MSTC 6 Flashcards

(74 cards)

1
Q

Workability of concrete can be measured using slump, compaction factor and Vebe time.
Consider the following statements for workability of concrete:
(i) As the slump increases, the Vebe time increases.
(ii) As the slump increases, the compaction factor increases.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Both (i) and (ii) are True
b. Both (i) and (ii) are False
c. (i) is True and (ii) is False
d. (i) is False and (ii) is True

A

d

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2
Q

Consider the following statements for air-entrained concrete:
(i) Air-entrainment reduces the water demand for a given level of workability.
(ii) Use of air-entrained concrete is required in environments where cyclic freezing and thawing is expected.
Which of the following is TRUE?
a. Both (i) and (ii) are True
b. Both (i) and (ii) are False
c. (i) is True and (ii) is False
d. (i) is False and (ii) is True

A

a

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3
Q

Group I contains some properties of concrete/cement and Group II contains list of some tests on concrete/cement. Match the property with the corresponding test.

Group I
P. Workability of concrete
Q. Direct tensile strength of concrete
R. Bond between concrete and steel
S. Fineness of cement

Group II
1. Cylinder splitting test
2. Vee-Bee test
3. Surface area test
4. Fineness modulus test
5. Pull out test

a. P: 2; Q: 1; R: 5; S: 3
b. P: 2; Q: 5; R: 1; S: 3
c. P: 2; Q: 1; R: 5; S: 4
d. P: 2; Q: 5; R: 1; S: 4

A

a

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4
Q

The cylinder strength of the concrete is less than the cube strength because of
a. the difference in the shape of the cross section of the specimens
b. the difference in the slenderness ratio of the specimens
c. the friction between the concrete specimens and the steel plate of the testing machine
d. the cubes are tested without capping but the cylinders are tested with capping.

A

b

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5
Q

The modulus of rupture of concrete gives
a. the direct tensile strength of the concrete
b. the direct compressive strength of the concrete
c. the tensile strength of the concrete under bending
d. the characteristic strength of the concrete

A

c

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6
Q

[CONTAINS GRAPH] Group I contains representative stress-strain curves as shown in the figure, while Group II gives the list of materials. Match the stress-strain curves with the corresponding materials.

Group I
P. Curve J
Q. Curve K
R. Curve L

Group II
1. Cement paste
2. Coarse aggregate
3. Concrete

a. P: 1; Q: 3; R: 2
b. P: 2; Q: 3; R: 1
c. P: 3; Q: 1; R: 2
d. P: 3; Q: 2; R: 1

A

b

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7
Q

Maximum possible value of compacting factor for fresh (green) concrete is
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 1.5
d. 2.0

A

b

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8
Q

The creep strains are
a. caused due to dead loads only
b. caused due to live loads only
c. caused due to cyclic loads only
d. independent of loads.

A

a

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9
Q

Consider a reinforcing bar embedded in concrete.

In a marine environment this bar undergoes uniform corrosion which leads to the deposition of corrosion products on its surface and an increase in the apparent volume of the bar. This subjects the surrounding concrete to expansive pressure.
As a result, corrosion induced cracks appear at the surface of concrete. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a. Corrosion causes circumferential tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be parallel to the corroded reinforcing bar.
b. Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be parallel to the corroded reinforcing bar.
c. Corrosion causes circumferential tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be perpendicular to the direction of the corroded reinforcing bar.
d. Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses in concrete and the cracks will be perpendicular to the direction of the corroded reinforcing bar

A

c

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10
Q

The modulus of rupture of concrete in terms of its characteristic cube compressive strength (fck) in MPa according to IS 456:2000 is

a. 5000 fck
b. 0.7 fck
c. 5000 √fck
d. 0.7 √fck

A

d

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11
Q

[APR 2025]
Column I gives a list of test methods for evaluation properties of concrete and Column II gives the list of properties

Column I
P. Resonant frequency test
Q. Rebound hammer test
R. Split cylinder test
S. Compacting factor test

Column II
1. Tensile strength
2. Dynamic modulus of elasticity
3. Workability
4. Compressive strength

The correct match of the test with the property is:
a. P: 2; Q: 4; R: 1; S: 3
b. P: 2; Q: 1; R: 4; S: 3
c. P: 2; Q: 4; R: 3; S: 1
d. P: 4; Q: 3; R: 1; S: 2

A

a

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12
Q

Consider the following statements:
I. The compressive strength of concrete decreases with increase in water-cement ratio of the concrete mix.
II. Water is added to the concrete mix for hydration of cement and workability.
III. Creep and shrinkage of concrete are independent of the water-cement ratio in the concrete mix.

The true statements are
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. II and III
d. Only II

A

a

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13
Q

Consider the following statements:
I. Modulus of elasticity of concrete increases with increase in compressive strength of concrete.
II. Brittleness of concrete increases with decrease in compressive strength of concrete.
III. Shear strength of concrete increases with increase in compressive strength of concrete.

The TRUE statements are
a. II and III
b. I, II and III
c. I and II
d. I and III

A

b

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14
Q

[APR 2024]
If the characteristic strength of concrete fck is defined as the strength below which not more than 50% of the test results are expected to fall, the expression for fck in terms of mean strength fm and standard deviation S would be
a. fm – 0.1645S
b. fm – 1.645S
c. fm – 1.65S
d. fm + 1.645S

A

c

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15
Q

In a random sampling procedure for cube strength of concrete, one sample consists of X number of specimens. These specimens are tested at 28 days and average strength of these X specimens is considered as test result of the sample, provided the individual variation in the strength of specimens is not more than ±Y percent of the average strength.

The values of X and Y as per IS : 456-2000 are
a. 4 and 10 respectively
b. 3 and 10 respectively
c. 4 and 15 respectively
d. 3 and 15 respectively

A

d

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16
Q

[CONTAINS GRAPH] The stress-strain diagram for two materials A and B is shown below:

(Graph with Material A more steep and brittle, Material B more ductile)

The following statements are made based on this diagram:
I. Material A is more brittle than material B.
II. The ultimate strength of material B is more than that of A.

With reference to the above statements, which of the following applies?
a. Both the statements are false.
b. Both the statements are true.
c. I is true but II is false.
d. I is false but II is true.

A

c

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17
Q

The characteristic strength of concrete is defined as that compressive strength below which not more than
a. 10% of result fall
b. 5% of result fall
c. 2% of result fall
d. None of these

A

b

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18
Q

Which one of the following is categorized as a long-term loss of prestress in a prestressed concrete member?
a. Loss due to elastic shortening
b. Loss due to friction
c. Loss due to relaxation of strands
d. Loss due to anchorage slip

A

c

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19
Q

Transition curves are provided on the approach to horizontal curves in order to
a. increase jerk to allowable levels
b. minimize the length of the horizontal curve
c. simplify the laying out and construction of the curve
d. reduce jerk to allowable levels

A

d

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20
Q

On sag (or valley) curves the available sight distance is determined based on
a. design speed
b. height of obstacle
c. height of driver eye
d. night time driving conditions

A

d

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21
Q

Maximum allowable grades are lower for railways than for highways because
a. construction costs become prohibitive for railways at high grades
b. trains are longer than vehicles which use the highways
c. high grades causes discomfort to passengers
d. steel wheels on steel rails have lower frictional coefficient than rubber tyres on pavements

A

a

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22
Q

Sliding considerations for stopped vehicles on super elevated horizontal curves provide the following bound on the amount of super elevation, e,
a. e ≥ coefficient of rolling friction
b. e ≥ coefficient of side friction
c. e ≤ coefficient of rolling friction
d. e ≤ coefficient of side friction

A

b

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23
Q

At highway stretches where the required overtaking sight distance cannot be provided, it is necessary to incorporate
a. at least twice the stopping sight distance
b. half the required overtaking sight distance
c. one third the required overtaking sight distance
d. three times the stopping sight distance

A

a

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24
Q

The ideal form of curve for the summit curve is
a. spiral
b. parabola
c. circle
d. lemniscates

A

b

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25
The important factor considered in the design of summit curves on highways is a. comfort to passenger b. sight distance c. superelevation d. impact factor
b
26
Transition curve is provided in horizontal alignment a. to increase the radius of curvature b. to facilitate the application of superelevation c. to counteract the centrifugal force developed d. to prevent vehicle from skidding laterally
b
27
Consider the following statements in the context of geometric design of roads. I. A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable shape for summit curves. II. Comfort to passengers is an important consideration in the design of summit curves. The correct option evaluating the above statements and their relationship is a. I is true, II is false b. I is true, II is true, and II is the correct reason for I c. I is true, II is true, and II is NOT the correct reason for I d. I is false, II is true
a
28
Stopping sight distance and frictional co-efficients are a. directly proportional to each other b. inversely proportional to each other c. unrelated d. either directly or inversely proportional to each other depending on the nature of pavement.
b
29
The design value of lateral friction coefficient on highway is a. 1.5 b. 0.50 c. 0.35 d. 0.15
d
30
Camber on highway pavement is provided to take care of a. Centrifugal Force b. Drainage c. Sight Distance d. Off-Tracking
b
31
Stopping sight distance is the minimum distance available on a highway which is the a. distance of sufficient length to stop the vehicle without collision. b. distance visible to a driver during night driving c. height of the object above the road surface. d. distance equal to the height of the driver’s eye above the road surface.
a
32
At highway stretches where the required overtaking sight distance cannot be provided, it is necessary to incorporate in such sections the following a. at least twice the stopping sight distance b. half of the required overtaking sight distance c. one third of the required overtaking sight distance d. three times the stopping sight distance
a
33
[CONTAINS GRAPH] During a forensic investigation of pavement failure, an engineer reconstructed the graphs P, Q, R and S, using partial and damaged old reports. (Graphs shown: P = Marshall stability vs Bitumen content, Q = Flow vs Bitumen content, R = Voids filled with bitumen vs Bitumen content, S = Air Voids vs Bitumen content) Theoretically plausible correct graphs according to the ‘Marshall mixture design output’ are a. P, Q, R b. P, Q, S c. Q, R, S d. R, S, P
b
34
Bitumen is derived from a. destructive distillation of coal tar b. destructive distillation of petroleum c. fractional distillation of petroleum d. naturally occurring ores
b
35
Bituminous materials are commonly used in highway construction because of their good a. tensile and compression properties b. binding and water proofing properties c. shear strength and tensile properties d. bond and tensile properties
b
36
The following general statement may be made about the penetration value and softening point of bitumen a. higher the penetration value, higher is the softening point b. higher the penetration value, lower is the softening point c. for very high and very low penetration value, the softening point is very low d. absolutely no correlation can be drawn between penetration value and softening point of bitumen
b
37
Bituminous materials are used in highway construction primarily because of their a. cementing and waterproofing properties b. load bearing capacity c. high specific gravity d. black colour which facilitates road markings
a
38
The result of ring and ball softening point test on asphalts is given in terms of a. viscosity b. time c. flow d. temperature
d
39
Match the information related to tests on aggregates given in Group-I with that in Group-II. Group-I P. Resistance to impact Q. Resistance to water R. Resistance to weathering action S. Resistance to crushing Group-II 1. Hardness 2. Strength 3. Toughness 4. Soundness Options: a. P: 1; Q: 3; R: 4; S: 2 b. P: 3; Q: 1; R: 4; S: 2 c. P: 4; Q: 1; R: 3; S: 2 d. P: 3; Q: 4; R: 2; S: 1
b
40
In Marshall testing of bituminous mixes, as the bitumen content increases the flow value a. remains constant b. decreases first and then increases c. increases monotonically d. increases first and then decreases
c
41
Aggregate impact value indicates the following property of aggregates a. Durability b. Toughness c. Hardness d. Strength
b
42
The consistency and flow resistance of bitumen can be determined from the following a. Ductility test b. Penetration test c. Softening point test d. Viscosity test
d
43
Match the following tests on aggregate and its properties. Test P. Crushing test Q. Los Angeles abrasion test R. Soundness test S. Angularity test Property 1. Hardness 2. Weathering 3. Shape 4. Strength a. P: 2; Q: 1; R: 4; S: 3 b. P: 4; Q: 2; R: 3; S: 1 c. P: 3; Q: 2; R: 1; S: 4 d. P: 4; Q: 1; R: 2; S: 3
d
44
Group I contains some properties of Bitumen. Group II gives a list of Laboratory Tests conducted on Bitumen to determine the properties. Match the property with the corresponding test. Column I P. Resistance to flow Q. Ability to deform under load R. Safety Column II 1. Ductility test 2. Penetration test 3. Flash and Fire Point testa a. P: 2; Q: 1; R: 3 b. P: 2; Q: 3; R: 1 c. P: 1; Q: 3; R: 2 d. P: 3; Q: 1; R: 2
a
45
Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising to a. fine aggregate, filter and bitumen b. fine aggregate and bitumen c. coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filter and bitumen d. coarse aggregate, filter and bitumen
c
46
Column I below gives a list of physical properties of aggregates which should be determined to judge their suitability in road construction. Column II gives a list of laboratory tests which are conducted to determine these properties. Column I Column II P. Hardness 1. Water adsorption Q. Porosity 2. Impact test R. Toughness 3. Soundness test S. Durability 4. Abrasion test Which of the following matches is correct? a. P: 1; Q: 2; R: 3; S: 4 b. P: 4; Q: 1; R: 2; S: 3 c. P: 3; Q: 4; R: 1; S: 2 d. P: 2; Q: 3; R: 4; S: 1
b
47
Flexible pavements derive stability primarily from a. aggregate interlock, particle friction and cohesion b. cohesion alone c. the binding power of bituminous materials d. the flexural strength of the surface course
a
48
Since the moisture content at the bottom of a rigid pavement slab is generally more than at the top a. the bottom of the slab is generally in tension b. the top of the slab is generally in compression c. the bottom of the slab is generally in compression d. the bottom of the slab is neither compression nor tension
a
49
A contraction joint is provided in concrete pavement to a. prevent contraction of the pavement b. permit cracking at the joint c. lower the bending moment in the pavement in order to reduce pavement thickness d. lower the temperature gradient across the depth of the pavement
a
50
The modulus of subgrade reaction is evaluated from a. plate bearing test b. CBR test c. direct shear test d. triaxial test
a
51
In a cement concrete pavement, dowel bars are used in a. longitudinal joints b. construction joints c. dummy joints d. expansion joints
d
52
The position of base course in a flexible pavement is a. over the sub-base b. below the sub-base c. over the sub-grade but below the sub-base d. over the wearing course when renewal of surface is needed
a
53
The load transfer to lower layers in flexible pavements is by a. bending action of layers b. shear deformation c. grain to grain contact d. consolidation of subgrade
c
54
Which of the following stress combinations are appropriate in identifying the critical condition for the design of concrete pavements? Type of Stress Location P. Load 1. Corner Q. Temperature 2. Edge 3. Interior a. P: 2; Q: 3 b. P: 1; Q: 3 c. P: 3; Q: 1 d. P: 2; Q: 2
a
55
Temperature stresses in concrete pavements may cause the slab to crack. If a slab cools uniformly, then the crack will develop at the following locations of the slab a. at centre b. near edges c. at corners d. both (b) and (c)
a
56
Select the strength parameter of concrete used in design of plain jointed cement concrete pavements from the following choices: a. Tensile strength b. Compressive strength c. Flexural strength d. Shear strength
c
57
Dowel bars in concrete pavement are placed a. along the direction of traffic b. perpendicular to the direction of traffic c. along 45° to the direction of traffic d. can be placed along any direction
a
58
Base course is used in rigid pavements for a. prevention of sub grade settlement b. prevention of slab cracking c. preventing of pumping d. preventing of thermal expansion
c
59
Road roughness is measured using a. Benkelman beam b. Bump integrator c. Dynamic cone penetrometre d. Falling weight deflectometre
b
60
Alligator or map cracking is the common type of failure in a. concrete pavements b. bituminous surfacing c. gravel roads d. WBM construction
b
61
An important purpose of prime coats is to a. promote the bond between the base and the wearing courses b. promote the adhesion between an existing wearing surface and a subsequent wearing surface c. promote the bond between the subbase course d. increases the stability of the subgrade
b
62
In highway pavements emulsions are mainly used in a. surface dressing b. patching and maintenance c. bitumen macadam d. asphaltic concrete
b
63
Desire lines are drawn based on a. spot speed studies b. traffic volume studies c. accident studies d. origin and destination studies
d
64
The shape of the STOP sign according to IRC: 67-2001 is a. circular b. triangular c. octagona d. rectangular
c
65
The system that uses the sun as a source of electromagnetic energy and records the naturally radiated and reflected energy from the object is called a. Geographical Information System b. Global Positioning System c. Passive Remote Sensing d. Active Remote Sensing
c
66
Optimal flight planning for a photogrammetric survey should be carried out considering a. only side-lap b. only end-lap c. either side-lap or end-lap d. both side-lap as well as end-lap
d
67
[NOV 2024] The type of surveying in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is called a. Geodetic surveying b. Plane surveying c. Preliminary surveying d. Topographical surveying
a
68
The survey carried out to delineate natural features, such as hills, rivers, forests, and man-made features, such as towns, villages, buildings, roads, transmission lines, and canals is classified as a. Engineering survey b. Geological survey c. Land survey d. Topographic survey
d
69
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Plumb line is along the directions of gravity. b. Mean Sea Level (MSL) is used as a reference surface for establishing the horizontal control. c. Mean Sea Level (MSL) is a simplification of the Geoid. d. Geoid is an equi-potential surface of gravity.
b
70
While leveling in an undulating terrain, it is preferable to set up the instrument on a. the top of summit b. the bottom of a valley c. one side of the slope d. a flat location
b
71
Which of the following errors can be eliminated by reciprocal measurements in differential leveling? I. Error due to earth’s curvature. II. Error due to atmospheric refraction. a. Both I and II b. I only c. II only d. Neither I nor II
a
72
Curvature correction to a staff reading in a differential leveling survey is a. always subtractive b. always zero c. always additive d. dependent on latitude
a
73
Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II lists the method of surveying. Match the tool/instrument with the corresponding method of surveying. Group I Group II P. Alidade 1. Chain surveying Q. Arrow 2. Levelling R. Bubble tube 3. Plane table surveying S. Stadia hair 4. Theodolite surveying a. P: 3; Q: 2; R: 1; S: 4 b. P: 2; Q: 4; R: 3; S: 1 c. P: 1; Q: 2; R: 4; S: 3 d. P: 3; Q: 1; R: 2; S: 4
d
74
The tangential method of tachometry is a. slower than stadia hair method b. faster than stadia hair method c. preferred as involves less computations to get reduced distances d. preferred as chances of operational error are less compared to stadia hair method
a