1
Q
Typically, the duties and responsibilities for environmental issues falls to the job of an ____ and ____, versus the job of the operations director or airfield inspector.
A
Airport Planner, Environmental Specialist
2
Q
Potential Pollutant sources and identification of any pollutant source of concern can be generated by the following airport activities:
A
- Aircraft and Runway Deicing or Anti-icing activities
- Primary Metal Waste Generators
- Cargo loading and unloading operations
- Outdoor storage activities
- Outdoor manufacturing or process activities
- Fueling Operations
- Vehicle and aircraft maintenance, painting, and lubrication
- Significant dust or particulate generating activities
- Onsite waste disposal practices
3
Q
Steps that a facility owner or operator can take to prevent oil spills include:
A
- Using containers suitable for the oil being stored
- Providing overfill prevention for oil storage containers
- Providing sized secondary containment for bulk storage containers, such as a dike or a remote impoundment
- Providing general secondary containment to catch the most likely oil spill where there is a transfer of oil to and from containers and for mobile refuelers and tanker trucks, i.e. (drip pans)
- Periodically inspecting and testing pipes and containers
- Prepare and implement an SPCC Plan
4
Q
SPCC stands for ____.
A
Spill Prevention and Control and Countermeasures
5
Q
A facility is covered by the SPCC rule if it has an aggregate aboveground oil (including petroleum) storage capacity greater than ____ or a completely buried storage capacity greater than ____ and there is a reasonable expectation of an oil discharge into or upon navigable waters of the U.S. or adjoining shorelines.
A
1,320 U.S. gallons, 42,000 U.S. gallons
6
Q
The ____ of the facility must develop and implement an SPCC Plan that describes oil handling operations, spill prevention practices, discharges or drainage controls, and the personnel, equipment and resources at the facility that are used to prevent oil spills from reaching navigable waters or adjoining shorelines.
A
Owner or Operator
7
Q
Activity-based BMPs or nonstructural BMPs emphasize source reduction through such measures as:
A
1.Good housekeeping activities
2. Preventative maintenance schedules
3. Material management procedures
4. Spill prevention and response procedures
5. Visual inspections
6. Sediment and erosion control
7. Management of runoff
8. Recordkeeping and reporting
9. Employee training
10. Material and product substitution
8
Q
Structural-based BMPs use physical measures to:
A
- Minimize pollution (prevention and containment)
- Divert pollutants for treatment (mitigation and ultimate release)
9
Q
____ are technical bulletins that describe how to use, handle, and dispose of specific chemical hazards.
A
SDS (Safety Data Sheets)
10
Q
Each aircraft rescue and firefighting vehicle responding to an emergency on the airport must be equipped with, or have available through a direct communications link, the ____ published by the U.S. DOT or similar guidance material.
A
“North American Emergency Response Guidebook”
11
Q
The procedures pertaining to the requirements relating to Fuel and Fueling Operations must address specific topics, including:
A
- Bond
- Public Protection
- Control of access to storage areas
- Fire safety in fuel farms and storage areas
- Fire safety in mobile fuelers
- Fueling pits
- Fueling cabinets
- Training of fueling personnel in fire safety
- Local fire codes
12
Q
Certificate airports are also required under Part 139.321 to inspect each airport tenant’s physical fueling facilities, including air carrier facilities, at least ____ and ensure that immediate corrective action is taken if any violations are discovered.
A
at least once every three months
13
Q
There must be ____ who has completed an approved aviation fuel training course on fire safety, while those who handle fuel or who fuel aircraft must ____.
A
at least one supervisor; must receive on-the-job training
14
Q
Recurrent fuel related training must be documented over ____.
A
24 months
15
Q
The fire triangle is composed of three parts:
A
- A combustible material (flammable solid, liquid, or gas)
- Presence of sufficient amounts of oxygen
- Heat or ignition source
16
Q
If the material has a flash point at or above ____ it is considered combustible.
A
100 degrees Fahrenheit
17
Q
Flammable material is distinguished by flash points below ____ or a vapor pressure not exceeding ____.
A
100 degrees Fahrenheit, 40 psi
18
Q
A few samples of fuel safety standards include:
A
- At least 50 feet of separation between fuel servicing tank vehicles and any parked aircraft or building.
- Fuel trucks cannot be stored in hangars or other buildings
- Posting and identification of no smoking signs and emergency cutoff switches
- No ignition sources present
- Fire extinguishers of proper type and size
- Properly trained individuals
19
Q
The various components of an airport traffic pattern include:
A
- Upwind leg
- Crosswind leg
- Downwind leg
- Base leg
- Final approach
- Departure leg
20
Q
A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the direction of landing.
A
Upwind leg
21
Q
A flight path parallel to the landing runway in the opposite direction of landing.
A
Downwind leg
22
Q
A flight path which begins after takeoff and continues straight ahead along the extended runway centerline.
A
Departure leg
23
Q
A flight path at right angles to the landing runway off its takeoff end.
A
Crosswind leg
24
Q
A flight path in the direction of landing along the extended runway centerline from the base leg to the runway.
A
Final Approach
25
A flight path at right angles to the landing runway off its approach end and extending from the downwind leg to the intersection of the extended runway centerline.
Base leg
26
Certificated airports without a full-time ATCT are required to have a ____ , and if air carrier operations occur at night when the tower is closed or not operating, the wind cone must be ____.
Segmented Circle; Lighted
27
CTAF stands for ____.
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency
28
A standard holding pattern uses ____ and takes approximately ____ to complete.
Right-hand; 4 minutes
29
Light Gun- Steady Green
Okay to enter, cross, or proceed
30
Light Gun- Steady Red
Stop
31
Light Gun- Flashing Red
Get off runway or other surface
32
Light Gun- White
Return to starting point on airport
33
Light Gun- Alternating Red and Green
Exercise extreme caution
34
Regulatory airspace includes:
1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
5. Class E
6. Restricted Areas
7. Prohibited Areas
35
Non-regulatory airspace includes:
1. Military operations areas (MOAs)
2. Warning Areas
3. Alert Areas
4. Controlled Firing Areas
36
The Four types of airspace are:
1. Controlled
2. Uncontrolled
3. Special Use
4. Other
37
____ are mandatory services provided to all pilots and may include either a terrain or obstruction alert or an aircraft conflict/Mode c intruder alert.
Safety Alerts
38
This airspace exists from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including flight level 600, including the airspace overlying the waters within 12NM off the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska.
Class A
39
This airspace exists from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports in terms of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
Class B
40
This airspace exists from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower that are serviced by a radar approach control, and that have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements.
Class C
41
This airspace exists from the surface to 2,500 feet above the airport elevation surrounding those airports that have an operational control tower.
Class D
42
If the airspace is not Class A, B, C or D it is ____.
Class E
43
The various types of Class E airspace are:
1. Surface area designated for an airport
2. Extension to a surface area
3. Airspace used for transition
4.Enroute Domestic Areas
5. Federal Airways
6. Offshore Airspace Areas
44
When designated as a surface area for an airport, the airspace will be configured to contain all instrument procedures.
Class E- Surface area designated for an airport
45
There are Class E airspace areas that serve as extensions to Class B, C and D surface areas designated for an airport.
Class E- Extension to a surface area
46
Class E airspace areas beginning at either 700 or 1,200 feet AGL used to transition to and from the terminal or enroute environment.
Class E- Airspace used for transition
47
Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specific altitude and are enroute domestic airspace areas that provide controlled airspace in those areas where there is a requirement to provide IFR enroute ATC services, but the Federal airway system is inadequate.
Class E- Enroute Domestic Areas
48
Class E airspace areas and, unless otherwise specified, extend upward from 1,200 feet to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL.
Class E- Federal Airways
49
Class E airspace areas that extend upward from a specified altitude to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL and are designated as offshore airspace areas.
Class E- Offshore Airspace Areas
50
____ airspace is that portion of airspace that has not been designated Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace.
Class G
51
Airspace where activities must be confined because of their nature, or where limitations are imposed on aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities, or possibly both.
Special Use Airspace
52
____ contain airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Prohibited Areas
53
____ contains airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions.
Restricted Areas
54
A ____ is airspace of define dimensions, extending from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S., that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.
Warning Area
55
____, Alert areas, controlled firing areas, apply to military operations and typically have no impact on certificated airports.
Military Operations Areas (MOA)
56
TRACON stands for ____.
Terminal Radar Approach Control
57
Within a TRACON, the several sectors or controller positions are:
1. Approach Control
2. Clearance Delivery
3. Departure Control
4. Flight Data
58
ARTCC stands for ____.
Air Route Traffic Control Center
59
Located within a TRACON or ARTCC facility. Responsible for ensuring the safe transition of the aircraft into the terminal area.
Approach Control
60
Primarily replays flight plan and airport information to the other controller positions within the tower.
Flight Data
61
Coordinates and processes initial departure, route of flight, and final altitude information to a pilot.
Clearance Delivery
62
Located within a TRACON or ARTCC facility. Responsible for ensuring the safe transition of the aircraft out of the terminal area and into enroute navigation.
Departure Control
63
The four possible ATC controller positions are:
1. Tower Control (Local)
2. Ground Control
3. Clearance Delivery
4. Flight Data
64
Responsible for controlling all aircraft and vehicular activity on the airport movement areas.
Ground Control
65
Responsible for handling arriving and departing aircraft on the active runways and within the assigned airport airspace. Also gives clearance to cross or access a runway.
Tower Control (Local)
66
____ coordinates and manages the flow of aircraft in the non-movement ramp areas.
Ramp Control
67
ATIS stands for ____.
Automatic Terminal Information Service
68
The ____ is a recorded message that continuously transmits airport information on a separate assigned frequency, or over the voice feature of an airport's Very High frequency Omni-directional Range navigational aid or other radio transmitter.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS)
69
The ATIS generally includes the following information:
1. Airport Identifier
2. UTC Time
3. Wind Direction and Speed
4. Visibility
5. Cloud Ceiling
6. Temperature and dew point
7. Altimeter setting
8. Instrument approaches and runways in use
9. NOTAMs applicable to landing, weather advisories
10. Braking action reports
11. Wind shear reports
12. Construction activity
13. Other information important to pilots and airport users
70
In regard to traffic and wind direction indicators, each certificate holder must provide and maintain the following on its airport:
1. A wind cone that visually provides surface wind direction information to pilots. For each runway available for air carrier use, a supplemental wind cone must be installed at the end of the runway or at least at one point visible to the pilot while on final approach and prior to takeoff. If the airport is open for air carrier operations at night, the wind direction indicators, including the required supplemental indicators, must be lighted.
2. For airports serving any air carrier operation when there is no control tower operating, a segmented circle, a landing strip indicator and a traffic pattern indicator must be installed around a wind cone for each runway with a right-hand traffic pattern.
3. FAA Advisory Circulars contain methods and procedures for the installation, lighting, and maintenance of traffic and wind indicators that are acceptable to the Administrator.
71
Pat 139.325 details the requirements for ____.
Developing plans and procedures to ensure effective management of emergency situations on airports. (Airport Emergency Plan)
72
For certificated airports, the use of ____ is mandatory.
14 CFR Part 139, Certification of Airports Advisory Circular use and guidelines
73
According to AC 150/5200-31, Airport Emergency Plan, an airport's AEP must contain instructions for response to the following hazards:
1. Aircraft incidents and accidents
2. Terrorism incidents, including designation of parking areas for the aircraft involved
3. Structural fires, fuel farms, and fuel storage areas
4. Natural disasters, including hurricanes, earthquakes, tornado, volcano, and flood
5. Hazardous materials incidents
6. Sabotage, hijack incidents, and other unlawful interference with operations
7. Failure of power for movement area lighting
8. Water rescue situations, as appropriate
9. Crowd Control
74
Additional sections that an AEP may include are:
1. Command and Control
2. Communications
3. Alert Notification and Warning
4. Emergency Public Information
5. Protective Actions
6. Law Enforcement or Security
7. Firefighting and Rescue
8. Health and Medical
9. Resource Management
10. Airport Operations and Maintenance
75
The airport's ____ and ____ requires that there be an emergency alarm, a means of emergency identification, and determination of the type of initial response.
ACM, AEP
76
The ____ describes the principles, roles and responsibilities, and coordinating structures for delivering the core capabilities required to respond to an incident and further describes how response efforts integrate with those of the other mission areas.
National Response Framework
77
The Response mission area includes 15 core capabilities:
1. Planning
2. Public information and warning
3. Operational coordination
4. Critical transportation
5. Environmental response or health safety
6. Fatality management services
7. Fire management and suppression
8. Infrastructure systems
9. Logistics and supply chain management
10. Mass care services
11. Mass search and rescue operations
12. On-scene security, protection, and law enforcement
13. Operational communications
14. Public health, healthcare, and emergency medical services
15. Situational assessment
78
The four phases of a disaster emergency situation are:
1. Mitigation
2. Preparedness
3. Response
4. Recovery
79
Actions that enhance emergency response capabilities, including emergency plans, training, drills and exercises.
Stage: Preparedness
80
Actions that restore the airport and community to pre-emergency conditions, including crisis counseling, long-term medical assistance, reconstruction, rehabilitation, public information programs, and hazard-reduction programs.
Stage: Recovery
81
Actions that can prevent, alleviate, or diminish the potential effects of a disaster situation, including zoning, public education, budget allocations, and earthquake-resistant construction.
Stage: Mitigation
82
Time-sensitive actions to save lives and property, reduce the possibility of secondary damage, and speed recovery operations, including mobilizing emergency response, personnel and equipment, conducting search and rescue, alerting the public, and evacuation.
Stage: Response
83
Upon initial alert, responding airport personnel should obtain the following information for aircraft emergencies:
1. Aircraft identification
2. Nature of the emergency
3. Quantity of fuel on board
4. Runway intended to be used
5. Number of occupants
6. Presence of any hazardous material
7. Location of the aircraft if on the ground
84
Signifies an actual aircraft emergency exists in flight, and an accident may well occur resulting in injuries and aircraft damage.
Alert II
85
Signifies a precautionary approach to a situation where a real or suspected emergency exists on an aircraft, but the nature of the emergency would not normally cause serious difficulty or make the anticipated landing unsafe.
Alert I
86
Signifies an actual aircraft accident has occurred.
Alert III
87
The first ____ are the most critical period of an emergency response.
15 minutes
88
ARFF's first priority on an aircraft accident scene is to ____.
Create an exit route, allowing aircraft passengers to escape.
89
____ primarily controls access to the emergency site, establishes traffic control points to enable emergency vehicles to arrive without hindrance, and preserves materials, such as cargo and personal property of individuals.
Airport Security
90
Airport operations personnel can better prepare for an off-airport accident by:
1. Understanding their role in such emergency situations
2. Developing, coordinating, and practicing crisis management plans and techniques with other federal, state, and local agencies.
3. Understanding the human factors involved in tragedies
4. Learning to deal with the unexpected
91
Before any airfield operation can resume, a ____ must be conducted to ensure that the airport is in compliance with its ACM.
Thorough inspection
92
According to the FAA, the airport operations coordinator or supervisor during an emergency should:
1. Ensure compliance with all appropriate aviation standards and regulations
2. Ensure that the command vehicle is provided at the scene as soon as possible
3. Coordinate emergency response efforts with air traffic control personnel
4. Ensure any and all required NOTAMs have been issued
5. Provide overall airport familiarization and training program for designated on- and off- airport maintenance personnel
6. Provide training to reduce the potential for Vehicle/Pedestrian Deviations and runway incursions
7. Provide grid maps for each vehicle, as appropriate
8. Ensure completion of necessary airport inspections upon emergency termination
9. Prepare detailed SOPs and checklists that include
* Contact information and mechanisms for notifying personnel
* Step-by-step procedures for performing assigned tasks
* Contact information for agency notification
* Listing of the radio communications call signs and
frequencies used by responding organizations
10. Provide means to evacuate people from the accident scene
11. Provide information regarding the status of the airport to the news media through the Public Information Officer
12. Maintain a chronological event log
93
The airport, or portions thereof, should not be reopened until the airport operator has ensured that:
1. Aircraft operating areas are safe and secure
2. Aircraft movement areas that are to be reopened have been properly inspected
3. Adequate aircraft rescue and firefighting protection is available for aircraft operations
4. Public safety is assured
94
According to the FAA, the airport maintenance coordinator or supervisor should:
1. Prepare and maintain an airport resource list
2. Ensure the restoration of utilities to critical and essential facilities, when necessary
3. Ensure the safety of facilities
4. Provide backup electrical power
5. Clear debris, as necessary
6. Ensure availability of potable water supply
7. Prepare detailed SOPs and checklists that include:
* Contact information and mechanisms for notifying
personnel
* Step-by-step procedures for performing assigned tasks
8. Provide sanitation services
9. Maintain a chronological event log
95
The five types of exercises that can better prepare an airport for emergencies or incidents are:
1. Orientation seminar
2. Drill
3. Tabletop exercise
4. Functional or partial exercise
5. Full-scale exercise
96
The lowest level exercise, used to test, develop, or maintain skills in a single emergency response procedure.
Drill
97
The highest-level exercise that does not involve the full activation of airport and off-airport emergency personnel and facilities. Designed to test or evaluate the specific capabilities of the participants in a stress-induced environment with time constraints and actual simulation of specific events.
Functional or Partial Exercise
98
The most comprehensive test, intended to evaluate the operational capability of the emergency management system in a stress-induced environment with actual mobilization and deployment of resources to demonstrate coordination and response capability.
Full-scale Exercise
99
Designed to provide an opportunity for training and evaluation of plans and procedures, and to resolve questions of coordination and assignment of responsibilities.
Tabletop Exercise
100
The FAA requires a ____ of the emergency plan at least once every ____ for Class I certificated airports.
Full-scale demonstration; 36 consecutive calendar months
101
In the intervening years when a full-scale exercise if not required, certificated airports are required to ____.
Conduct a functional or tabletop exercise
102
Class ____, ____, ____ are required to conduct a tabletop exercise each year.
Class II, III, and IV
103
The authority for removal of aircraft wreckage remains solely with the ____, and wreckage must not be move or disturbed until it is released by the ____.
NTSB
104
The wreckage from an aircraft accident may only be moved if:
1. Aiding or removing any person who may be in the wreckage
2. It poses a safety hazard to the public
105
The preservation and security of the accident site becomes the responsibility of ____ or ____ if the accident occurs on airport property.
Airport Operations; Security Personnel
106
If the accident occurs off airport property, the responsibility resides with the ____.
Local Jurisdiction
107
Security must be provided ____ at the scene of the accident, unless written authorization is given by either the ____ or the ____.
24 hours a day
NTSB; of the FAA
108
____ are required to be installed in almost all U.S. -registered civil aircraft, including general aviation aircraft.
ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter)
109
Per Part 139.329, airport operations are required to limit access to any ____ on the airport to only those pedestrians and ground vehicles necessary for airport operations.
Movement or safety area
110
To provide for safe ground vehicle operations, airport operators must develop procedures, procure equipment, and provide training regarding vehicle operations. Methods for preventing and controlling access include:
1. Fences
2. Access gates
3. Guards
4. Magnetic card activated locks
5. Remotely controlled locks
6. Gates opened and closed electronically or secure by lock and chain
7. Physical barriers, including natural objects such as earthen berms, large boulders, tree trunks, and manmade culverts
111
According to the FAA, airports should consider these when developing rules and regulations for those pedestrians and ground vehicles operating in movement and safety areas:
1. Requiring vehicle operators and anyone authorized to taxi or tow an aircraft, an ability to communicate in and understand the English language
2. Requiring that vehicles operating on the movement areas have radio contact with ATCT or are escorted by a radio-equipped vehicle. This is a requirement of Part 139.329 (b) for certificated airports.
3. Requiring specific procedures for vehicles operations on airports without an operating ATCT.
4. Requiring advanced notice and approval for operating a non-airport owned vehicle on the movement area.
5. Establishing speed limits
6. Establishing procedures to reduce distracted driving.
7. Prohibiting:
a. Passing other vehicle and taxiing aircraft:
b. Leaving a vehicle unattended and running;
c. Driving under an aircraft except when servicing the aircraft;
d. Driving under passenger bridges
8. Determining when drivers must use vehicle lights
9. Using dedicated vehicle lanes and perimeter roads whenever possible
10. Designating where vehicles may and may not park.
11. Establishing rules of right-of-way (e.g. for aircraft, emergency vehicles and other vehicles.)
12. Designating areas where vehicles may be serviced
13. Establishing procedures for inoperative radios while on a movement area.
14. Require reporting of all accidents involving ground vehicles on the movement and safety areas.
15. Require making the vehicle operator responsible for passenger's behavior in the movement area.
16. Ensuring each aircraft operator maintains a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) with the airport to conduct tow operations.
a. Elements of the MOU can include but are not limited to:
i. Compliance with AC 00-65, Towbar and Towbarless Movement of Aircraft
ii. Local Operating Conditions
1. Low Visibility
2. Weather
3. Driving Routes
4. Time Constraints (placed on movement of aircraft
5. Tug-Type Requirements
112
The FAA suggest planning meetings as an opportunity to review driving rules and regulations, communications and procedures, and air traffic control procedures. These meetings should address:
1. Movement and Safety During Construction
2. Emergency response and mutual aid
3. Snow and ice removal
4. Low-visibility operations
5. Any other non-routine operations
113
Airport operators must develop procedures for enforcing the consequences of non-compliance, including penalties for violations. The AC presents the following control issues that airport operators should address as part of a ground vehicle control program:
1. Implementation of a tiered identification badging system that permits easy recognition of a vehicle operator's permitted driving area privileges.
2. Prohibition against transfer of registration media to a vehicle other than the one for which originally issued.
3. Policies for surrendering permits to airport management when a vehicle is no longer authorized entry into a facility.
4. Periodic checks to ensure that only properly authorized persons operate vehicles on the airside.
5. System to control the movement of commercial trucks and the conveyance of goods onto and out of the airside of an airport.
6. Briefly or training for delivery drivers if they are permitted direct access to the airside.
7. Implementation of a progressive penalty policy.
114
With respect to vehicular traffic, aircraft safety is endangered by the following four principle causes:
1. Increased traffic volume
2. Non-standard vehicle traffic endangerment patterns
3. Vehicles without radio communication and markings
4. Operators untrained in the airport's procedures
115
Vehicles that are equipped with ____ can escort vehicles that are not marked and lighted.
Marking and lighting devices
116
A ____ is required at each towered airport to clarify the specific activities allowed in the RSA during air carrier and aircraft operations.
Letter of Agreement (LOA)
117
Any LOA between the airport operator and the ATCT must be included in the airport operator's ____.
Airport Certification Manual
118
AC 150/521-20A requires the mechanic to provide the airport operator documentation from the mechanic's employer indicating that the certified A&P mechanic is qualified to ____.
Start, run, taxi, or tow a particular type of aircraft
119
Part 139.329(c) spells out the methods of control necessary when ATCT is in operation. This section of Part 139 spells out three methods of control, requiring airports to choose one of the following:
1. Two-way radio communications
2. An escort with two-way radio communications accompanying any pedestrian or vehicle without a radio
3. Methods such as signs, signals, or guards.
120
____ provides guidance to airports in developing training for ground vehicle operations and pedestrian control on the airside of an airport.
AC 150/5210-20
121
The consequences of violating any rules or procedures must be spelled out in an airport's ____.
Airport Certification Manual (ACM)
122
A ____ is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and takeoff of aircraft
Runway Incursion
123
A ____ is an unauthorized or unapproved movement within the designated movement area or an occurrence in that same area associated with the operation of an aircraft that affects or could affect the safety of flight.
Surface Incident
124
The four categories of runway incursions are:
1. Category A
2. Category B
3. Category C
4. Category D
125
An incident characterized by ample time or distance to avoid a collision.
Category C
126
A serious incident in which a collision was narrowly avoided.
Category A
127
An incident in which separation decreases and a significant potential for collision exists, which may result in a time-critical corrective and evasive response to avoid a collision.
Category B
128
An incident that meets the definition of runway incursion such as incorrect presence of a single vehicle, person or aircraft on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft but with no immediate safety consequences.
Category D
129
For additional assessment purposes, the FAA groups the primary cause of an incursion or incident into one of the three categories:
1. Operational Incident
2. Pilot Deviation
3. Vehicle/pedestrian deviation
130
Pedestrian or vehicles entering any portion of the airport movement areas without authorization from air traffic control.
Vehicle/pedestrian deviation (V/PD)
131
Action of an Air Traffic Controller that results in: Less than required minimum separation between 2 or more aircraft, or between an aircraft and obstacles, or clearing an aircraft to take off or land on a closed runway.
Operational Incident (OI)
132
Action of a pilot that violates any Federal Aviation Regulation.
Pilot Deviation (PD)
133
The several factors with regard to runway incursion severity are:
1. Available Reaction Time
2. Evasive or corrective Action
3. Environmental Conditions
4. Speed of Aircraft or Vehicle
5. Proximity of Aircraft or Vehicle
134
The three areas of focus that the FAA concentrated on during the C2A relating to runway incursions were:
1. Visual
2. Communication
3. Procedures and Awareness
135
Having an ____ and ____ available in each vehicle to record movement instructions is considered a best practice when communicating with ATCT.
Airport diagram; notepad
136
Adding ____ to vehicles can help to improve situational awareness for both air traffic control and aircraft operators equipped with the ability to receive and display ____ messages.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance- Broadcast (ADS-B) Out Squitter Equipment; ADS-B
137
A ____ is the normal method for identifying and agreeing to operating procedures on those areas that are to be under the control and responsibility of the ATCT, as well as those areas under control of the airport operator.
Letter of Agreement (LOA)
138
At airports without an operating ATCT, procedures, phraseology, and aeronautical communication practices for operating on the airport are found in the _____ or ____.
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM); FAA Order JO 7110.65
139
Personnel should have an aeronautical radio tuned to the airport's ____ and ____ when there is no ATCT or when the ATCT is closed.
Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF); self-announce position and intentions
140
Part 139 requires that if an object has been determined by the FAA to be an obstruction, it must be ____.
Removed, marked, or lighted
141
Part __ deals with objects affecting navigable airspace.
Part 77
142
One of the main requirements of Part 77 is to report to the FAA proposed construction or altercation that may constitute potential ____, as determined by the criteria found in the regulations.
potential obstructions or create hazards to safe air navigation
143
____ require airport operators to take necessary action to protect the terminal area airspace from hazards to safety of flight.
Federal Grant Assurances
144
An ____ is defined under the regulations as any natural growth, terrain, or permanent or temporary construction or altercation, including equipment or materials used, and apparatus of a permanent or temporary character.
Object
145
The purpose for providing notice to the FAA under Part 77 is so the FAA:
1. Can minimize the adverse effects to aviation by identifying any potential for aeronautical hazards.
2. Be able to reverse published data or issue NOTAMs to alert pilots of the airspace changes resulting from the structure.
3. Be able to recommend appropriate marking and lighting to make the objects visible to pilots.
4. Depict obstacles on aeronautical charts for piloting and safety purposes.
146
Form 7460-1 concerns ____.
Notice of Proposed Requirement Construction or Alteration
147
Form 7460-1 is required when any proposed construction or alteration falls within any of the following:
1. Is greater than 200 feet in height above ground level at its location?
2. Is "near" a public use or military airport, heliport, or seaplane base?
3. Is a traverse way (highway, railroad or waterway) that exceeds standards?
4. Is it located on a public-use or military airport or heliport?
5. Is requested by the FAA?
148
Depending upon the length of the longest runway, a proposed object is "near" a public-use airport if it is within ____ of an airport having runways less than ____, or within ____ if the airport has a runway that is greater than ____. The object requires notice if it exceeds a slope standard of ____ and ____, respectively, for each of the distances.
10,000 feet; 3,200 feet
20,000 feet; 3,200 feet
50:1 and 100:1
149
A ____ advance notice to the FAA is required when filing FAA Form 7460-1.
45-day
150
The principle imaginary obstacle surfaces defined in Part 77 are:
1. Primary
2. Transitional
3. Approach
4. Horizontal
5. Conical
151
The ____ is centered on the runway centerline and extends 200 feet past the runway end. The width of this surface varies from 250 feet to 1,000 feet, depending on the type of approach to the runway. It exists at the same elevation as the runway.
Primary Surface
152
The ____ is a level plane 150 feet above the runway elevation. Its surface is determined by connecting tangents of radii extended from the edges of the primary surface area at the runway ends. The length of the surface area of the radii is dependent upon the approach category for the runway. The area is intended to accommodate the safe operation and maneuvering of aircraft that are performing circle-to-land or missed approaches.
Horizontal Surface
153
The ____ begins 200 feet from the runway end at the edge of the primary surface and extends outward from the end of the primary surface. The slope can vary from 20:1 for a visual runway for a distance of 5,000 feet, to ratios 20:1, 34:1, and 50:1 for a non-precision runway, for a distance of 10,000 feet, or to 50:1 for a precision runway for the first 10,000 feet and 40:1 thereafter to 40,000 feet.
Approach Surface
154
The ____ commences at the edges of the primary surface, perpendicular to the runway centerline, and transition to the horizontal surface. The slops of the surface is 7:1, regardless of the type of runway or approach to that runway.
Transitional Surface
155
The ____ starts at the perimeter of the horizontal surface and continues upward at a slope ratio of 20:1 for a horizontal distance of 4,000 feet. This is similar to a "stadium seating" effect.
Conical Surface
156
Upon receipt of any proposed construction or alteration via FAA Form ____, the FAA conducts a Part ____ airspace study by analyzing the impact and effect it would have on the access to an airport and the safe operation of aircraft, including approaches, missed approaches, traffic patterns, etc..
Form 7460-1 Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration; Part 77
157
A Part 77 study concludes with one or more of six possibilities, which are:
1. The obstruction to air navigation is a hazard to air navigation
2. The object or activity on or in the vicinity of an airport is objectionable
3. The need exists to alter, remove, mark, or light the object.
4. The airport layout plan is approved (for construction or alteration on airport)
5. The proposed construction, enlargement, or modification to the airport would have an adverse effect on the safe and efficient use of navigable airspace.
6. A change in operational procedure is feasible or required.
158
The authority to prevent construction or alteration is reserved for the ____
States and resides with the local regional or municipal zoning authorities.
159
If an FAA study determines that the construction or alteration of a structure would interfere in the operation of the airspace system, the FAA will seek ____ to the application or will ____ change(s) in the operational use of the affected airport or airspace.
Modifications; Require
160
In regards to the restrictions suggested by the FAA, the airport manager then has the option of ____or ____.
Accepting the restrictions; removing the obstacle if able
161
FAA Form 7460-2 details ____.
Notice of Actual Construction or Alteration
162
When penetration to an approach surface exists, the airport operator must take one of five actions:
1. Remove or lower the object to acceptable threshold siting requirements.
2. Displace the threshold thereby shortening the landing distance.
3. Revise the glide path angle or tower.
4. Raise the visibility minimums on the runway approach.
5. Restrict night operations.
163
Factors that may affect the actions the airport operator can take when an object penetrates an approach surface might be:
1. The types of aircraft that use the runway.
2. The operational disadvantages of higher landing minimums.
3. The cost of removing, relocating, or lowering an object.
4. The effects of reduced landing length when the runway is wet.
5. The cost of extending the runway.
6. The cost and feasibility of relocating any visual or navigational aid.
7. The effects on noise abatement.
164
Unmanned Aircraft systems or "Drones" weighing less than ____ are covered under FAR Part ____.
55 lbs; FAR Part 107
165
For UAS to be legally operated in Class B, C, D or E airspace a waiver or authorization is needed to perform the Part 107 operation. Common request may include the options of:
1. Flying at night.
2. Flying directly over a person or people.
3. Flying from a moving vehicle or aircraft, not in a sparsely populated area.
4. Flying multiple aircraft with only one pilot.
5. Flying beyond the pilot's visual line-of-sight.
6. Flying above 400 feet.
7. Flying near airports or in controlled airspace.
166
LAANC stands for ____.
Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability
167
____ provides near real-time processing of airspace authorization requests for drone operators nationwide. The system is designed to automatically approve most requests to operate in specific areas of airspace below designated altitudes.
LAANC
168
The FAA website offers guidance for use regarding Laser incidents including:
1. Laser Hazards & Effects
2. Laser News, Laws & Civil Penalties
3. Pilot Safety Information Brochure
4. Law Enforcement Guidance for Identifying and Reporting Unauthorized Laser Illumination Incidents Against Aircraft
169
The three requirements that must be met for any navigational system to be successful are:
1. Integrity
2. Accuracy
3. Availability and reliability
170
____ refers to the ability of the system to show the true position of an aircraft at any time.
Accuracy
171
____ refers to the ability of the system to monitor itself and provide timely warnings to users or shut itself down when it should not be used for navigation.
Integrity
172
____ is the ability for NAVAIDs to provide the navigational services whenever it is needed by the user of the system. It is the percentage of time in a given period that the signal is expected to be received and usable.
Availability
173
____ refers to the continuous reception of the signal.
Reliability
174
The two method types of navigational approaches made by an aircraft to an airport are:
1. Visual reference (Visual Meteorological Conditions- VMC)
2. Use of instruments (Instrument Meteorological Conditions- IMC)
175
A ____ is an approach using horizontal or vertical guidance and is a procedure established by the FAA that outlines the routes and altitudes to be flown by an aircraft for safe flight from takeoff to landing, these approaches can either be precision or non-precision.
An Instrument Approach
176
A ____ is a procedure that results from an instrument approach when the visibility is greater than one mile. In such cases, a pilot is cleared by ATC to make an instrument approach to land, and the pilot then uses visual reference to complete the approach when conditions allow.
A Contact Approach
177
A ____ is an approach when either part or all an instrument approach procedure is not completed (nor initiated) and the approach is executed with visual reference to the terrain. This type of approach can be made anytime ATC approves it, when the destination airport meets visibility requirements of three statue miles or greater, and the cloud ceiling is at least 1,000 feet above the ground level.
A Visual Approach
178
____ are a series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the initial approach to a landing or to a point from which a landing may be made visually.
Instrument Approach Procedures
179
A ____ is a preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic control departure procedure printed for pilot or controller use in graphic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure.
SID (Standard Instrument Departure)
180
A ____ is a preplanned instrument flight rule air traffic control arrival procedure published for pilot use in graphic or textual form.
STAR (Standard Terminal Arrival)
181
A precision instrument landing system provides both ____ and ____ electronic information to the pilot for purposes of aligning an aircraft with the centerline of a runway at the proper approach angle.
Vertical; Horizontal
182
An ILS (Instrument Landing System) consists of :
1. Localizer
2. Glide Slope
3. Outer Marker
4. Middle Marker
5. Decision Height
6. Approach Light System
183
A standard ILS ____ consists of a localizer, glide scope, Final Approach Fix or compass locator. marker system, and approach light system, and runway marking and lighting.
Category I (CAT I)
184
A ____ approach requires an inner marker, as well as the systems associated with a CAT I ILS and has specific RVR requirements.
Category II (CAT II)
185
A ____ approach is the most stringent and expensive approach.
Category III (CAT III)
186
There are ____ categories for the ILS Category III approach.
Three
187
The ILS CAT ____ approach allows a properly equipped aircraft and certified pilot to land when the visibility is negligible, known as autoland capability.
CAT IIIC
188
RVR stands for ____.
Runway Visual Range
189
____ is an instrumentally derived value, based on standard calibrations, that represents the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end.
Runway Visual Range (RVR)
190
Both ____ and ____ approaches require an airport to have RVR equipment, while a ____ ILS can use trained use trained visual observers or weather reporting equipment such as AWOS or ASOS.
1. CAT II and CAT III ILS
2. CATI ILS
191
A ____ projects a radio frequency beam down the runway from the departure end toward the approach end.
Localizer or Localizer Directional Aid
192
Localizer antennas are normally located more than ____ past the departure end of the runway having the approach, placing it outside of the runway end object free area.
1,000 feet
193
Aircraft are normally spaced ____ apart due to spacing requirements relating to wake turbulence and signal interference.
3 miles apart
194
The ____ is normally located at least 250 feet on either side of the instrument runway and 1,000 feet past the approach landing threshold. It provides the pilots with vertical height information and transmits a signal that normally results in a three-degree approach slope away from the runway end.
Glideslope
195
The glideslope critical area is normally rectangular in shape and covers an area that is ____ by ____ directly in front of the antenna.
500 feet wide by 1,200 feet long
196
The ____ provides the pilot with range information to the threshold. This is accomplished by their fixed distance location along the localizer approach path.
Marker Beacon System
197
A ____ is used for air navigation primarily where bad terrain exists or if costs considerations dictate its use.
Non-directional Beacon (NDB)
198
A ____ transmits VHF signals in a finite number of compass headings. VHF is used because it is not greatly affected by lightning, static, or reflection from terrain.
Very High Frequency Omni-directional Range (VOR)
199
VOR signals are line of sight and are therefore affected by terrain blockage, or obstructions in close proximity to the station. Close proximity generally means within several thousand feet of the facility. For this reason, a VOR or TVOR located on an airport has a ____ to ____ radius protection zone around it to reduce signal interference.
750 to 1,000-foot
200
A ____ provides course information similar to a localizer, but it is less accurate, while also being more flexible given the surrounding environment.
Simplified Directional Facility (SDF)
201
The ____ is a satellite-based navigation system.
Global Positioning System (GPS)
202
A minimum of ____ satellites is necessary to establish an accurate three-dimensional position.
Four
203
____ is a navigation service using a combination of GPS satellites and the ____ geostationary satellites to improve the navigational service provided by GPS.
Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS)
204
____ is a ground-based augmentation to GPS that focuses its service on the airport area (approx a 20-30 mile radius) for precision approach, DPs, and terminal area operations.
Ground-Based Augmentation System (GBAS)
205
____ is a surveillance technique in which aircraft automatically provide, via a data link, data derived from on-board navigation and position fixing systems, including aircraft identification, four-dimensional position and additional data as appropriate.
Automatic Dependent Surveillance- Broadcast (ADS-B)
206
ADS-B can be used in ____ and can serve to improve situational awareness for both air traffic control and aircraft operators equipped with the ability to receive and display ADS-B messages.
Ground Vehicles
207
____ uses a continually rotating antenna mounted on a tower to transmit electromagnetic waves that reflect, or backscatter, from the surface to aircraft up to 60 miles away.
Primary Surveillance Radar
208
The two types of surveillance radar that covers an airspace is :
1. Search Radar (termed ASR)
2. Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRB or ATCRB secondary radar)
209
Air Route Surveillance Radar and Airport Surveillance Radar are primarily for ____ and ____ aircraft traffic.
Identifying and Separating
210
The two major drawbacks that exist with primary radar systems are:
1. They are very susceptible to atmospheric conditions and the size of the target.
2. They do not provide information about the aircraft's altitude.
211
____ is designed to enhance safety on the airport during all-weather conditions. It is used by air traffic controllers to augment and confirm information obtained from visual surveillance of the airport surface or verbal reports of aircraft positions.
Airport Surface Detection Equipment (ASDE)
212
____ is a radar-based that tracks ground movements and provides an automatic visual and audio alert to controllers when it detects potential collisions on airport runways.
Airport Surface Detection Equipment, Model 3/ Airport Movement Area Safety System (ASDE-3/ AMASS)
213
____ purpose if to increase aviation safety by reducing runway incursions and surface collisions in the movement area.
Airport Surface Traffic Automation (ASTA)
214
The five elements that compose the Airport Surface Traffic Automation system are:
1. A runway status light system
2. A surveillance data link
3. Aural and visual warnings
4. Data tags
5. A traffic planner
215
In the event of an aircraft accident involving the use of any navigational aid, the system is immediately shut down until it is rechecked and certified by the ____.
FAA
216
Because of the importance of navigational signals to pilots, Part ____ and Part ____ require airport operations to prevent the placement of objects or the construction of facilities that would affect the operation of an electronic or visual NAVAID or air traffic control facilities on the airport.
Part 139.333 and Part 139.329
217
If a non-federal navigational aid is owned and operated by the airport, a NOTAM must be issued at least ____ hours before shutdown occurs for maintenance and in the case of an emergency, at least ____ hour(s) is able.
5 hours; 1 hour
218
FAR Part ____ states that certificated airports "provide safeguards to prevent inadvertent entry to the movement area by unauthorized persons or vehicles and reasonable protection of persons and property from aircraft blasts.
FAR Part 139.335 (Public Protection)
219
Part 139.337 presents to main requirements of certificated airports. First, in addition to always taking immediate action to alleviate wildlife hazards whenever they are detected, airports must undertake a wildlife hazard assessment when any of the following events occur on or near the airport:
1. An air carrier aircraft experiences multiple wildlife strikes.
2. An air carrier aircraft experiences substantial damage from striking wildlife.
3. An air carrier aircraft experiences an engine ingestion of wildlife.
4. Wildlife of a size, or in numbers, capable of causing any of these events is observed to have access to any airport flight pattern or aircraft movement area.
220
Advisory Circular 15/5200-38 covers the ____.
Protocol for the Conduct and Review of Wildlife Hazard Site Visits, Wildlife Hazard Assessments, and Wildlife Hazard Management Plans
221
A Wildlife Hazard Assessment is defined in Part 139.337 (c) as an ecological study and is conducted by a ____.
Qualified Airport Wildlife Biologists (QAWB)
222
Wildlife Hazard Site Visits can be beneficial for any airport. A Site Visit has three parts that are:
1. Gathering airport information
2. Field Observation
3. A final report with recommendations
223
If the airport is certificated and has had one of the events listed in Part 139.337 (b), then the airport must conduct a(n) ____.
Wildlife Hazard Assessment
224
If a certificated airport has already had an Assessment conducted and a Wildlife Hazard Management Plan developed based on that Assessment, then the airport must evaluate the Plan following an event described in Part 139.337(b)(1)-(3). A QAWB may request the following information, if available, from the airport operator to prepare for a site visit:
1. Personnel and departments responsible for airport operations
2. Number of aircraft operations per year
3. Type of operations (i.e., private, civil, and military)
4. Recent airport construction or airfield changes
5. Past and present land management practices
6. Records of strikes and damage, flight delays, injuries, and fatalities due to strikes. Wildlife strike data may help determine hazardous species on an airport. Data on reported wildlife strikes are available through the FAA National Wildlife Strike Database. Airports may maintain their own local database which can be compared with the National Database. It is recommended that a Site Visit include an analysis of wildlife strike records. If possible, include summaries of strike data by species, time of day, on and off-site airport locations. At minimum, it is recommended that a wildlife strike analysis include, if available:
a. Bird and mammal species involved
b. Frequency distribution by month and year
c. Number per 10,000 aircraft movements
d. Location on the airfield
7. Any existing wildlife hazard management efforts and related maintenance procedures, if applicable. It is recommended that attempts to exclude, deter, or remove wildlife from the airport be noted. If not already in place, it is recommended that a wildlife log be created and maintained by airport operations to document all wildlife activity observed on the airport.
8. Description of current wildlife hazard threats or concerns
9. Presence or absence of perimeter fence, condition of fence and its effectiveness
10. Any current Federal and State depredation, wildlife control permits and annual permit reports
11. Current U.S. Geological Survey (USGS) topographic maps, airport maps or aerial photographs
12. Other pertinent information present in airport present in airport records.
225
It is recommended that the QAWB provide the airport manager with a letter report summarizing field data and any management recommendations following the Site Visit. The findings in a Site Visit report could lead the FAA to require an Assessment. The Site Visit report should contain:
1. List of wildlife species or wildlife signs, such as deer tracks observed during the visit or identified as wildlife hazards by other sources.
2. Federal and State status of the species observed
3. Habitat features that may encourage wildlife to use the airport
4. Natural and artificial wildlife attractants on or near the airport
5. Strike data analysis
6. Recommendations to:
a. Reduce wildlife hazards identified
b. Conduct an Assessment, if needed
c. Modify an existing Plan, if needed
d. Improve communication and hazard advisories between Air
Traffic Control, pilots, airlines, airport operations, and other
airport users
e. Consider potential short-term alteration of aircraft operations, if
feasible, to avoid identified hazardous wildlife concentrations
f. No action required, if applicable
226
If the recommendation is that the airport needs a ____, then a Wildlife Hazard Assessment should be conducted by a QAWB
Wildlife Hazard Management Plan (WHMP)
227
A Wildlife Hazard Assessment typically takes ____ to complete.
A year
228
Wildlife Hazard Assessments promote an integrated approach for wildlife mitigation to effectively:
1. Modify the environment (e.g., changes in mowing and drainage clearance procedures)
2. Exclude wildlife (e.g., installation of fences, netting and perch excluders)
3. Implement harassment procedures (e.g., pyrotechnics and propane cannons)
4. Remove wildlife (e.g., lethal and capture and relocate methodologies)
5. Communicate wildlife hazard advisories through Air Traffic Control voice communications, Automatic Terminal information Service (ATIS), Pilot Reports (PIREPS), Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS)
6. Direct pilot responses to identified hazards
7. Report strikes or hazardous situations
8. Potentially alter flight routes, traffic patterns, or schedules to avoid locations and times of identified wildlife hazards.
229
According to Part 139.337, the wildlife hazard management plan must include at least the following:
1. A list of individuals having authority and responsibility for implementing each aspect of the plan
2. A list prioritizing the following actions identified in the Assessment and target dates for their initiation and completion
a. Wildlife population management
b. Habitat modification
c. Land use changes
3. Requirements for and, where applicable, copies of local, State, and Federal wildlife control permits
4. Identification of resources that the certificate holder will provide to implement the plan.
5. Procedures to be followed during air carrier operations that at a minimum includes:
a. Designation of personnel responsible for implementing the procedures
b. Provisions to conduct physical inspections of the aircraft movement
areas and other areas critical to successfully manage known wildlife
hazards before air carrier operations begin
c. Wildlife hazard control measures
d. Ways to communicate effectively between personnel conducting wildlife
control or observing wildlife hazards and the air traffic control tower
6. Procedures to review and evaluate the wildlife hazard management plan every 12 consecutive calendar months or following a triggering event including:
a. The plan's effectiveness in dealing with known wildlife hazards on and
in the airport's vicinity
b. Aspects of the wildlife hazards described in the wildlife hazard
assessment that should be reevaluated
7. A training program conducted by a qualified airport wildlife biologist to provide airport personnel with the knowledge and skills needed to successfully carry out the wildlife hazard management plan
230
If the airport notes the presence of a threatened or endangered species on airport, these extraordinary circumstances will require preparation of either a(n) ____ or a(n) ____ before the Wildlife Hazard Management Plan could receive FAA approval.
Environmental Assessment; Environmental Impact Statement
231
____ contains a ranking of 25 species groups according to the hazard they present to aircraft.
AC 150/5200-33, Hazardous Wildlife Attractants on or Near Airports
232
A wildlife attractant is defined by the FAA as, ____.
"Any human-made structure, land-use practice, or human made or natural geographic feature that can attract or sustain hazardous wildlife within the landing or departure airspace or the airport's AOA. These attractants can include architectural features, landscaping, waste disposal sites, wastewater treatment facilities, agricultural or aquaculture activities, surface mining, or wetlands."
233
Other land-use practice on or near airports that potentially attract hazardous wildlife include:
1. Waste disposal operations
2. Water management facilities
3. Wetlands
4. Dredge spoil containment areas
5. Agricultural activities
6. Golf courses, landscaping, and other
7. Synergistic effects of surrounding land uses
234
Wildlife control, generally a significant responsibility of airport operations personnel, consists of the following strategies:
1. Aircraft flight schedule modification
2. Habitat modification and exclusion
a. Food
b. Cover
c. Water
d. Exclusion techniques
3. Repellent and harassment techniques
4. Wildlife removal
235
____ means changing the environment to make it less attractive or inaccessible to wildlife.
Habitat Modification
236
The most effective means in which to exclude deer, livestock or other large mammals from the AOA is proper fencing. The FAA recommends a ____ to ____ chain link fence with 3-strand barbed wire outriggers.
10 to 12 foot
237
When used repeatedly without added reinforcement, wildlife soon learn that the repellent devices or techniques are ____.
Harmeless
238
Repellent Techniques include:
1. Wildlife patrols and runway sweeps in vehicles
2. Chemical repellents
3. Audio repellents
4. Visual repellents
5. Trained falcons and dogs to repel birds
6. Radio-controlled model aircraft to repel birds
7. Nonlethal projectiles to repel birds
239
Habitat modification, exclusion, and repellent techniques are the first lines of action in any wildlife hazard management plan. However, these actions will not solve every problem; therefore, ____ must sometimes be used.
Wildlife Removal
240
AC 150/5200-36 requires that personnel actively involved in implementing FAA-approved Wildlife Hazard Management Plans receive initial and recurrent training at least eight hours in duration by a qualified wildlife hazard damage management biologist in the following areas:
1. General survey of wildlife hazards to aviation based on the most recent annual FAA National Wildlife Strike Database Serial Report
2. Review of wildlife strikes, control actions, and observations at the airport over at least the past 12 months
3. Review of the airport's Wildlife Hazard Assessment is to include
a. Existing wildlife hazards and trends in wildlife abundance
b. Status of any open or unresolved recommended action items for
reducing identified wildlife hazards to air carrier operations within the
past 12 months
4. Review of the airport's Wildlife Hazard Management Plan, to include the following
a. Airport-specific wildlife attractants, including man-made and natural
features and habitat management practices of the last 12 months
b. Review of the airport's wildlife permits (local, State and Federal)
c. Review of other airport-specific items:
i. Wildlife hazard management strategies, techniques, and tools:
1. Flight schedule modification
2. Habitat modification, exclusion
3. Repelling methods
4. Wildlife population management
ii. Responsibilities of airport personnel for:
1. Reporting wildlife strikes, control actions, and wildlife
observations
2. Communicating with personnel who conduct wildlife control
actions or who see wildlife hazards and air traffic control
tower personnel and others who may require notification,
such as airport operations or maintenance departments
3. Documenting and reporting wildlife hazards seen during
patrols and inspection and follow-up control efforts
4. Documenting and reporting when no hazards are seen
during patrols and inspections
5. Basic bird and mammal identification, stressing local hazardous and rare or endangered species of concern
6. For any airport personnel using pyrotechnics launchers or firearms, training on the following topics from a qualified individual:
a. Safety, parts, and operation of pyrotechnic launchers
b. Fundamentals of using pyrotechnics to safely and effectively disperse
wildlife
c. Personnel protective equipment
d. Cleaning, storage, and transport of firearms and pyrotechnic launchers
e. Applicable local, State, and Federal regulations on firearms,
pyrotechnics launcher, and pyrotechnics
f. Live fire training with pyrotechnic launchers including strategies for
dispersing wildlife away from runways and aircraft movement corridors
g. For any airport personnel using firearms, live fire training. This training
is highly recommended from a qualified individual but not a
requirement for this training program.
7. Any other training required by local, State, or Federal regulations
241
If an aircraft does strike wildlife, the strike should be recorded to enable the airport to evaluate the effectiveness of any wildlife hazard management plan. Additionally, the strike should be reported to the FAA, According to AC 150/5200-32B, Reporting Wildlife Aircraft Strikes, a wildlife strike has occurred when:
1. A strike between wildlife and aircraft has been witnessed
2. Evidence or damage from a strike has been identified on an aircraft
3. Bird or other wildlife remains, whether in whole or in part, are found:
a. Within 250 feet of a runway centerline or within 1,000 feet of a runway
end unless reason for the animal's death is identified or suspected
b. On a taxiway or anywhere else on or off the airport that you have reason
to believe was the result of a strike with an aircraft. Examples might be:
i. A bird found in pieces from a prop strike on a taxiway
ii. A carcass retrieved within 1 mile of an airport on the final approach
or departure path after someone reported the bird falling out of the
sky and a report of a probable wildlife strike
4. The presence of birds or other wildlife on or off the airport had a significant negative effect on a flight (i.e., aborted takeoff, aborted landing, high-speed emergency stop, or the aircraft left the pavement area to avoid collision with wildlife)
242
To provide guidance to airport operators in reporting airport conditions, ____, ____ was developed.
AC 150/5200-28, Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs) for Airport Operators
243
The NOTAM system is not intended to be used to ____ on airport access for the purpose of controlling or managing noise, or to advertise ____.
Impose restrictions; data already published or charted
244
Airports certification under 14 CFR Part 139 and federally obligated airports have requirements for maintaining records. As part of this requirement, airport operators must maintain a log of ____ they originate, modify, or cancel, so they are aware of how the airport is always represented to the aviation public.
NOTAMs
245
NOTAM stands for ____.
Notices to Air Missions (revised in 2021 from Airmen to Air Missions)
246
A NOTAM should be issued, making known as soon as practical, any condition, existing or anticipated, within ____ from the airport reference point that will ____, ____, or ____ a hazard during the arrival or departure of aircraft.
5 miles; prevent, restrict, or present a hazard
247
Using authorized airport personnel will help expedite NOTAM processing because information obtained from unauthorized personnel will have to be ____ and ____ by the FSS before a NOTAM will be issued.
Confirmed and authenticated
248
The possible elements of a NOTAM sentence, in order of appearance are:
1. Keyword
2. Attribute
3. Surface Segment
4. Facility or Service
5. Location
6. Lower Limit
7. Upper Limit
8. Condition
9. Reason
10. Remarks
11. Schedule
12. Start of Activity
13. End of Validity
249
The mandatory elements in a NOTAM are:
1. Keyword
2. Attribute
3. Condition
4. Start of Activity
5. End of Validity
250
When disseminating airport condition information the three methods available to airport operators are:
1. NOTAM Manager (preferred method)
2. ENII System
3. NOTAM issued via telephone
251
____ NOTAM is used for routine maintenance events such as mowing, snow removal operations, and various types of short-term infrastructure maintenance and repairs.
Work in Progress (WIP)
252
____ NOTAM is required when ARFF equipment is inoperative or unavailable and replacement equipment is not available The airport operator has ____ hours to replace or substitute equipment before the index changes.
Certificated Airport Aircraft Rescue and Fire Fighting; 48 hours
253
Used to describe a temporary or hazard associated with a taxiway, taxiway lighting, markings, helipads, signage, and other attributes associated with a specific taxiway.
TWY (Taxiway) NOTAM
254
Used to describe a temporary change or hazard caused by a moored balloon, kite, tower, crane, stack, obstruction, obstruction lighting outage, obstruction status, telecommunication tower light outage.
OBST (Obstructions, including obstruction lighting outages) NOTAM
255
Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated with an apron, ramp or taxi lane, lighting, markings, helipad, signage and other attributes associated with a specific apron.
APRON NOTAM
256
Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated with landing and takeoff surfaces to include runway lighting, signage, and other airport services or attributes associated with a specific runway.
RWY (Runway) NOTAM
257
Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated with change in service levels, such as operating hours, air traffic management services, or airport services.
SVC (Services) NOTAM
258
Used to describe a temporary change or hazard associated caused by changes in the status of ground-based radio navigational aids and Global Navigation Satellite Systems (GNSS) (except for area navigation (RNAV) approach anomalies).
NAV (Navigation Aids) NOTAM
(*NOTE* Airport Operators may not have rights to submit NOTAMS using this keyword)
259
Used to describe a temporary change or hazard or potential hazard on or within 5 statue miles of an airport, heliport, or maneuvering areas that is not associated with a specific movement area surface. Such hazards may include aerodrome closures, lighting not associated with a specific movement area surface, aerodrome services (fuel, customs, ARFF), helicopter platforms, wildlife hazards, and meteorological equipment (wind indicators) or services.
AD (Aerodrome) NOTAM
(*NOTE* When using AD, ensure it is accompanied by the acronym for Airport (AP) if a complete aerodrome closure is implied)
260
Used to describe a temporary change or hazard caused by communication outlet commissioning, decommissioning, outage, unavailability, and air-to-ground frequencies.
COM (Communications) NOTAM
(*NOTE* Airport Operators may not have rights to submit NOTAMS using this keyword)
261
____ NOTAM is submitted for conditions considered to be hazardous or potentially hazardous to the aircraft operator, such as reporting damage or inoperability of the EMAS installed at the airports.
Engineered Materials Arresting System (EMAS)
262
AC ____ applies mostly to airports during construction.
AC 150/5370-2, Operational Safety on Airports During Construction
263
AC 150-5370-2, Operational Safety on Airports During Construction, is mandatory for those airport construction projects receiving funds under ____.
Airport Improvement Program (AIP)
264
If the FAA requires a Safety Risk Assessment, the airport operator must at a minimum:
1. Notify the appropriate FAA Airports Regional or District Office during the project "scope development" phase of any project requiring a CSPP.
2. Provide documents identified by the FAA as necessary to conduct SRM.
3. Participate in the SRM process for airport projects.
4. Provide a representative to participate on the SRM panel.
5. Ensure that all applicable SRM identified risks elements are recorded and mitigated within the CSPP.
265
For responsibility pertaining to construction activities on the airport, the airport operator must:
1. Develop a Construction Safety and Phasing Plan (CSPP)
2. Require, review and approve the Safety Plan Compliance Document (SPCD) by the contractor that indicates how it will comply with the CSPP and provide details that cannot be determined before contract award.
3. Convene a pre-construction meeting with the construction contractor, consultant, airport employees and, if appropriate, tenant sponsor and other tenants to review and discuss project safety before beginning construction activity.
4. Ensure contact information is accurate for each representative or point of contact identified in the CSPP and SPCD.
5. Hold weekly or, if necessary, daily safety meetings with all affected parties to coordinate activities.
6. Notify users, especially ARFF personnel, and FAA ATO personnel of construction and conditions that may adversely affect the operational safety of the airport via Notices to Air Missions (NOTAM) and other methods, as appropriate. Convene a meeting for review and discussion if necessary.
7. Ensure construction personnel know applicable airport procedures and changes to those procedures that may affect their work.
8. Ensure that all temporary construction signs are located per the scheduled list for each phase of the project.
9. Ensure construction contractors and subcontractors undergo training required by the CSPP and SPCD.
10. Ensure vehicle and pedestrian operations addressed in the CSPP and SPCD are coordinated with airport tenants, the airport traffic control tower (ATCT), and construction contractors.
11. At certificated airports, ensure each CSPP and SPCD is consistent with Part 139.
12. Conduct inspections sufficiently frequently to ensure construction contractors and tenants comply with the CSPP and SPCD and that there are no altered construction activities that could create potential safety hazards.
13. Take immediate action to resolve safety deficiencies.
14. At airport subject to 49 CFR Part 1542, Airport Security, ensure construction access complies with the security requirements of that regulation.
15. Notify appropriate parties when conditions exists that invoke provisions of the CSPP and SPCD (for example, implementation of low-visibility operations)
16. Ensure prompt submittal of a Notice of Proposed Construction or Alteration (Form 7460-1) for conducting an aeronautical study of potential obstructions such as tall equipment (cranes, concrete pumps, other), stock piles, and haul routes. A separate form may be filled for each potential obstruction, or one form may be filed describing the entire construction area and maximum equipment height. In the latter case, a separate form must be filed for any object beyond or higher than the originally evaluated area or original height.
17. Ensure prompt transmission of the Airport Sponsor Strategic Event Submission, FAA Form 6000-26, to assure proper coordination for NAS Strategic Interruption per Service Level Agreement with ATO.
18. Promptly notify the FAA Airports Regional or District Office of any proposed changes to the CSPP prior to implementation of the change. Changes to the CSPP require review and approval by the airport operator and the FAA.
266
According to the AC, the construction contractor is responsible for complying with the CSPP and SPCD. The contractor must:
1. Submit a Safety Plan Compliance Document (SPCD) to the airport operator describing how it will comply with the requirements of the CSPP and supply any details that could not be determined before contract award.
2. Have available at all times copies of the CSPP and SPCD for reference by the airport operator and its representatives, and by subcontractors and contractor employees.
3. Ensure that construction personnel are familiar with safety protocol and regulations on the airport. Provide a point of contact who will coordinate an immediate response to correct any construction-related activity that may adversely affect the operational safety of the airport. Many projects will require 24-hour coverage.
4. Identify in the SPCD the contractor's on-site employees responsible for monitoring compliance with the CSPP and SPCD during construction. At least one of these employees must be on-site when active construction is taking place.
5. Conduct sufficient inspections to ensure construction personnel comply with CSPP and SPCD and that there are no altered construction activities that could create potential safety hazards.
6. Restrict movements of construction vehicles and personnel permitted construction areas by flagging, barricading, erecting temporary fencing, or providing escorts, as appropriate, and as specified in the CSPP and SPCD.
7. Ensure that no contractor employees, employees of subcontractors or suppliers, or other persons enter any part of the air operations area (AOA) from the construction site unless authorized.
8. Ensure prompt submittal through the airport operator of Form 7460-1 for the purpose of conducting an aeronautical study of contractor equipment such as tall equipment (cranes, concrete pumps, and other equipment), stock piles, and haul routes when different from cases previously filed by the airport operator.
9. Ensure that all necessary safety mitigations are understood by all parties involved, and any special requirements of each construction phase will be fulfilled per the approved timeframe.
10. Participate in pre-construction meetings to review construction limits, safety mitigations, NOTAMs, and understand all special airport operational needs during each phase of the project.
267
According to the AC, if a tenant such as airline operators, fixed base operators, or FAA ATO/Technical Operations are sponsoring construction then they are strongly encouraged to:
1. Develop, or have a consultant develop, a project specific CSPP and submit it to the airport operator. The airport operator may forgo a complete CSPP submittal and instead incorporate appropriate operational safety principles and measures addressed in the advisory circular within their tenant lease agreements.
2. In coordination with its contractor, develop an SPCD and submit it to the airport operator for approval issued prior to issuance of a Notice to Proceed.
3. Ensure that construction personnel are familiar with safety procedures and regulations on the airport during all phases of the construction.
4. Provide a point of contact of who will coordinate an immediate response to correct any construction-related activity that may adversely affect the operational safety of the airport.
5. Identify in the SPCD the contractor's on-site employees responsible for monitoring compliance with the CSPP and SPCD during construction. At least one of these employees must be on-site when active construction is taking place.
6. Ensure that no tenant or contractor employees, employees of subcontractors or suppliers, or any other persons enter any part of the AOA from the construction site unless authorized.
7. Restrict movement of construction vehicles to construction areas by flagging and barricading, erecting temporary fencing, or providing escorts, as appropriate, as specified in the CSPP and SPCD.
8. Ensure prompt submittal through the airport operator of Form 7460-1 for conducting and aeronautical study of contractor equipment such as tall equipment (cranes, concrete pumps, other), stock piles, and haul routes.
9. Participate in pre-construction meetings to review construction limits, safety mitigations, NOTAMs, and understand all special airport operational needs during each phase of the project
268
Developed concurrently with project design, the CSPP should be formally submitted to the FAA when the project design is 80% to 90% complete, in advance of project commencement. The CSPP should address the following:
1. Coordination
a. Contractor progress meetings
b. Scope or schedule changes
c. FAA Air Traffic Organization (ATO) coordination
2. Phasing
a. Phase elements
b. Construction safety drawings
3. Areas and operations affected by construction activity
a. Identification of affected areas
b. Mitigation of effects
4. Protection of navigational aids (NAVAIDs)
5. Contractor access
a. Location of stockpiled construction materials
b. Vehicle and pedestrian operations
6. Wildlife management
a. Trash
b. Standing water
c. Tall grass and seeds
d. Poorly maintained fencing and gates
e. Disruption of existing wildlife habitat
7. Foreign object debris (FOD) management
8. Hazardous materials (HAZMAT) management
9. Notification of construction activities
a. Maintenance of list of responsible representatives or points
of contact
b. Notices to Airmen (NOTAM)
c. Emergency notification procedures
d. Coordination with ARFF personnel
e. Notification to the FAA
10. Inspection requirements
a. Daily (or more frequent) inspections
b. Final inspections
11. Underground utilities
12. Penalties
13. Special conditions
14. Runway and taxiway visual aids (Marking, lighting, signs, and visual NAVAIDs)
a. General
b. Markings
c. Lighting and visual NAVAIDs
d. Signs, temporary, including orange construction signs, and permanent signs
15. marking and signs for access routes
16. Hazard marking and lighting
a. Purpose
b. Equipment
17. Work zone lighting for nighttime construction (if applicable)
18. Protection of runway and taxiway safety areas, object free areas, obstacle free zones, and approach and departure surfaces
a. Runway Safety Area (RSA)
b. Runway Object Free Area (ROFA)
c. Taxiway Safety Area (TSA)
d. Taxiway Object Free Area (TOFA)
e. Obstacle Free Zone (OFZ)
f. Runway approach and departure surfaces
19. Other limitations on construction
a. Prohibitions
b. Restrictions
269
The SPCD, rather than duplicating information contained in the CSPP, should address the following:
1. Coordination. Discuss details of proposed safety meetings with the airport operator and with the contractor employees and subcontractors
2. Phasing. Discuss proposed construction schedule elements, including:
a. Duration of each phase
b. Daily start and finish of construction, including "night only" construction
c. Duration of construction activities during:
i. Normal runway operations
ii. Closed runway operations
iii. Modified runway "Aircraft reference code" usage
3. Areas and operations affected by the construction activity. These areas and operations should be identified in the CSPP and should not require an entry in the SPCD.
4. Protection of NAVAIDs. Discuss specific methods proposed to protect operating NAVAIDs
5. Contractor access. Provide the following:
a. Details on how the contractor will maintain the integrity of the airport security fence
b. Listing of individuals requiring driver training (for certificated airports and as requested)
c. Radio communications.
i. Types of radios and backup capabilities
ii. Who will be monitoring radios
iii. Who to contact if the ATCT cannot reach the contractor's
designated person by radio
d. Details on how the contractor will escort material delivery
vehicles
6. Wildlife management. Discuss the following:
a. Methods and procedures to prevent wildlife attraction
b. Wildlife reporting procedures
7. Foreign Object Debris (FOD) management. Discuss equipment and methods for control of FOD, including construction debris and dust
8. Hazardous Materials (HAZMAT) management. Discuss equipment and methods for responding to hazardous spills
9. Notification of construction activities. Provide the following:
a. Contractor points of contact
b. Contractor emergency contact
c. Listing of tall or other requested equipment proposed for use
on the airport and the timeframe for submitting 7460-1 forms
not previously submitted by the airport operator
d. Batch plant details, including 7460-1 submittal
10. Inspection requirements. Discuss daily (or more frequently) inspections and special inspection procedures
11. Underground utilities. Discuss proposed methods of identifying and protecting underground utilities
12. Penalties. Penalties should be identified in the CSPP and should not require and entry in the SPCD
13. Special conditions. Discuss proposed actions for each special condition identified in the CSPP
14. Runway and taxiway visual aids. Including marking, lighting, signs, and visual NAVAIDs. Discuss proposed visual aids including the following:
a. Equipment and methods for covering signage and airfield lights
b. Equipment and methods for temporary closure markings (paint, fabric, other)
c. Temporary orange construction signs
d. Types of temporary Visual Guidance Slope Indicators (VGSI)
15. Marking and signs for access routes. Discuss proposed methods of demarcating access routes for vehicle drivers
16. Hazard marking and lighting. Discuss proposed equipment and methods for identifying excavation areas.
17. Work zone lighting for nighttime construction (if applicable). discuss proposed equipment, locations, aiming, and shielding to prevent interference with air traffic control and aircraft operations
18. Protection of runway and taxiway safety areas, object free areas, obstacle free zones, and approach or departure surfaces. discuss proposed methods of identifying, demarcating, and protecting airport surfaces including:
a. Equipment and methods for maintaining Taxiway Safety Areas standards
b. Equipment and methods to ensure the safe passage of aircraft where Taxiway Safe Area or Taxiway Object Free Area standards cannot be maintained
c. Equipment and methods for separation of construction operations from aircraft operations, including details of barricades
19. Other limitations on construction should be identified in the CSPP and should not require an entry in the SPCD
270
Runways and taxiways should remain in use by aircraft to the maximum extent possible without compromising safety. Pre-meetings with the FAA ATO will support operational simulations and identify areas and operations affected by the construction which helps to determine possible safety problems. The affected areas should be identified in the construction safety drawings for each construction phase. Areas of particular concern are:
1. Closing, or Partial Closing, of Runways, Taxiways and Aprons, and Displaced Thresholds
2. Partially Closed Runways
3. Displaced Threshold
4. Closing of aircraft rescue and firefighting access routes
5. Closing of access routes used by airport and airline support vehicles
6. Interruption of utilities, including water supplies for firefighting
7. Approach or departure surfaces affected by heights of objects
8. Construction areas, storage areas, and access routes near runways, taxiways, aprons, or helipads
271
Establishment of specific procedures is necessary to maintain the safety and efficiency of airport operations. The CSPP must address:
1. Temporary changes to runway or taxi operations
2. Detours for ARFF and other airport vehicles
3. Maintenance of essential utilities
4. Temporary changes to air traffic control procedures. Such changes must be coordinated with the ATO
272
The CSPP must detail the areas to which the contractor must have access and explain how contractor personnel will access those areas. The CSPP must specifically address:
1. Location of stockpiled Construction Materials
a. Stockpiled materials and equipment storage are not
permitted within the RSA and OFZ, and if possible, should not
be permitted within the Object Free Area (OFA) of an
operational runway
2. Vehicle and Pedestrian Operations
a. The CSPP should include specific vehicle and pedestrian
requirements. Vehicles and pedestrians access routes for
airport construction projects must be controlled to prevent
inadvertent or unauthorized entry of persons, vehicles, or
animals onto the AOA. The airport operator should
coordinate requirements for vehicle operations with airport
tenants, contractors, and the FAA air traffic manager. In
regard to vehicle and pedestrian operations, the CSPP
should include the following, with associated training
requirements:
i. Construction Site Parking
ii. Construction Equipment Parking
iii. Access and Haul Roads
iv. Marking and lighting of vehicles in accordance with
AC 150/5210-5, Painting, Marking, and Lighting of
vehicles used on an airport
v. Description of proper vehicle operations on various
areas under normal, lost communications, and
emergency conditions
vi. Required escorts
273
Maintenance of the secured area of the airport during construction includes:
1. Fencing and Gates
a. Airport operators and contractors must take care to maintain
security during construction when access points are created
in the security fencing to permit the passage of construction
vehicles or personnel
2. Badging Requirements
a. Airports subject to 49 CFR Part 1542, Airport Security, must
meet standards for access control, movement of ground
vehicles, and identification of construction contractor and
tenant personnel
274
Contractor personnel must be aware of and avoid construction activities that can create wildlife hazards on airports, such as:
1. Trash
2. Food scraps must be collected from construction personnel
3. Standing water
4. Tall grass and seeds
5. Requirements for turf establishment can be at odds with
requirements for wildlife control
6. Poorly maintained fencing and gates
7. Disruption of existing wildlife habitat
8. While this will frequently be unavoidable due to the nature of the project, the CSPP should specify under what circumstances (location, wildlife type) contractor personnel should immediately notify the airport operator of wildlife sightings
275
Construction contractors must not leave or place ____ on or near active aircraft movement areas.
FOD
276
Contractors operating construction vehicles and equipment on the airport must be prepared to expeditiously ____ and ____ spills resulting from fuel or hydraulic fluid leaks.
Contain; Clean-up
277
The CSPP and SPCD must detail procedures for the immediate notification of airport users and the FAA of any conditions adversely affecting the operational safety of the airport. It must address the notification actions described below:
1. List of Responsible Representatives or points of contact for all involved parties, and procedures for contacting each of them, including after hours.
2. NOTAMs
3. Emergency notification procedures for medical, firefighting, and police response
4. Coordination with ARFF
278
The CSPP must detail procedures for coordinating through the airport sponsor with ARFF personnel, mutual aid providers, and other emergency services if construction requires:
1. The deactivation and subsequent reactivation of water lines or fire hydrants, or
2. The rerouting, blocking and restoration of emergency access routes, or
3. The use of hazardous materials on the airfield
279
Inspections should be conducted at least ____, but more frequently if necessary, to ensure conformance with the ____.
Daily; CSPP
280
The ____ or ____ must include procedures for locating and protecting existing underground utilities, cables, wires, pipelines, and other underground facilities in excavation areas.
CSPP; SPCD
281
The CSPP should detail ____ provisions for noncompliance with airport rules and regulations and the safety plans. I.E. (If a vehicle is involved in a runway incursion.)
Penalty
282
The CSPP must detail any ____ conditions that affect the operation of the airport and will require the activation of any special procedures and other activities requiring construction suspension or resumption. (Low- visibility, snow removal, aircraft accident, etc.)
Special
283
Airport operations personnel should understand the following three most recurring threats to safety during construction:
1. Safety area encroachments
2. Improper ground vehicle operations
3. Unmarked or uncovered holes and trenches in the vicinity of aircraft operating surfaces
284
Requirements for identifying, marking, and lighting construction and other unserviceable areas are to be in a manner authorized by the Administrator, and each certificate holder must:
1. Mark and, if appropriate, light in a manner authorized by the Administration
i. Each construction area and unserviceable area that is on or
adjacent to any movement area or any other area of the
airport on which air carrier aircraft may be operated
ii. Each item of construction equipment and each construction roadway, which may affect the safe movement of aircraft on the airport; and
iii. Any area adjacent to a NAVAID that, if traversed, could cause derogation of the signal or the failure of the NAVAID; and
2. Provide procedures, such as a review of all appropriate utility plans prior to construction, for avoiding damage to existing utilities, cables, wires, conduits, pipelines, or other underground facilities.
285
With regards to noncomplying conditions, in addition to reporting airport conditions, if conditions cannot be corrected, Part 139.343 requires preventing ____ operations in the affected areas.
Air Carrier
286
Part 139.343 means, for instance, that if proper clearance or restrictions cannot be maintained while construction or maintenance activity is underway, then at a minimum, appropriate action should be taken to:
1. Close runways, taxiways, or aprons
2. Relocate or displace thresholds temporarily
3. Perform work at night or during periods of minimal aircraft activity
4. Close affected areas to certain types of aircraft
5. Restrict aircraft use by weight, wingspan, approach speed, or other characteristics
6. Shut down or restrict use of navigational or approach aids
AAAE ACE Airfield Operations
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