PHAR 100 > Module 4 > Flashcards

Module 4 Flashcards

(45 cards)

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1
Q

What are narrow spectrum antibiotics effective against?

A
  • Specific species of microorganisms
  • Limited types of bacteria

Example: Penicillin G is primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria.

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2
Q

What is an example of a narrow spectrum antibiotic?

A

Penicillin G

Used in treating infections like pneumonia and syphilis.

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3
Q

When are narrow spectrum antibiotics preferred?

A

When the specific pathogen is known

Minimizes disruption to normal flora.

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4
Q

What do broad spectrum antibiotics target?

A
  • A wide range of bacteria
  • Both Gram-positive and Gram-negative

Example: Tetracyclines are commonly used for various infections.

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5
Q

When are broad spectrum antibiotics often used?

A

Empirically when the causative organism is unknown

Can lead to antibiotic resistance.

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6
Q

How can antibiotics be classified based on their biochemical pathways?

A
  • Cell Wall Synthesis Inhibitors
  • DNA Synthesis Inhibitors
  • Protein Synthesis Inhibitors
  • Metabolic Inhibitors

This classification helps in understanding mechanisms of action.

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7
Q

What are the key antibiotic classes mentioned?

A
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Tetracyclines
  • Macrolides
  • Antifolates

Understanding the mechanism of action is crucial for selecting appropriate antibiotics.

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8
Q

What does trimethoprim inhibit?

A

Folate metabolism

Blocks PABA incorporation into dihydropteroic acid.

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9
Q

What do fluoroquinolones inhibit?

A

Bacterial DNA synthesis

Effective against a wide range of bacteria.

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracycline?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit

Prevents amino acid addition.

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11
Q

What do macrolides inhibit?

A

Protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit

Blocks peptide bond formation.

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12
Q

What do penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit?

A

Cell wall formation by blocking transpeptidase

Crucial for bacterial integrity.

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13
Q

What is a common side effect of penicillin?

A
  • Gastrointestinal distress
  • Allergic reactions

Reactions can range from rashes to anaphylactic shock.

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14
Q

What are cephalosporins generally more resistant to?

A

Penicillinase

They are classified into five generations based on their spectrum of activity.

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15
Q

What do fluoroquinolones target in their mechanism of action?

A

Bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV

Critical for DNA replication.

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16
Q

What do tetracyclines potentially cause in children?

A

Discoloration of teeth

Caution is advised when prescribing to pregnant women and children under 12.

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17
Q

What do sulfonamides inhibit?

A

Folate metabolism

Crucial for DNA synthesis.

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18
Q

What is the combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim known as?

A

Co-trimoxazole

Enhances antibacterial effects by targeting sequential steps in folate metabolism.

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19
Q

What is a potential drawback of combination therapy?

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A
  • Increased costs
  • Higher risk of toxicity
  • Fostering antibiotic resistance

Overuse can disrupt normal bacterial flora.

20
Q

What is a major global health threat identified by the WHO?

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A

Antimicrobial resistance

Projected deaths due to resistance could surpass those from cancer by 2050.

21
Q

What are some mechanisms of resistance bacteria can develop?

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A
  • Uptake mechanism
  • Target modification
  • Inactivation
  • Efflux pumps

These mechanisms help bacteria evade the effects of antibiotics.

22
Q

What do echinocandins inhibit?

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A

Synthesis of glucan in the fungal cell wall

Leads to cell lysis and death.

23
Q

What do imidzoles disrupt?

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A

Ergosterol synthesis

Vital for fungal cell membrane integrity.

24
Q

What is the role of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)?

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A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

Prevents the release of new viral particles.

25
What is the difference between **vaccines** and **antivirals**?
* Vaccines: Preventive * Antivirals: Treat existing infections ## Footnote Timing of administration is key.
26
What does **bacteriostatic** mean?
Agents that inhibit bacterial growth ## Footnote Allows the immune system to eliminate pathogens.
27
What does **bactericidal** refer to?
Agents that kill bacteria directly ## Footnote Often used in severe infections.
28
What is **cell lysis**?
The process where the bacterial cell membrane breaks down ## Footnote Leads to cell death.
29
What is **meningitis**?
A serious infection characterized by inflammation of protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord ## Footnote Often treated with specific antibiotics.
30
What is the mechanism of action of **co-trimoxazole**?
Inhibits bacterial folic acid synthesis ## Footnote Works synergistically to enhance effectiveness.
31
What are the **mechanisms of action** of hormonal contraceptives?
* Prevent ovulation * Alter cervical mucus * Modify the endometrium ## Footnote Understanding these mechanisms is crucial for healthcare providers to counsel patients effectively on contraceptive options.
32
Name the **types of hormonal contraceptives**.
* Oral Contraceptives * Injectable Contraceptives * IUDs * Transdermal Patches ## Footnote Each type has unique mechanisms of action, dosing schedules, and side effect profiles.
33
What are **fixed combination pills**?
* Taken for 28 days * No drug-free periods * Eliminates menstruation during therapy ## Footnote This regimen is particularly beneficial for individuals with problematic menstruation.
34
What do **multiphasic pills** contain?
* Fixed amount of estrogen * Varying amounts of progestin ## Footnote This approach minimizes hormone dosage and reduces adverse events compared to fixed-dose combinations.
35
What are the **characteristics of progestin-only pills**?
* Known as the mini-pill * Low daily dose of progestin * Taken continuously ## Footnote They are less effective than combination pills and often lead to breakthrough bleeding.
36
What is the **efficacy** of estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives with perfect use?
99.7% ## Footnote With typical use, the efficacy drops to 92%.
37
What are the **pros** of hormonal contraceptives?
* Non-invasive * Self-administered * Cost-effective (oral) ## Footnote These advantages make hormonal contraceptives a popular choice.
38
What are some **mild adverse effects** of combination oral contraceptives?
* Nausea * Edema * Headaches ## Footnote Nausea typically resolves after one or two cycles.
39
What are the **serious adverse effects** of combination oral contraceptives?
* Blood clots * Heart attack * Stroke * Hypertension ## Footnote These risks are particularly heightened in women over 35 or those who smoke.
40
What are the **non-contraceptive benefits** of oral contraceptives?
* Reduce risk of ovarian cysts * Decrease incidence of ectopic pregnancies * Lessen iron deficiency anemia ## Footnote These benefits are due to reduced menstrual flow.
41
What is the **mechanism of action** of the transdermal contraceptive patch?
* Delivers estrogen and progestin through the skin ## Footnote It requires three patches per cycle and has a similar mechanism to combined oral contraceptives.
42
What are the **characteristics of depot injections**?
* Progestin-only * Administered intramuscularly every three months ## Footnote They provide long-term contraception with similar adverse effects to the mini-pill.
43
What is the **historical context** of male contraceptive research?
* Focused on female-bodied individuals * Recent focus on male contraceptives ## Footnote Research has faced challenges in achieving effective inhibition of spermatogenesis.
44
What hormone stimulates the release of FSH and LH in **spermatogenesis**?
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) ## Footnote These hormones are crucial for sperm production and testosterone synthesis.
45
What are potential **male contraceptive methods**?
* Androgen-Based * Estrogens * Progestin and Androgen Combination ## Footnote Each method has different effects on sperm count and secondary sex characteristics.
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