay costs.

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4
Q

If a plaintiff company argues that its financial difficulty was caused by the defendant’s wrongdoing. What does it need to establish and what standard of proof applies?

A

This may constitute special circumstances preventing the order (Framus - show prima facie defence and BoP evidence of impecuniosity).

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5
Q

A plaintiff resident in another EU Member State brings proceedings in Ireland. Can the defendant obtain security for costs based solely on residence?

A

No; must show cogent evidence of difficulty enforcing judgment (Maher).

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6
Q

A defendant delays seeking security for costs until late in proceedings after the plaintiff has incurred substantial expense. What is the likely effect?

A

The court may refuse security due to delay constituting special circumstances.

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7
Q

A party seeks an interlocutory injunction to restrain ongoing harm. What full test will the court apply?

A

Campus Oil test: serious question, adequacy of damages, undertaking in damages, balance of convenience.

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8
Q

A plaintiff cannot be adequately compensated by damages, and neither can the defendant under the undertaking. What determines the outcome?

A

The balance of convenience, aiming to preserve the status quo.

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9
Q

A party seeks a mandatory injunction requiring a defendant to take action. What standard applies?

A

A strong case to be tried (higher than ordinary injunction threshold).

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10
Q

A plaintiff applies ex parte for a Mareva injunction. What must they establish?

A

Full and frank disclosure, a substantive claim, and a real risk of dissipation of assets to defeat judgment.

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11
Q

A defendant argues that assets are being used in the ordinary course of business. Is this sufficient for a Mareva injunction?

A

No; must show risk of dissipation to defeat judgment.

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12
Q

A plaintiff seeks an Anton Piller order. What must be shown?

A

Extremely strong case, very serious damage, and real risk of destruction of evidence.

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13
Q

A defendant contests a summary judgment application. What happens jurisdictionally?

A

The Master loses jurisdiction and the case goes to the High Court judge.

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14
Q

A plaintiff rejects a PIAB assessment and later recovers less at trial. What is the likely consequence?

A

Adverse costs consequences.

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15
Q

A defendant seeks both summary judgment and, alternatively, security for costs. How should the court approach this?

A

First consider summary judgment (if no defence); if defence exists, then consider security for costs.

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16
Q

A defendant argues both that there is no defence and that the plaintiff cannot pay costs. What strategic inconsistency arises?

A

Summary judgment asserts no defence; security for costs assumes proceedings will continue—arguments may undermine each other.

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17
Q

A plaintiff seeks an injunction but refuses to give a cross-undertaking in damages. What is the likely outcome?

A

Caldwell Case: (1) Court cannot compel an undertaking but it can refuse to grant an injunction w/o one. (2) The undertaking, enables the other party to apply for compensation if the interlocutory
injunction should not have been granted. (3) The undertaking is not given to the
enjoined but to the court. (4) Where it is determined that the injunction should
not have been granted the undertaking is likely to be enforced, though the court
retains a discretion not to do so.

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18
Q

A defendant shows a weak but arguable defence in a summary judgment application. What is the likely result?

A

Leave to defend will be granted.

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19
Q

A party seeks security for costs - in what sum will it be and what must the court consider?

A

In general,1/3 the costs which would probably be incurred by
Defendant (see Thalle v. Soares [1957] IR 182). Can be increased in the interests of justice.

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20
Q

A plaintiff argues that refusing an injunction would cause irreparable harm, while granting it would only cause financial loss to the defendant. What is the likely result?

A

Injunction likely granted as damages favour the defendant.

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21
Q

A company plaintiff with no assets brings a claim raising an issue of public importance. How does this affect security for costs?

A

May constitute special circumstances justifying refusal.

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22
Q

A party seeks a Mareva injunction but fails to disclose a key adverse fact. What is the likely consequence?

A

The injunction may be discharged for lack of full and frank disclosure.

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23
Q

A defendant argues that the plaintiff’s claim is bound to fail when opposing an amendment. Is this relevant in summary judgment?

A

Yes for summary judgment, but not for amendment (different tests).

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24
Q

A party applies for an interlocutory injunction that would effectively determine the entire dispute. How does this affect the test?

A

Balance of convenience may not apply as the hearing is effectively final.

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25
A plaintiff seeks summary judgment but the amount claimed is not clearly ascertainable. What is the issue?
It may not qualify as a liquidated sum and summary procedure may be inappropriate.
26
A defendant fails to show a prima facie defence in a security for costs application. What is the result?
Security for costs will be refused.
27
A plaintiff seeks an interlocutory injunction in a defamation case. What is the court’s approach?
Reluctant to grant due to freedom of expression concerns.
28
A defendant applies for security for costs but the plaintiff has substantial assets within the jurisdiction. What is the likely result?
Security likely refused as enforcement risk is low.
29
A plaintiff seeks both an injunction and damages. How does this affect the Campus Oil test?
Court will assess adequacy of damages before granting injunction.
30
A defendant argues that granting an injunction would disrupt business operations significantly. What stage of the test is this relevant to?
Balance of convenience.
31
What is restitutio in integrum?
The principle that damages should restore the plaintiff to the position they would have been in but for the wrong.
32
What is the doctrine of remoteness?
A rule limiting liability by cutting off the chain of causation beyond a certain point.
33
What is the test for remoteness?
Reasonable foreseeability of the type of damage.
34
In which torts is reasonable foreseeability applied?
Negligence and nuisance.
35
When is foreseeability NOT required in the same way?
Trespass and Rylands v Fletcher— defendant liable for direct consequences once some damage foreseeable.
36
What are nominal damages?
Awarded where a right is infringed but no loss is suffered.
37
What are contemptuous damages?
A minimal award expressing disapproval of the plaintiff’s claim.
38
What are special damages?
Quantifiable financial losses (e.g. medical bills, lost earnings) that must be specifically pleaded.
39
What are general damages?
Non-quantifiable losses (e.g. pain and suffering, future loss).
40
What are exemplary (punitive) damages?
Awarded to punish particularly egregious conduct.
41
What are aggravated damages?
Compensatory damages increased due to the manner or motive of the wrongdoing.
42
What is the effect of fraudulent or exaggerated claims?
Under s26 Civil Liability and Courts Act 2004, the claim must be dismissed unless injustice would result.
43
What is the plaintiff’s duty regarding loss?
A duty to mitigate loss.
44
What is the consequence of failure to mitigate?
Treated as contributory negligence (Civil Liability Act 1961).
45
What factor can limit an award for special damages/ required for recoverable expenses?
They must be reasonable and necessary.
46
What is the general cap guidance for non-pecuniary damages?
Personal Injuries Guidelines: ~€550,000 for catastrophic injuries.
47
Who are concurrent wrongdoers?
Two or more parties liable for the same damage (Civil Liability Act 1961).
48
What is the liability or concurrent wrongdoers?
Joint and several liability for the full damage.
49
How is contribution between them determined?
By comparative blameworthiness.
50
What must a defendant do to seek contribution from another?
Join them in the same proceedings or issue a third-party notice.
51
What can a plaintiff recover for loss of earnings?
Past and future pecuniary loss caused by injury.
52
What is the multiplicand?
The annual/weekly net loss of earnings figure.
53
How is the multiplicand calculated?
Net income + benefits ± adjustments for partial capacity.
54
What factors may increase the multiplicand?
Promotion prospects, career progression, increased earnings.
55
What factors reduce the multiplicand?
Sick pay and adverse contingencies.
56
What happens if life expectancy is reduced?
Lost earnings for those years are recoverable, less living expenses.
57
What benefits are deductible from damages?
Specified social welfare payments (e.g. illness benefit, disability allowance).
58
Who must be paid first where benefits are recoverable?
The Minister for Social Protection.
59
What is the Recovery of Certain Benefits Scheme?
Compensator must obtain statement and repay benefits before compensating plaintiff.
60
When are periodic payment orders used?
In catastrophic injury cases (Civil Liability Act 1961).
61
What do they provide?
Structured payments instead of lump sum damages.
62
A plaintiff suffers an unusual type of loss not foreseeable. Can they recover?
No — fails remoteness test.
63
A plaintiff proves trespass but no loss. What damages?
Nominal damages.
64
A plaintiff exaggerates injuries in court. What is the consequence?
Claim may be dismissed under s26 (unless injustice).
65
Plaintiff fails to take reasonable steps to reduce loss. Effect?
Reduction for contributory negligence.
66
Two defendants cause same injury. Can plaintiff recover fully from one?
Yes — joint and several liability.
67
Defendant wants contribution from another wrongdoer. What must they do?
Join them or issue third-party notice.
68
Plaintiff receives social welfare benefits before damages award. What happens?
Compensator must reimburse the Minister first.
69
What is the statutory basis for fatal injury actions?
s48 Civil Liability Act 1961.
70
Who brings the action?
The personal representative (or dependants if none within 6 months).
71
For whose benefit is the action brought?
All dependants.
72
What is the limitation period?
2 years from date of death or date of knowledge.
73
What is a “dependant”?
A family member suffering financial loss or mental distress (broad definition).
74
What damages are recoverable?
Funeral expenses, mental distress (solatium), and pecuniary loss.
75
What is solatium?
Damages for mental distress (capped at €35,000 total).
76
Are benefits on death deducted?
No (e.g. insurance, pensions).
77
What is expectation interest?
To put the plaintiff in the position as if the contract had been performed.
78
What is reliance interest?
To reimburse expenditure incurred in reliance on the contract.
79
When is reliance interest unavailable?
Where the contract would have been loss-making.
80
What is restitution interest?
Disgorgement of defendant’s gains from breach.
81
Can a plaintiff recover under multiple heads?
Yes, but no double recovery.
82
What is the rule for remoteness?
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83
What are the two limbs of remoteness?
(1) Loss arising naturally; (2) Loss within parties’ contemplation.
84
Are damages for distress generally recoverable?
No — only in exceptional cases (e.g. holidays).
85
Are damages for reputation recoverable?
Only if reputation is part of the contract.
86
Are exemplary damages available in contract?
Possibly (rare).
87
What is a liquidated damages clause?
A genuine pre-estimate of loss (enforceable).
88
What is a penalty clause?
A clause imposing excessive punishment (unenforceable).
89
Who must prove a clause is a penalty?
The party alleging it.
90
What is the measure of damages for breach of covenant to repair?
Diminution in value of the reversion.
91
What is the measure for sale of land breach?
Expectation damages (usually assessed at breach).
92
When may damages be assessed at trial date?
Where specific performance is available.
93
What does s22 Courts Act 1981 provide?
Discretion to award interest on damages.
94
Are damages subject to CGT?
No.
95
Are damages subject to CAT?
No.
96
Is income from investing damages taxable?
Yes (unless exempt).
97
What is a prohibitory injunction?
Restrains a wrongful act.
98
What is a mandatory injunction?
Compels a positive act.
99
What is an interlocutory injunction?
Maintains status quo pending trial.
100
What is a perpetual injunction?
Granted at final hearing.
101
What is a Mareva injunction?
Freezes assets.
102
What is an Anton Piller order?
Search and seizure of evidence.
103
What is a quia timet injunction?
Prevents threatened harm.
104
What remedies does a buyer have?
Reject goods, damages, or specific performance.
105
When can a buyer reject goods?
On breach of condition (before acceptance).
106
What remedies does a seller have?
Action for price or damages.
107
What is the unpaid seller’s protection?
Rights against the goods (security for price).
108
To what does the Consumer Rights Act 2022 apply?
Contracts between traders and consumers (including digital content).
109
What is a consumer?
An individual acting outside their trade/business.
110
What is a trader?
A person acting for business purposes.
111
What remedies exist for non-conforming goods?
Repair/replacement, price reduction, termination.
112
Does the Act exclude other remedies?
No — but no double recovery.
113
What is an implied term for services?
Services must be reasonably fit for purpose.
114
What are blacklisted terms?
Always unfair (e.g. excluding liability for death/PI).
115
What are greylist terms?
Presumed unfair but rebuttable.
116
A dependant sues 3 years after death. Is the claim valid?
No — outside 2-year limitation period.
117
A contract breach causes unusual loss not communicated. Recoverable?
No — too remote under Hadley v Baxendale.
118
Clause imposes excessive penalty for breach. Enforceable?
No — penalty clause.
119
Consumer receives defective goods. Key remedies?
Repair/replacement, price reduction, or termination.
120
Defendant tries to exclude liability for personal injury in consumer contract. Valid?
No — blacklisted term.
121
What does Article 34 provide?
Courts established by law, with courts of first instance and a final court of appeal.
122
What statute established the courts?
Courts (Establishment and Constitution) Act 1961.
123
What created the Court of Appeal?
Thirty-third Amendment + Court of Appeal Act 2014.
124
How is the Supreme Court composed?
Chief Justice + up to 9 ordinary judges.
125
What are SC's main roles?
Final court of appeal + limited original jurisdiction.
126
What original jurisdiction does SC have?
Article 26 references and presidential incapacity.
127
When does SC sit as 5 judges?
Appeals and constitutional cases.
128
When does SC sit as 7 judges?
Exceptionally important constitutional cases.
129
When can cases bypass the Court of Appeal?
Exceptional circumstances + public importance/interests of justice.
130
What is the composition of the Court of Appeal?
President + up to 18 judges.
131
What jurisdiction does CoA have?
Civil and criminal appeals from the High Court.
132
Is there an automatic appeal to the Supreme Court from HC?
No — only with leave in exceptional cases.
133
Who are ex officio members of HC?
Chief Justice and President of the High Court.
134
What is the jurisdiction of the High Court?
Full original jurisdiction in law and fact.
135
How is HC usually constituted?
Single judge (sometimes jury or divisional court of 3).
136
Where does HC sit?
Primarily Dublin, with circuit sittings.
137
What is the monetary jurisdiction of the Circuit Court?
€75,000 (€60,000 for PI; €3m for land).
138
What is the monetary jurisdiction of the District Court?
€15,000.
139
Does the District Court have equitable jurisdiction?
No.
140
What torts are excluded from the District Court?
Defamation, malicious prosecution, false imprisonment.
141
What are the two types of appeal?
De novo or on a point of law.
142
How are District Court decisions appealed?
De novo to Circuit Court OR case stated to High Court.
143
Can a Circuit Court appeal be further appealed?
Only via judicial review.
144
How are Circuit Court cases appealed?
De novo to High Court OR case stated to Court of Appeal.
145
Where do High Court appeals go?
Generally to Court of Appeal; exceptionally to Supreme Court.
146
What is remittal?
Transfer from a higher court to a lower court.
147
What is transfer?
Transfer from a lower court to a higher court.
148
What is the test for transfer CC → HC?
Whether the claim could justify High Court damages.
149
What is the risk of issuing in too high a court?
Costs penalties.
150
What does the Master of the High Court do?
Handles procedural/interlocutory matters.
151
What can the Master NOT do?
Criminal matters, injunctions, liberty issues, judicial review.
152
What is the appeal from the Master?
To a High Court judge within 6 days.
153
What is the role of the County Registrar?
Similar procedural role in the Circuit Court.
154
How is domicile determined?
By national law of the court seised.
155
How is company domicile determined?
Registered office, central administration, or principal place of business.
156
What are key exceptions to domicile rule?
Contract: place of performance; Tort: place of harm.
157
What is a consumer contract?
A contract entered outside trade with a trader directing activities to that state.
158
What is service?
Bringing proceedings to the defendant’s attention.
159
Can a solicitor accept service?
Yes, with authority.
160
How is a company served?
Registered office (Companies Act 2014).
161
What is substituted service?
Court-approved alternative where normal service fails.
162
How is service proven?
Affidavit of service.
163
When does issuing proceedings stop time?
On issue of summons.
164
What is the effect of fraud?
Time does not run until discovery.
165
Does laches apply in equity?
Yes.
166
What is the effect of a counterclaim?
Not barred if connected to the original claim.
167
How do minors sue?
By next friend.
168
How do minors defend?
Through a guardian ad litem.
169
Are representative actions allowed?
Yes (but limited in tort).
170
Are class actions allowed in Ireland?
No (generally).
171
What does “costs follow the event” mean?
Successful party gets costs.
172
What are “costs reserved”?
Decided later (usually at trial).
173
What are “costs in the cause”?
Award depends on final outcome.
174
What are “costs thrown away”?
Costs wasted due to adjournment.
175
What are solicitor-client costs?
More extensive costs (rare, punitive).
176
What is the test for civil legal aid?
Means test (income + capital thresholds).
177
Does legal aid cover all costs?
No — contribution required.
178
Plaintiff issues in High Court but damages fall within Circuit Court. Risk?
Costs penalty.
179
Defendant not properly served. Consequence?
Proceedings may be invalid.
180
Appeal from District Court — route?
De novo to Circuit Court.
181
Plaintiff unsure which defendant is liable. What should they do?
Send O’Byrne letters.
182
Fraud concealed cause of action. Effect?
Limitation period postponed.
183
What outcomes can be made to deal with applications for judgment in default of appearance?
JDA, a time extension, a costs order.
184
What outcomes can be made to deal with applications for judgment in default of defence?
O27 R9 RSC: JDD with damages to be satisfied at a later date if in the interests of justice OR time extension.
185
[PROCEDURE] What is required before applying to dismiss for want of prosecution (no Statement of Claim)?
O27 R2 RSC: 28-day warning letter consenting to late delivery.
186
[PROCEDURE] What is the timeline after the 28-day letter?
Motion must be served within 10 days after expiry.
187
[PROCEDURE] When will a DWOP motion be struck out?
If Plaintiff: 1. Delivers SOC within 21 days of motion, AND 2. Lodges it properly before return date → Motion struck out + €750 costs to Defendant.
188
[PROCEDURE] What outcomes can arise on DWOP application?
Dismissal OR time extension.
189
[PROCEDURE] Can default judgment or DWOP be set aside?
Yes — where special circumstances justify it.
190
[PROCEDURE] How is it brought?
Motion on notice.
191
[PROCEDURE] Who gets costs?
Usually the party who obtained the original order.
192
[PROCEDURE] What is required for JDA (Circuit Court, liquidated sum)?
O26 R2 CCR Certificate from County Registrar confirming no appearance.
193
[PROCEDURE] What happens on default of defence in the Circuit Court?
Affidavit (liquidated) OR 14-day warning (unliquidated) → Registrar may grant judgment or extend time.
194
[PROCEDURE] What outcomes are available in District Court default motions?
Court may: - Grant judgment - Allow defence - Adjourn / seek evidence - Refuse - Make any appropriate order
195
What is the purpose of further and better particulars?
To clarify pleadings and define issues.
196
What can particulars include?
Material facts only — NOT evidence or documents.
197
Key rule on particulars?
They must relate to pleadings and avoid surprise at trial.
198
What is the HC procedure for particulars?
1. Letter requesting particulars 2. If refused → motion to compel
199
When will the court refuse early particulars?
Before defence/reply — unless needed to plead.
200
When can a Defendant seek particulars in the Circuit Court?
After service of Civil Bill and before defence.
201
When can a Plaintiff seek particulars?
After defence/counterclaim.
202
What happens to timelines?
Time to plead is extended after replies received.
203
What is the DC timeline for particulars?
- Request within 28 days - Reply within 21 days
204
What if no compliance?
Court may: - Order compliance - Strike out claim or defence
205
What is the PI rule for particulars?
Requests for information and particulars should be combined.
206
Plaintiff delays SOC. What must Defendant do?
28-day letter → motion within 10 days.
207
Plaintiff fixes default late — consequence?
Motion struck out + €750 costs.
208
Defendant surprised at trial by new issue. Remedy?
Seek further and better particulars.
209
Particulars request seeks evidence. Valid?
No — only material facts allowed.