Integrated Medical Sciences > Mock 1 > Flashcards

Mock 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Monomeric G proteins:

  1. Moves 2 sodium ions into a cell and 2 potassium ions out of a cell
  2. Moves 3 sodium ions out of a cell and 2 potassium ions into a cell
  3. Moves 3 sodium ions out a cell and 3 potassium ions into a cell
  4. Moves 2 sodium ions into a cell and 3 potassium ions out of a cell
A
  1. Moves 3 sodium ions out of a cell and 2 potassium ions into a cell
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2
Q

Which one of the following is secreted by acinar cells?

  1. Trypsin
  2. Chymotrypsin
  3. Glucagon
  4. Trypsinogen
A
  1. Trypsinogen
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3
Q

Which of these factors do not affect the distribution of drug?

  1. Binding to plasma proteins
  2. Surface Area of membrane
  3. Molecular Size
  4. Ability to cross the membrane
A
  1. Surface Area of membrane
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4
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding dysplasia?

  1. Cell architecture remains normal
  2. Remains benign – doesn’t lead to malignancy
  3. Cells exhibit low nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio
  4. Increase number of cell mitoses
A
  1. Increase number of cell mitoses
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5
Q

Which gene is commonly mutated in cases of inherited breast cancer?

  1. E2F
  2. ABL1
  3. BRCA1
  4. BCL2
A
  1. BRCA1
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6
Q

Which of the following is not a bacteria that results in hospital-acquired pneumonia?

  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  3. Candida albicans
  4. Stapthloccus aures
A
  1. Candida albicans
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7
Q

An oncogene is associated with:

  1. Tumour growth during tumourigenesis
  2. Preventing tumour cell apoptosis
  3. Averting tumour cell growth
  4. Triggering cell transformation
A
  1. Preventing tumour cell apoptosis
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8
Q

Which of the following imaging methods relies on the use of X-rays and injected contrast medium in order to generate clinically useful images of blood vessels?

  1. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
  2. Computed tomography (CT scan)
  3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
  4. Ultrasound scan (USS)
A
  1. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA)
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9
Q

Which of the following is an intra-individual factor that may affect the overall response of a patient to a drug?

  1. Liver disease
  2. Mechanism of action of the drug
  3. Genetic polymorphism
  4. Ethnicity
A
  1. Liver disease
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10
Q

What structure passes directly above (superior) the ureter?

  1. Ovarian artery
  2. Uterosacral ligament
  3. Uterine artery
  4. Ovarian ligament
A
  1. Uterine artery
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11
Q

Which of the following statements does not hold truth for X linked dominant inheritance?

  1. A minimum of one parent has to be affected
  2. Characteristics of the disease are manifested in the heterozygote of both sexes
  3. Males affected usually present characteristics of the disease to a greater severity compared to females with the same disease
  4. Child of affected mother has a 1 in 4 chance of being affected
A
  1. Child of affected mother has a 1 in 4 chance of being affected
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12
Q

What is gene therapy?

  1. Removing malfunctioning genes from a patient
  2. Cloning a patient’s cells
  3. A form of destroying viruses
  4. Addition of new genes to replace malfunctioning genes
A
  1. Addition of new genes to replace malfunctioning genes
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13
Q

Which structures make up the broad ligament?

  1. Ovarian ligament, Mesosalpinx, Mesovarium
  2. Ampulla, Infundibulum, Uterosacral ligament
  3. Mesosalpinx, Mesovarium, Mesometrium
  4. Myometrium, Mesosalpinx, Ovarian ligament
A
  1. Mesosalpinx, Mesovarium, Mesometrium
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14
Q

What are the three germ layers?

  1. Endoderm, Trophectoderm, Ectoderm
  2. Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Trophectoderm
  3. Ectoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm
  4. Trophectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm
A
  1. Ectoderm, Endoderm, Mesoderm
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15
Q

How is lateral diffusion of a phospholipid molecule best described?

  1. Rotation about its long axis
  2. “flip-flop” from one monolayer to the other
  3. Exchanging places with neighbouring molecules in the same monolayer
  4. Exchanging places with neighbouring molecules in surrounding monolayers
A
  1. Exchanging places with neighbouring molecules in the same monolayer
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16
Q

Which RNA is essential for catalysing peptide bond formation?

  1. tRNA
  2. rRNA
  3. miRNA
  4. snRNA
A
  1. rRNA
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17
Q

What type of infection is methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus?

  1. Gram-negative bacteria
  2. Gram-positive Bacteria
  3. Virus
  4. Fungi
A
  1. Gram-positive Bacteria
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18
Q

Which part of a bacterial cell do Beta Lactams antibiotics act on?

  1. Cell membrane
  2. Cell wall
  3. DNA
  4. Ribosomes
A
  1. Cell wall
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19
Q

What is an example of gram positive bacteria?

  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  2. Vibrio cholera
  3. Escherichia coli
  4. Neisseria gonorrhoea
A
  1. Streptococcus pneumoniae
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20
Q

Obligate aerobes…

  1. Do not require oxygen for energy production
  2. Require oxygen for energy production
  3. Can survive with or without oxygen
  4. Can only tolerate oxygen levels from 2 - 10 %
A
  1. Require oxygen for energy production
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21
Q

Which 2 types of DNA polymerases are involved in replication of mitochondrial DNA?

  1. ε and θ
  2. α and δ
  3. γ and θ
  4. δ and θ
A
  1. γ and θ
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22
Q

By which process is the spatial and temporal pattern of cell activites organised within the embryo?

  1. Morphogensis
  2. Induction
  3. Rotational cleavage
  4. Pattern formation
A
  1. Pattern formation
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23
Q

Which of the following results from incomplete fusion of the neural tube during neurulation?

  1. Spina Bifida
  2. Cerebral Palsy
  3. Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)
  4. Marfan Syndrome
A
  1. Spina Bifida
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24
Q

What happens in Phase II Drug Metabolism?

  1. Larger products are added
  2. Functionalisation reaction
  3. Conjugate is formed
  4. Redox and Hydrolysis reactions
A
  1. Conjugate is formed
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25
What type of epithelial cell lines the trachea following damage in response to cigarette smoke in metaplasia? 1. Simple columnar cells 2. Simple squamous cells 3. Transitional epithelial cells 4. Stratified squamous cells
4. Stratified squamous cells
26
What is the correct sequence of testicular descent? 1. The body grows, gubernaculum shrinks, diaphragmatic ligament degenerates, descent through the inguinal canal 2. The body grows, gubernaculum shrinks, descent through the inguinal canal, diaphragmatic ligament degenerates 3. The descent through the inguinal canal, gubernaculum shrinks, diaphragmatic ligament degenerates, the body grows 4. Gubernaculum shrinks, descent through the inguinal canal, the body grows, diaphragmatic ligament degenerates
1. The body grows, gubernaculum shrinks, diaphragmatic ligament degenerates, descent through the inguinal canal
27
Which is caused by a failure of full closure of the urethral folds? 1. Klinefelter’s syndrome 2. Testicular cancer 3. Cryptorchidism 4. Hypospadias
4. Hypospadias
28
Hormones secreted by the hypothalamus would be classified as: 1. Paracrine 2. Autocrine 3. Intracrine 4. Endocrine
1. Paracrine
29
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) act on which type of cells? 1. Leydig cells 2. Germ cells 3. Nerve cells 4. Sertoli cells
4. Sertoli cells
30
In skeletal muscle which option describes the origin of the calcium required for contraction? 1. Ca2+ ATPase and sarcoplasmic reticulum 2. Sarcoplasmic reticulum 3. Extracellular fluid and sarcoplasmic reticulum 4. Intracellular fluid, extracellular fluid and sarcoplasmic reticulum
2. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
31
What is not in a pancreatic acinar cell? 1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum 2. Zymogen 3. Golgi apparatus 4. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
1. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
32
What percentage of the human genome contains genes? 1. 14 % 2. 10 % 3. 2 % 4. 4 %
3. 2%
33
What factor(s) regulate entry into S phase? 1. Cdk 2 2. Cdk 2, Cdk6 and Cdk 4 3. Cdk 2 and Cdk 4 4. Cdk 6
2. Cdk2, Cdk6 and Cdk4
34
Place the histological changes in the order that they occur in cancer progression 1. Benign, atypical, metastatic, malignant 2. Benign, metastatic, atypical, malignant 3. Atypical, malignant, benign, metastatic 4. Atypical, benign, malignant, metastatic
4. Atypical, benign, malignant, metastatic
35
What is the role of acetylcholine in sodium release? 1. Bind to sarcoplasmic reticulum causing sodium release 2. Bind to T tubules, causing sodium release 3. Bind to receptors on the sarcolemma causing sodium release 4. Stimulate postsynaptic receptors to release intracellular sodium
3. Bind to receptors on the sarcolemma causing sodium release
36
Which of these structures is not mesodermal in origin? 1. Nervous System 2. Blood cells 3. Bones 4. Kidneys
1. Nervous System
37
The mechanism that establishes the medullary osmostic gradient depends most on the permeability properties of the: 1. Glomerular filtration membrane 2. Collecting duct 3. Loop of Henle 4. Distal convoluted tubule
3. Loop of Henle
38
Which of the following statements concerning cholera is incorrect 1. Cholera increases cAMP production 2. Cholera increases active transport within intestinal cells 3. Cholera increases ADP production in the intestinal cells 4. Cholera increases Na+ concentrations in the gut
3. Cholera increases ADP production in the intestinal cells
39
During DNA replication, what creates Okazaki fragments between DNA primer in the lagging strand? 1. RNA primase 2. DNA polymerase α 3. DNA ligase 4. DNA polymerase δ
1. RNA primase
40
What is the difference between spongy bone and compact bone? 1. They have different bone marrow 2. They have a different arrangement of bone cells 3. They have different sizes of bone cells 4. They are made of different material
1. They have a different arrangement of bone cells
41
A paracrine factor: 1. Acts on neighbouring cells 2. Is retained within the cell itself 3. Is carried in the blood 4. Is secreted by the cells it acts on
1. Acts on neighbouring cells
42
What does the release of cholecystokinin by the duodenum trigger? 1. Contraction of the sphincter of Oddi and dilation of the ampulla of Vater 2. Dilation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter and contraction of the gallbladder 3. Dilation of the cystic duct and contraction of bile duct 4. Contraction of the lumen of the digestive tract and dilation of bile duct
2. dilation of the hepatopancreatic sphincter and contraction of the gallbladder
43
What happens in Phase II drug metabolism? 1. Larger products are added 2. Functionalisation reaction 3. Redox and hydrolysis reactions 4. Conjugate is formed
4. Conjugate is formed
44
Which one of these is the correct blood flow pathway leading oxygenated blood into the nephron? 1. Renal artery- Interlobar arteries- Cortical radiate arteries- Segmental arteries- Arcuate arteries- Afferent arterioles- Nephron 2. Renal artery- Arcuate arteries- Cortical radiate arteries- Segmental arteries- Interlobar arteries- Afferent arterioles- Nephron 3. Renal artery- Cortical radiate arteries- Interlobar arteries- Segmental arteries- Arcuate arteries- Afferent arterioles- Nephron 4. Renal artery- Segmental arteries- Interlobar arteries- Arcuate arteries- Cortical radiate arteries- Afferent arterioles- Nephron
4. Renal artery- Segmental arteries- Interlobar arteries- Arcuate arteries- Cortical radiate arteries- Afferent arterioles- Nephron
45
Which of the following is associated with the renal corpuscle? 1. A vasa recta 2. A podocyte 3. A fenestrated capillary 4. An efferent arteriole
1. A vasa recta
46
Where is Clostridium difficile usually found in the human body? 1. Large intestine 2. Lung 3. Stomach 4. Brain
1. Large intestine
47
Which statement is correct regarding inhibin? 1. Inhibin A reaches its peak in the late follicular phase 2. Inhibits LH production 3. Inhibits FSH production 4. In females secreted from the Sertoli cells
3. Inhibits FSH production
48
What type of cells do Islets of Langerhans consists of the most? 1. Somatostatin secreted by δ cells 2. Glucagon-secreting α-cells 3. Insulin- secreting β-cells 4. C cells
3. Insulin- secreting β-cells
49
Where are the articular ligaments located? 1. Mesothelial connective tissue 2. Foetal remnants 3. Uterovesical pouch 4. Sacrococcygeal joint
4. Sacrococcygeal joint
50
How many different types of penicillin-binding sites does bacteria contain? 1. 5 2. 9 3. 8 4. 12
2. 9
51
A missense mutation in the FGFR3 gene, which causes in the over activation of its protein receptor, causes which of the following genetic diseases: 1. Sickle Cell Anaemia 2. Xeroderma pigmentosum 3. Achondrogenesis 4. Achondroplasia
4. Achondroplasia
52
The pancreas has: 1. Only an endocrine component 2. Both an endocrine and exocrine component 3. Neither an exocrine or endocrine function 4. Only an exocrine component
2. Both an endocrine and exocrine component
53
DNA polymers when replicated are: 1. extended at the 5’-end by forming a 5’-3’ phosphodiester bond with the incoming template 2. Extended at the 5’-end by forming a 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond with the incoming template directed nucleotide 3. Extended at the 3’-end by forming a 5’-3’ phosphodiester bond with the incoming template nucleotide 4. Extended at the 3’-end by forming a 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond with the incoming template directed nucleotide
3. Extended at the 3’-end by forming a 5’-3’ phosphodiester bond with the incoming template nucleotide
54
What is the inferior border of the pelvic cavity? 1. The pelvic diagram 2. The pubic symphysis 3. The piriform muscles 4. Obturator internus muscle
4. Obturator internus muscle
55
What are SNPs? 1. Single-Nucleotide Proteins 2. Substituted-Nucleotide Polymorphisms 3. Single-Nucleotide Polymorphisms 4. Substituted-Nucleotide Proteins
3. Single-Nucleotide Polymorphisms
56
Which of the following is not an example of chromosome aneuploidy? 1. Down Syndrome 2. Andersen-Tawil Syndrome 3. Edward Syndrome 4. Patau Syndrome
2. Andersen-Tawil Syndrome
57
Which of the following is a way to eliminate an air bubble from an oil-immersed specimen slide? 1. Gently swing the oil-objective slightly left and right 2. Add another drop of oil 3. Soak up excess oil from the edges of the slide using lens paper 4. Wipe off oil and apply again
1. Gently swing the oil-objective slightly left and right
58
In gene therapy, which delivery vehicle can integrate its genetic material into the DNA of host cells? 1. Retrovirus 2. Herpesvirus 3. Adenovirus 4. Oncovirus
1. Retrovirus
59
Approximately how many genes do humans have? 1. 15000 2. 25000 3. 20000 4. 10000
3. 20000
60
δ(delta) cells in the islets of Langerhans secrete: 1. Adrenaline 2. Glucagon 3. Somatostatin 4. Insulin
3. Somatostatin
Integrated Medical Sciences
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