More Old MCQS Flashcards

(140 cards)

1
Q

what effect does increased ATP have on insulin secretion?

A

increases it

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2
Q

can peptide bonds involving proline residues act as hydrogen bond acceptors?

A

yes

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3
Q

is formation of a peptide bond exergonic or endergonic?

A

endergonic

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4
Q

what gives the C-N bond in peptide bond double bond characteristics?

A

electrons from the N atom of the bond delocalising into the bond

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5
Q

what is normal BMI range?

A

18.5-25

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6
Q

what is normal blood glucose range when fasting?

A

3.9-5.5

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7
Q

what is normal blood glucose range when fed?

A

below 7.8

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8
Q

do allosteric enzymes display michaelis menten kinetics?

A

no

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9
Q

is insulin a glycoprotein?

A

no

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10
Q

what enzymes is allostery usually associated with?

A

multi-subunit

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11
Q

what effect does ATP have on PFK?

A

inhibits it

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12
Q

what effect does fructose 2,6-bisphosphate have on PFK-1?

A

activates it

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13
Q

what are the H bonds between in alpha helices?

A

residue i and residue i+4

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14
Q

what secondary structure are the haemoglobin subunits mainly composed of?

A

alpha helices

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15
Q

does lowering pH stabilise the deoxy form of haemoglobin?

A

yes

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16
Q

what level of 2,3- bisphosphoglycerate stabilises the oxy form of haemoglobin?

A

low

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17
Q

what causes sickle cell anaemia?

A

replacement of a glutamine residue with a valine in the beta subunit

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18
Q

which amino acid is acetylated in histones?

A

lysine

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19
Q

which amino acid can be transaminated to form oxaloacetate?

A

aspartate

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20
Q

what is standard molar free energy change equal to?

A

-RTlnKeq

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21
Q

what angles are alpha helices associated with?

A

dihedral

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22
Q

what is an enzyme that is inhibited by citrate and ATP?

A

PFK

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23
Q

what is an enzyme present in mitochondrial matrix that is inhibited by phosphorylation and activated by insulin?

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase

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24
Q

what is an enzyme in liver that is inhibited by glucagon and alanine?

A

pyruvate kinase

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25
is phosphorylation a covalent modification?
yes
26
what does penicillin inhibit?
glycopeptide transpeptidase
27
which type of diabetes are ketosis and acidosis more common in?
type 2
28
what is the Φ (Phi) bond between?
the N and the alpha C
29
what is the Ψ (Psi) bond between?
the alpha C and the carbonyl C
30
can gel filtration separate proteins in their native conformation?
yes
31
does gel filtration separate proteins according to their native charge to mass ratio?
no
32
does penicillin form a covalent bond with an essential amino acid residue in the active site of its target enzyme?
yes (serine)
33
does insulin contain intramolecular disulphide bonds?
yes
33
can calcium ions activate pyruvate oxidation in the CAC?
yes
34
what is an enzyme that catalyses phosphorylation of other enzymes?
PFK
34
what is an enzyme activated as a consequence of insulin-induced dephosphorylation?
glycogen synthase
35
what is an integral membrane protein whose inhibition leads to stimulation of insulin secretion?
atp-sensitive potassium channel
35
where does fatty acid biosynthesis occur?
cytoplasm
36
what circumvents the energy barrier between PEP and pyruvate?
oxaloacetate
37
which amino acid is associated with immune function?
vitamin A
38
what is the function of glycogen phosphorylase?
catalyses glycogen breakdown
39
what does fatty acid synthase do?
catalyses FA synthesis
40
what does isocitrate dehydrogenase do?
catalyses breakdown of isocitrate in the CAC
41
what does pyruvate dehydrogenase do?
catalyses conversion of pyruvate to acetyl coA
42
what does pyruvate kinase do?
catalyses last step of glycolysis
43
what does phosphofructokinase do?
catalyses fructose 6 P to fructose 1,6 bisP in glycolysis
44
does insulin have 2 subunits encoded by different genes?
no
45
is insulin a glycoprotein?
no
46
is insulin a phosphoprotein?
no
47
is insulin cleaved into 2 portions after secretion?
no
48
is allostery mainly associated with multi or single-subunit enzymes?
multi-subunit
49
what is the effect of ATP on PFK?
inhibits
50
what is the effect of F 2,6-bisp on PFK?
activator
51
what residues are the H bonds between in alpha helices?
residue i and i + 4
52
are all alpha helices amphipathic?
no
53
do the side chains in alpha helices project inwards or outwards?
outwards
54
what is the cause of sickle cell anaemia?
replacement of a Glu residue with a Val in the beta-subunit
55
is the oxy form of haemoglobin stabilised by binding to 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate?
no
56
what is the precursor of ketone bodies?
acetyl-CoA
57
what does Complex II require to oxidise succinate?
FAD
58
do uncouplers inhibit respiration?
no
59
would inhibitors of glucokinase be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?
no
60
would inhibitors of glycogen synthase be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?
no
61
would inhibitors of phosphoinositide kinases be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?
no
62
would inhibitors of phosphotyrosine kinases be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?
yes
63
would inhibitors of protein-tyrosine kinases be helpful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?
no
64
what is PKA composed of?
catalytic and regulatory subunits
65
what sort of protein is the glutamate kinate receptor?
a ligand-gated ion channel
66
what enzyme is activated as a result of insulin-induced dephosphorylation?
glycogen synthase
67
what is an integral membrane protein whose inhibition leads to stimulation of insulin secretion?
ATP-sensitive potassium channel
68
what is a substrate for cAMP synthesis?
ATP
69
what substrate is required for conversion of oxaloacetate to PEP?
GTP
70
what substrate is needed for the elongation of glycogen chains?
UDP-glucose
71
what type of compound might be useful in treatment of hyperglycaemia and diabetes?
inhibitors of phosphotyrosine phosphatases
72
what is PKA composed of?
catalytic and regulatory subunits
73
is glutamate kainate a ligand-gated ion channel?
yes
74
what substrate is responsible for the conversion of oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate?
GTP
75
what does insulin stimulate?
glycogenesis, lipogenesis, protein synthesis
76
what residues are cell surface oligosaccharides attached to?
serine, threonine, lysine, arginine
77
what do Asn, Gln and Ser all have in common?
all polar
78
what doe Leu, Ile and Val all have in common?
all branch chain hydrocarbons
79
what does Trp, Tyr and Phe all have in common?
aromatic
80
what do Tyr, Ser and Thr all have in common?
all hydroxyl groups
81
what is the affinity for the substrate of an enzyme with a high Km?
low
82
what is Kcat?
the turnover number of an enzyme
83
what are Leu zipper domains made of?
2 helices that each bind to a DNA major groove
84
what do PTB and SH2 domains both bind to?
phosphorylated tyrosines
85
what does the PH domain bind to?
inositol phospholipids for membrane recruitment
86
what inhibits the Raf catalytic domain?
the N-terminus of the Raf protein
87
what does phage display involve?
using a phage particle expressing the antigen to screen antibodies
88
what is the role of the neonatal Fc receptor?
prevents degradation of IgG
89
what does isocitrate dehydrogenase do?
catalyses the decarboxylation of isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate.
90
which has a higher Km for glucose, glucokinase or hexokinase?
glucokinase
91
which type of reaction involving DNA polymerase will be most error-prone?
DNA repair
92
which regions of the human genome is the TTAGGG repeat associated with?
telomeres
93
is the Pribnow box an important determinant of the transcription start site? (this is the true answer)
yes
94
which amino acids forms an isopeptide bond with ubiquitin C-terminus?
lysine
95
which structure is essential for the degradation of long-lived proteins?
lysosome
96
what do the chromosomal translocations characteristic of non-AIDS Burkitt's lymphoma involve?
the c-Myc gene
97
what proteins does the APC/C CDH1 degrade to regulate Mcm2-7 helicase loading?
geminin
98
what does Ribociclib target?
CDK4/CDK6
99
is caspase activation needed for cell death induced by MOMP?
no
100
how is MOMP regulated?
by the balance between pro- and anti-apoptotic members of the Bcl-2 family
101
where do caspases cleave?
after Asp residues
102
cofactor used by succinate dehydrogenase?
FAD+
103
allosteric inhibitor of PFK-1?
citrate and ATP
104
cofactor of the E1 component of the PDH complex?
thiamine pyrophosphate
105
what liberates iron from Fe-S clusters?
superoxide dismutase
106
what accepts electrons from complex 1?
ubiquinone
107
what accepts electrons from conversion of succinate to fumarate?
succinate dehydrogenase subunit A
108
what mediates recovery from receptor activated intracellular signaling?
Ca2+ pump and cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase
109
what activates protein kinase C?
DAG
110
what is the chain-terminating nucleotide used in Sanger sequencing?
dideoxynucleotide (ddNTP)
111
what is a type of DNA damage that can be directly reversed by a photolyase enzyme?
thymidine dimer
112
what is a modified base commonly found in bacteria that protects the DNA from restriction enzyme cleavage?
N6-methyladenine
113
what is an enzyme with reverse transcriptase activity?
telomerase
114
enzyme that resolves intertwined DNA molecules at converged replication forks in replication termination?
topoisomerase II
115
enzyme that initiates DNA synthesis in bacterial replication?
DnaG primase
116
example of a non-receptor tyrosine kinase?
SRC
117
example of a small protein that hydrolyses GTP?
Ras
118
endogenous mutational process that causes SNV mutations?
spontaneous deamination
119
cluster of defined alleles inherited together?
haplotype
120
type of genomic variation associated with trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders?
indel variant
121
enzyme regulating centrosome duplication?
cyclin E/Cdk2
122
protein component of the mitotic spindle?
tubulin
123
enzyme required to remove sister chromatid cohesion?
separase
124
nuclear volumes occupied by interphase chromosomes?
chromosome compartments
125
self-interacting chromosome regions?
topologically-associating domains
126
main microtubule organising centre?
centrosome
127
complex required to attach chromatids to the mitotic spindle?
kinetochore
128
kinase complex with activity required for entry into mitosis?
Cdk1/Cdh1
129
protein frequently activated in pancreatic carcinoma
KRAS
130
what is necessary for GWAS to work but hampers identification of causal variants?
linkage disequilibrium
131
protein that degrades cAMP?
phosphodiesterase
132
enzyme that phosphorylates PET tracer FDG to metabolically trap it?
hexokinase
133
molecule that is imaging agent used for dissolution dynamic nuclear polarisation?
[1-13C]p pyruvate
134
what does pyroptosis require?
Gasdermin D, caspase 1
135
how do replicative helicases unwind DNA?
by steric exclusion
136
how are the alpha-helices forming a Greek key motif held together laterally?
by main-chain H bonding
137
what drives DNA replication?
hydrolysis of the bond between the alpha and beta phosphates of the deoxy nucleotide triphosphates