1
Q
Blastomycosis may be disseminated in dogs, but which of the following is most frequently the primary site of involvement?
A) Intestine
B) Liver
C) Lungs
D) Nasal cavity
E) Spleen
A
C) Lungs
2
Q
A 5YO female West Highland White Terrier dog is brought back to the clinic ten days after being diagnosed as having pyoderma. Physical examination at the time had shown papule, pustules, and epidermal collarettes predominantly distributed in the inguinal region. A two-week course of trimethoprim-sulfadiazine at a standard dose was prescribed, and the client reported clearing of the lesions within a few days. The dog has now developed spreading, circular, bull’s-eye, erythematous lesions on the thorax and forelimbs. There are some papules but no erosion or ulceration. A skin biopsy is obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step pending results of the skin biopsy?
A) Administer oral prednisone
B) Change medication to cephalexin
C) Change medication to itraconazole
D) Continue current therapy
E) Discontinue all therapy
A
E) Discontinue all therapy
SIGN OF DRUG HYPERSENSITIVITY OR IMMUNE REACTION; best to wait for biopsy results!
3
Q
A 13-year-old cat has a large, firm mass of the third mammary gland on the right side. Which of the following represents the likelihood that this tumor is malignant?
A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 40%
D) 60%
E) 90%
A
E) 90%
4
Q
A 4-year-old neutered male cat is in shock two hours after sustaining a small wound in the left flank and a larger wound on the lower right side just caudal to the 13th rib. A projectile injury is suspected. Which of the following conditions is most likely to result from these injuries?
A) Peritonitis
B) Pneumomediastinum
C) Pneumothorax
D) Pyothorax
E) Spinal fracture
A
A) Peritonitis
**NOTE, the wound is CAUDAL to the last/13th rib, so peritonitis is the only answer NOT in the thorax that makes sense!
5
Q
At the present time, which of the following is the most effective management for eradication of brucellosis in cattle?
A) Serologic identification and vaccination of infected animals
B) Serologic identification of infected animals followed by isolation and slaughter
C) Vaccination of all animals as calves
D) Vaccination of all animals that had no detectable serologic titer
E) Vaccination of all susceptible animals as calves and before pregnancy
A
B) Serologic identification of infected animals followed by isolation and slaughter
6
Q
A 3-year-old Percheron mare is undergoing routine dental evaluation. Physical examination shows bilateral prolapse of the nictitating membrane and muscle fasciculations of the neck, shoulders, and flank. During examination, the mare’s hindlimb give way, and she leans back in a dog-sitting posture. Rectal temperature is 100.4 F, heart rate is 60 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min. Laboratory studies show:
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Equine degenerative myelopathy
B) Equine motor neuron disease
C) Exertional rhabdomyolysis
D) Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
E) Tetanus
A
D) Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
7
Q
A 10-year-old spayed female cat is being evaluated because of a suspected injury to both hindlimbs. The cat has been drinking and urinating excessively for the past two months. She is walking in a plantigrade stance. What is the most likely cause of this stance?
A) Bilateral Achilles tendon injury
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hyperadrenocorticism
D) Hyperthyroidism
E) Lumbar intervertebral disk disease
A
B) Diabetes mellitus
8
Q
A 10-year-old commercial beef cow has had a gradually diminished appetite and progressive weight loss over the past 2 months. Feces are dry and scanty. She continues to drink water. Physical examination shows distention of the left paralumbar fossa and ventral right abdominal wall. On rectal palpation, the rumen is full of firm ingesta and the ventral sac extends to the right of midline (L-shaped). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Administration of bismuth subsalicylate with sucrose
B) Administration of magnesium hydroxide
C) Exploratory laparotomy
D) Salvage to slaughter
E) Surgical creation of rumen fistula
A
D) Salvage to slaughter
likely TYPE I OR II VAGAL INDIGESTION, and for an older COMMERICAL BEEF COW best to SLAUGHTER
9
Q
An 82-lb (37-kg), 8-year-old male German Shepherd mixed-breed dog is being evaluated because of a two-month history of decreased exercise tolerance. The client reports that the dog had two episodes of “profound weakness” on walks during the past week. The dog seems comfortable at home, but his “heart is racing all the time.” Two years ago, another veterinarian diagnosed the dog with hypothyroidism and prescribed oral levothyroxine 0.8 mg twice daily. Dosage was reevaluated one month after initiation of treatment and was determined appropriate. Appetite, urination and bowel movements are normal. Body condition score is 6/9. Temperature is 101.2 F and heart rate is 180 beats/min. The dog is panting. Physical examination detects a pulse deficit that occurs three to five times each minute. No other abnormalities are noted. Results of the complete blood count, serum biochemistry profile, and urinalysis are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the episodic weakness in this dog?
A) Decreased cardiac output
B) Electrolyte imbalance
C) Neurogenic weakness
D) Osteoarthritis
E) Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
A
A) Decreased cardiac output
10
Q
A 10-year-old dog has had difficulty walking for the past week. Findings on physical and neurologic examinations include hypermetria and a decreased hopping reflex in the left fore- and hindlimbs. A lesion is most likely to be found on which of the following structures of the nervous system?
A) Left brainstem
B) Left cerebellum
C) Left cerebrum
D) Right brainstem
E) Right cerebellum
A
B) Left cerebellum
11
Q
Fifteen of a group of 200, 7-month-old feedlot calves are lame. The calves arrived at the feedlot approximately one month ago, and one week later 4 of the animals developed pneumonia. These calves were treated with oxytetracycline, and the pneumonia appeared to resolve. On physical examination, the affected calves have swellings in the carpi, tarsi and stifles with distention of associated tendon sheaths, and a stiff gait. Two calves are euthanized. Postmortem examination shows fibrinous pleuritic and papillary muscle necrosis. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of these signs?
A) Arcanobacterium (Actinomyces) pyogenes
B) Histophilus somni (Haemophilus somnas)
C) Mannheimia (Pasteurella) haemolytica
D) Pasteurella multocida
E) Salmonella typhimurium
A
B) Histophilus somni
SIGNS = pleuritis on necropsy, muscle stiffness, abx tx can cause more chronicity, spread via nasal and urogenital secretions
12
Q
The radiograph is shown from a 6-year-old spayed female Yorkshire Terrier dog that is evaluated because of hematuria. Urine pH is 6.0. Which of the following is most likely the composition of the calculus?
A) Calcium oxalate
B) Cystine
C) Silica
D) Urate
E) Xanthine
A
A) Calcium oxalate
13
Q
In a mare, a 30-day pregnancy is most likely detected on rectal examination by which of the following?
A) Absence of ovarian follicles
B) Palpation of the chorionic vesicle
C) Palpation of the corpus luteum
D) Palpation of the fetus
E) Slipping of the fetal membranes
A
E) Slipping of the fetal membranes
14
Q
A 7-year-old castrated male Thoroughbred horse has a three-week history of intermittent cough associated with eating, unilateral (left-sided) Horner’s syndrome, and intermittent, bilateral, green-tinged nasal discharge. Two days ago, the horse bled profusely from the left nostril. Which of the following is the most likely source of hemorrhage?
A) Ethmoid hematoma
B) Internal carotid artery
C) Maxillary sinus mucosa
D) Maxillary vein
E) Nasal turbinates
A
B) Internal carotid artery
likely GUTTURAL POUCH MYCOSIS, causes SYMPATHETIC NERVE DAMAGE, DYSPHAGIA and INTERNAL CAROTID ARTERY bleeds!
15
Q
Which of the following is the most common form of inflammatory bowel disease in cats?
A) Eosinophilic gastroenteritis
B) Lymphocytic-plasmacytic enterocolitis
C) Neutrophilic enteritis
D) Regional granulomatous enterocolitis
E) Small intestine bacterial overgrowth
A
B) Lymphocytic-plasmacytic enterocolitis
16
Q
A 4-year-old second-lactation Holstein cow that is 150 days in milk has been in anestrus since calving. On palpation of the rectum, a cystic structure that is 3 cm in diameter is identified on the left ovary. Administration of which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment?
A) Follicle-stimulating hormone followed by gonadotropin-releasing hormone in 15 days
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone followed by prostaglandin in 15 days
C) Melengestrol acetate followed by prostaglandin in 19 days
D) Prostaglandin followed by melengestrol acetate in 19 days
A
B) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone followed by prostaglandin in 15 days
17
Q
A 7-year-old intact male llama is evaluated because of a two-day history of poor appetite and hypersalivation. The llama is kept on a backyard pasture with a 20-year-old horse. The horse also has had a poor appetite for the past two days. The animals’ diet consists of free choice access to the pasture and a trace mineral salt block and grass hay twice daily. Temperature of the llama is 104.5 F, heart rate is 90 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 40 breaths/min. Physical examination shows mild dehydration. Oral examination discloses two circular erosions of the lingual epithelium measuring approximately 1.5 cm in diameter. Temperature of the horse is 103.7 F, heart rate is 48 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 20 breaths/min. Oral examination of the horse discloses a solitary, circular erosion of the epithelium on the inside of the upper lip measuring 2 cm in diameter. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Contagious ecthyma
B) Equine herpesvirus 1 encephalomyelitis
C) Equine viral arteritis
D) Food-and-mouth disease
E) Vesicular stomatitis
A
E) Vesicular stomatitis
18
Q
A flock of 8-week-old broiler chickens has a high condemnation rate at the processing plant because of lymphoid tumors in multiple organs. Which of the following is the most appropriate first question to ask the owner to determine the cause of the problem?
A) Did the feed contain mycotoxins?
B) Was the litter treated with chemicals?
C) Were any medications administered during grow out?
D) What is the genetic line of origin?
E) What is the vaccination history?
A
E) What is the vaccination history?
MAREK’S DISEASE
19
Q
A group of 6- to 10-week-old lambs and their dams have crusted, proliferative lesions on the lips. Physical examination shows underlying crusts consisting of raised granulation tissue. There are no lesions on the buccal or lingual mucosa. The majority of lambs are affected, but only 5% of adult sheep are affected. Affected lambs are active and are nursing. The only adult goat on the farm has similar lesions. The horses, cattle, and pigs on the farm are unaffected. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Addition of organic iodine to trace mineralized salt
B) Oral administration of griseofulvin
C) Parenteral administration of oxytetracycline
D) Parenteral administration of procaine penicillin G
E) Observation
A
E) Observation
CONTAGIOUS ECTHYMA (orf) PARAPOXVIRUS that is MILD AND SELF-LIMITING
HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS IN YOUNG ANIMALS
20
Q
Approximately 10% of the piglet litters in the farrowing rooms of a swine farm have mild, watery-to-pasty diarrhea. The manager of the farm reports that this diarrhea is low, but dehydration and a poor growth rate lead to lower weaning weights. Treatment with gentamicin has been ineffective, so the manager does not treat the piglets for the diarrhea. Which of the following is the most likely causal agent?
A) Circovirus
B) Parvovirus
C) Porcine enterovirus
D) Rotavirus
E) Transmissible gastroenteritis virus
A
D) Rotavirus
21
Q
A 12-year-old spayed female Persian cat is evaluated because of a one-week history of anorexia, vomiting, polyuria, and polydipsia. Body condition score is 3/9. Physical examination shows lethargy and enlarged, irregular kidneys bilaterally. Serum studies show:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A) Bacterial cystitis
B) Chronic interstitial nephritis
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Polycystic kidney disease
E) Transitional cell carcinoma
A
D) Polycystic kidney disease
22
Q
A 2-year-old male Golden Retriever vomited food and bile-stained material shortly after eating eight hours ago. On physical examination, the dog is bright, alert, and well hydrated. Findings on abdominal palpation are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
A) Administer fluids intravenously for 24 hours and withhold food and water
B) Obtain a complete blood count, serum biochemistry profile, and urinalysis
C) Perform an upper gastrointestinal series with barium
D) Test a fecal sample for parvovirus
E) Withhold food and water for 24 hours and gradually reintroduce water and highly digestible foods
A
E) Withhold food and water for 24 hours and gradually reintroduce water and highly digestible foods
23
Q
A 6-year-old Thoroughbred gelding was involved in a motor vehicle collision while riding in a trailer three weeks ago. Physical examination shows healing superficial abrasions on the face. A photograph of the horse is shown. Injury to which of the following nerves is the most likely underlying cause of these findings?
A) Left facial (VII) nerve
B) Right facial (VII) nerve
C) Left trigeminal (V) nerve
D) Right trigeminal (V) nerve
E) Left infraorbital nerve
F) Right infraorbital nerve
A
B) Right facial (VII) nerve
24
Q
A group of 1000 5-week-old pigs has experienced a 2% death loss since weaning two weeks ago. Most of the deaths were sudden, however, approximately 3% of the pigs showed clinical signs of lethargy, lameness, and labored breathing before dying. Postmortem examination of an affected pig shows severe fibrinous pleuritis, pericarditis and peritonitis. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A) Arcanobacterium suis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Haemophilus parasuis
D) Salmonella choleraesuis
E) Streptococcus suis
A
C) Haemophilus parasuis
25
The owner of a flock of 85 sheep reports that approximately 33% of ewes have had abortions or have delivered lambs with marked weakness during the past three weeks. Thirty-two ewes were purchased from a farm in a neighboring state and were introduced to the flock four weeks ago. The ewes appear to be healthy. Postmortem examination of an aborted fetus shows marked thickening of the placenta. A zoonotic organism from which of the following genera is the most likely cause of these findings?
A) Campylobacter
B) Chlamydophila
C) Coxiella
D) Leptospira
E) Mycoplasma
C) Coxiella
COXIELLA BURNETTI (Q FEVER) causes ABORTION STORMS, is INFECTIOUS/ZOONOTIC, and causes THICKENED PLACENTA
26
A 9-year-old female Boston Terrier dog is being evaluated because of a lump on the abdomen. A firm mass is palpated in the caudal left mammary gland. A thoracic radiograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical approach?
A) Bilateral mastectomy
B) Chemotherapy only
C) Excisional biopsy and chemotherapy
D) Unilateral mastectomy
E) Surgery is not indicated
E) Surgery is not indicated
PULMONARY METS ALREADY SEEN AND SURGERY NOT SHOWN TO BE EFFECTIVE! Chemo also not helpful without surgery
27
A 5-year-old Simmental cow who is used as a donor for embryo transfer is evaluated because of the acute onset of anorexia and lethargy. She has been flushed six times; the most recent flushing occurred 10 days ago. Rectal temperature is 104 F. During physical examination, the cow is reluctant to move and periodically kicks at her abdomen. On rectal palpation, the left kidney is grossly enlarged and has a smooth texture. When stimulated to urinate, the urine is grossly hematuria; numerous blood clots and fibrin are present. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Administration of gentamicin intravenously
B) Administration of procaine penicillin G intramuscularly
C) Long-term catheterization of the bladder
D) Surgical removal of the enlarged kidney
E) No treatment is indicated
B) Administration of procaine penicillin G intramuscularly
28
The owner of a horse and cattle ranch has red, flaky patches on his arms and face. One of his horses is shown in the photograph. The owner reports that only the younger horses have the lesions. The horses have no pruritus or adverse effects. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Dermatophilosis
B) Dermatphytosis
C) Pemphigus foliaceus
D) Staphylococcal folliculitis
B) Dermatphytosis
29
A 4-year-old mixed-breed dog has diarrhea and weight loss for the past 8 weeks. The diarrhea is characterized by increased volume of feces without mucus or blood. The dog defecates approximately three times per day without tenesmus. Results of complete blood count, serum biochemistry profile, TLI, and urinalysis are within normal limits. Multiple fecal examinations are negative for parasites and pathogenic bacteria. Which of the following steps is most likely to confirm a diagnosis?
A) Administration of anti-inflammatory doses of prednisone
B) Colonoscopy with biopsies of the colon
C) Initiation of a highly-digestible diet
D) Measurement of serum cobalamin and folate concentrations
E) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with biopsies of the stomach and duodenum
E) Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with biopsies of the stomach and duodenum
LARGE VOLUME FECES WITH NO BLOOD OR STRAINING --> SMALL BOWEL D+
30
On examination of the cranial nerves in a 3-year-old female cat, the right pupil appears to be larger than the left pupil. The right pupil shows no response when light is shown into either eye. The left pupil constricts when light is shown into either eye. Mild ventrolateral strabismus is noted in the right eye only. These findings are most consistent with a lesion at which of the following locations?
A) Left occipital cortex
B) Right occipital cortex
C) Right optic (II) nerve
D) Right oculomotor (III) nerve
E) Right abducens (VI) nerve
D) Right oculomotor (III) nerve
31
A 9-month-old intact male Siberian Husky dog is being evaluated because of a cough of two weeks' duration. The lesions shown at the carina are seen on bronchoscopic examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Chlorpheniramine
C) Dextromethorphan
D) Ivermectin
E) Prednisone
D) Ivermectin
32
A 10-month-old intact male German Shepherd puppy has had bilateral lameness of the forelimbs for the past two weeks. A radiograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Antibiotic therapy
B) Calcium supplementation
C) Glycosaminoglycan supplementation
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug therapy
E) Vitamin supplementation
D) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug therapy
33
A 4-year-old Standardbred stallion is being evaluated because he has been racing poorly for the past two months. On auscultation of the thorax, there is an irregular rate and intensity of heart sounds. An electrocardiogram shows an absence of P waves. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Atrial fibrillation
B) Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
C) Premature ventricular contractions
D) Ventricular fibrillation
E) Wandering atrial pacemaker
A) Atrial fibrillation
34
A 6-year-old male Cocker Spaniel dog has recurrent otitis external. Microscopic examination of a smear of purulent discharge from the ear shows large numbers of rod-shaped bacteria. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Klebsiella spp
C) Pasteurella multocida
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Staphylococcus intermedius
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
35
A dog is brought into a small-animal private practice immediately after being struck by a vehicle; the dog appears to be in shock. At the same time, the telephone is ringing, a cat is being anesthetized for ovariohysterectomy, and many patients are waiting to be seen. Which of the following staff members is the most appropriate person to monitor the anesthetized cat?
A) Certified veterinary technician
B) Kennel worker
C) Receptionist
D) Veterinarian
E) Veterinary assistant
A) Certified veterinary technician
36
A 10-year-old castrated male domestic shorthaired cat has multiple small raised black swellings along the ventral mandible that have become coalesced in a black crusty exudate. The skin below is dark pink and swollen. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action?
A) Clean the area and administer systemic corticosteroids
B) Clean the area; then perform a biopsy
C) Culture a lesion for dermatophytes and administer griseofulvin if results are positive
D) Perform a biopsy of the area before cleaning
E) Shave the area and apply benzoyl peroxide topically
E) Shave the area and apply benzoyl peroxide topically
37
A 9-week-old Rottweiler-mix puppy is being evaluated because of an itchy rash around the lips and eyelids. Temperature is 103.3 F. Physical examination shows swelling of the muzzle, pruritic, exudative pustules around the lips and eyelids, and swelling of the submandibular lymph nodes bilaterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Cephalexin and prednisone
B) Clindamycin and carprofen
C) Enrofloxacin and etodolac
D) Topical amitraz
E) Topical betamethasone
A) Cephalexin and prednisone
TX FOR PUPPY STRANGLES (common in puppies <4 months)
38
A litter of 6-week-old kittens is being evaluated because of intermittent soft stools with flecks of blood. The kittens are confined in an unsanitary cage. Two direct fecal examinations show oocysts. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?
A) Dichlorvos
B) Fenbendazole
C) Ivermectin
D) Piperazine
E) Sulfadimethoxine
E) Sulfadimethoxine
TREATS COCCIDIOSIS (a protozoa)
39
A 2-year-old spayed female indoor/outdoor Singapura cat has had severe facial pruritus for the past two weeks. Vaccinations are up-to-date, and the cat is on a monthly regimen of topical imidacloprid. Examination of the skin shows linear ulcers along the ventral aspects of both mandibles and military scabs on the ventral and lateral aspects of the neck. The remainder of the dermis appears normal. Deep and surface skin scrapings and dermatophyte culture are negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
A) Serum allergy testing
B) Thyroid function testing
C) Trial of a hypoallergenic diet
D) Trial of intramuscular methylprednisolone
E) Trial of oral cyclosporine
C) Trial of a hypoallergenic diet
40
A 12-year-old spayed female Siamese cat is being evaluated because of poor body condition, weight loss and polydipsia. Complete blood count shows mild non regenerative anemia, lymphopenia, and neutropenia. Which of the following tests is most likely to help establish the diagnosis?
A) Blood culture
B) Bone marrow aspiration
C) Coomb's test
D) Feline infectious peritonitis titer
E) Toxoplasma titer
B) Bone marrow aspiration
41
An 8-month-old neutered male kitten is evaluated because of a three-day history of diarrhea, lethargy, decreased appetite and one episode of seizure. The clients adopted the kitten from a friend two months ago. The kitten is quiet, lethargic, and slow to respond to stimuli. Body condition score is 3/9. Physical examination discloses approximately 4% dehydration. Abnormalities on serum biochemistry profile and analysis of CSF on cerebellomedullary puncture are here:
Abdominal ultrasonography discloses hyperechogenicity of the liver. Cytologic examination of fine-needle aspirate obtained from the liver shows neutrophilic inflammation with normal polygonal cells with a round central nucleus, a single nucleolus, and granular cytoplasm and tachyzoites. Results of an infectious disease titer are pending. Oral administration of a three-week course of clindamycin is initiated. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation to avoid possible zoonotic disease transmission?
A) Board the cat at the veterinary clinic during treatment
B) Clean and empty the litter box every 24 hours during treatment
C) Do not clean or empty the litter box at all during treatment
D) Keep the cat outdoors during treatment
E) Re-home the cat
B) Clean and empty the litter box every 24 hours during treatment
TACHYZOITES ON LIVER FNA ARE DIAGNOSTIC FOR TOXOPLASMA GONDII
42
A 12-week-old parent-fed Ring-Necked Dove is unable to stand. The bird is from an aviary with 10 pairs. On physical examination, the bird has a deformed beak, a crooked keel, and bowed legs. The owners decide to euthanize the bird. Grossly enlarged parathyroid glands are seen on postmortem examination. Which of the following is the most important dietary supplement for the remaining birds?
A) Calcium
B) Insoluble grit
C) Iodine
D) Selenium
E) Vitamin A
A) Calcium
43
A 4-year-old intact female ferret has had lethargy and depression for the past 24 hours. On physical examination, the mucous membranes are extremely pale and the vulva is swollen. Packed cell volume is markedly decreased. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Estrogen toxicity
B) Gastric ulceration
C) Gastrointestinal parasitism
D) Hypovitaminosis C
E) Pyometra
A) Estrogen toxicity
44
In cases of pyothorax in the cat, which of the following microorganisms are most frequently cultured from pleural fluid?
A) Chlamydiae
B) Mycoplasmas
C) Obligate anaerobes
D) Spirochetes
E) Yeasts
C) Obligate anaerobes
45
Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis most commonly occurs in dogs through contact with which of the following?
A) Cattle
B) Chickens
C) Humans
D) Soil
E) Swine
C) Humans
46
A 12-year-old neutered male domestic shorthair cat is evaluated because of a 1-month history of drooling and blood-tinged saliva. The client reports that the quantity of saliva and the amount of blood in it have increased during this time, and the cat seems to have trouble eating. Oral examination discloses the findings shown. No other abnormalities are noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Fibrosarcoma
B) Lymphoma
C) Melanoma
D) Osteosarcoma
E) Squamous cell carcinoma
E) Squamous cell carcinoma
47
A cat is being evaluated because of rapidly growing nodules on the head. Two of the nodules have ulcerated and are covered with a mucoid exudate. A photograph of the cells is shown. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A) Blastomyces dermatitidis
B) Coccidiodes immitis
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
E) Sporothrix schenckii
C) Cryptococcus neoformans
48
A 3-year-old Thoroughbred racehorse has had poor performance and an abnormal gait for the past two weeks. The rider reports instability on turns and frequent breaks in stride. Rectal temperature is 99.5 F, heart rate is 32 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 12 breaths/min. Physical examination shows asymmetric ataxia of the hindlimbs, with the left hindlimb being more significantly affected, and mild atrophy of the gluteal muscles on the left side. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?
A) Radiography of cervical vertebrae
B) Serum IgM capture ELISA for West Nile Virus
C) Western blot analysis of cerebrospinal fluid for equine protozoal encephalomyelitis
D) No additional testing is required
C) C) Western blot analysis of cerebrospinal fluid for equine protozoal encephalomyelitis
49
A client who owns 100 pigs asks about the health status of a neighbor's pig farm. He is concerned that his neighbor's herd is infected with a contagious disease agent, and the neighbor has been unwilling to discuss the matter with the client. Which of the following is the most appropriate response to the client's request?
A) Disclose the information and offer suggestions on preventing spread of disease
B) Disclose the information if he is willing to provide compensation for the veterinarian's time
C) Inform him that he could contact the state/provincial veterinarian to force discovery
D) Inform him that without his neighbor's permission it is improper to discuss the matter
D) Inform him that without his neighbor's permission it is improper to discuss the matter
50
A 5-month-old Boer whether goat is undergoing health certification examination prior to entry in an exhibition in one week. The wether is housed with his dam; the dam was purchased at auction eight months ago. Physical examination of the wether discloses a closed, 4-cm firm mass over the mandible immediately ventral to the right ear. No other abnormalities are noted. Physical examination of the dam shows a closed, 8-cm firm mass, an open 6-cm lesion with greenish exudate, and scarring over the ventral surface of the udder. Which of the following diagnostic studies performed on the dam is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A) Bacterial culture of fine-needle aspirate obtained from the mass
B) Cytologic examination of impression smears of exudate obtained from the open lesion
C) Histologic examination of a specimen obtained from the mass
D) pH measurement of exudate obtained from the open lesion
E) Serum ELISA
A) Bacterial culture of fine-needle aspirate obtained from the mass
CASEOUS LYMPHADENITIS, CAUSED BY CORYNEBACTERIUM PSEUDOTUBERCULOSIS --> bacteria needs to be cultured
51
A 7-year-old neutered male Miniature Poodle dog undergoes surgical repair of medial patellar laxation. Which of the following is most likely to aid in recovery?
A) Allowing the dog to exercise freely
B) Calcium supplementation
C) Corticosteroid therapy
D) Limb immobilization
E) Physical therapy
E) Physical therapy
52
Cytologic examination of a sample tracheal wash from a cat with moderate dyspnea shows abundant mucus and many eosinophils, fewer macrophages and neutrophils, and scattered ciliated columnar epithelial cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Antihelmintics
B) Antibiotics
C) Anticancer drugs
D) Antimycotics
E) Corticosteroids
E) Corticosteroids
EOSINOPHILS = FELINE ASTHMA!
53
Feedlot steers in one pen develop upper respiratory disease shortly after arriving at the yard. Following examination of sick animals in the pen, Mannheimia haemolytica is cultured from the lungs of two steers that died. Bovine respiratory disease complex is diagnosed. Although gentamicin was shown to be effective against Mannheimia haemolytica that was isolated, which of the following best explains why it should NOT be used to treat the remainder of the affected steers?
A) It interferes with the activity of other antibiotics used to treat bovine respiratory disease complex
B) It is not effective against Mycoplasma spp., an important component of bovine respiratory disease complex
C) It is ototoxic and nephrotoxic and canc cause myoneural blockade in sick animals
D) It is too costly to be used in feedlot steers
E) It will remain as tissue residues for many months
E) It will remain as tissue residues for many months
GENTAMICIN STAYS IN TISSUES FOR MANY MONTHS even though it can be used against Mannheimia haemolytica
54
A dog is being evaluated because of back pain. Radiographic changes in the spinal column include a narrowed intervertebral disk space, irregular lytic areas of the adjacent vertebral end plates, and sclerosis at the margins of the lytic areas. These radiographic signs are most characteristic of which of the following?
A) Diskospondylitis
B) Herniated intervertebral disk
C) Neoplasia of the vertebral body
D) Reaction to Spirocerca lupi infection
E) Vertebral spondylosis
A) Diskospondylitis
causes LYSIS AT ENDPLATES and NARROWED INTERVERTEBRAL DISK SPACE
55
Which of the following is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the dog?
A) Acute renal failure
B) Chronic renal failure
C) Hypervitaminosis D
D) Lymphoma
E) Primary hyperparathyroidism
D) Lymphoma
56
Three-quarters of the animals in a litter of 6-week-old pigs have small papule or ring-shaped scaly plaques on the abdomen, in the groin region, and on the inner portion of the thigh. The presumptive diagnosis is pityriasis rosea. Which of the following is the most appropriate advice to give the farmer?
A) Pour-on organophosphate treatment will kill the lice and result in clinical improvement in one to two weeks
B) Aggressive topical treatment of the mycotic infection with nystatin will resolve the problem in two to three weeks
C) Supplementation with zinc will compensate for the dietary deficiency, and the animals will recover in three to four weeks
D) Supplementation with vitamin A (retinol) will compensate for the dietary deficiency, and the animals will recover in six to eight weeks
E) Treatment is unnecessary, and the pigs will recover in eight to 10 weeks
E) Treatment is unnecessary, and the pigs will recover in eight to 10 weeks
57
Five percent of a flock of 30,000 5-week-old broiler chickens have a sudden onset of diarrhea. On postmortem examination, the birds are dehydrated; the middle third of the intestine is dilated and inflamed with bloody intestinal contents. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
A) Capillary spp
B) Eimeria spp
C) Haemoproteus spp
D) Heterakis spp
E) Syngamus spp
B) Eimeria spp
58
A 3-year-old female mixed-breed Terrier dog is being evaluated because of a slowly enlarging swelling in the cervical region that was first noticed three days ago. Examination shows a 6-om, fluctuant non painful swelling close to the midline of the neck near the angle of the jaw. A photograph is shown. Fine-needle aspiration of the biopsy shows stringy, mucinous fluid that is low in cellularity. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Cauterization of the cyst lumen
B) Excision of the affected salivary glands
C) Injection of a corticosteroid into the lesion
D) Needle drainage
E) Surgical drainage
B) Excision of the affected salivary glands
SALVIARY MUCOCELE from DAMAGED OR RUPTURED SALIVARY GLAND OR DUCT --> DEFINITIVE TX INCLUDES REMOVAL OF SALIVARY GLANDS
59
A 12-week-old kitten is being examined because of weight loss despite polyphagia. Feces are formed but soft. After determining that the kitten is being fed a good-quality diet, which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?
A) Analysis of urine to detect glomerular protein loss
B) Examination of feces for gastrointestinal parasites
C) Measurement of serum thyroxine concentration to detect hyperthyroidism
D) Measurement of serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity for pancreatic exocrine insufficiency
E) Serum biochemistry profile to detect diabetes mellitus or liver disease
B) Examination of feces for gastrointestinal parasites
60
The lesion in the photograph shown has been present on a horse's leg for three months and is slowly become larger. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Dermatophilosis
B) Habronemiasis
C) Melanoma
D) Papillomatosis
B) Habronemiasis
AKA "SUMMER SORES"
Adult worms that live in horse's stomachs, but cause cutaneous lesions when larvae are deposited in previously damaged skin or mucous membranes & cause local inflammatory reaction that DISAPPEARS IN WINTER
61
A 5-year-old Holstein cow has had marked ketonuria since uneventfully calving 10 days ago and has not responded to treatment with dextrose intravenously and electrolytes and propylene glycol orally. Body condition score at calving was 3.5 on a 5-point scale. Two days before calving, the cow had anorexia and a temperature of 102.5 F. The cow becomes recumbent and is euthanized. A photograph of a liver section obtained on postmortem examination is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Alfatoxicosis
B) Copper toxicity
C) Fasciola hepatica infection
D) Hepatic lipidosis
E) Leptospirosis
D) Hepatic lipidosis
62
On antemortem inspection of a cow at a slaughter facility, the left eye appears to have been enucleated. The cow otherwise seems in good physical condition. Which of the following is the most appropriate next action?
A) Condemn the cow antemortem for a suspected ocular neoplasm before the slaughter
B) Identify the cow as suspect; perform postmortem examination at slaughter
C) Perform physical examination; release the cow for slaughter if the findings are normal
D) Release the cow for slaughter because there is no sign of active disease
E) Return the cow to the point of origin because it does not pass inspection
B) Identify the cow as suspect; perform postmortem examination at slaughter
63
A 16-year-old cat with a history of chronic vomiting is being evaluated because it has not eaten for the past several days. The cat is about 2 lb (1 kg) underweight and appears severely dehydrated. The kidneys are firm and small on palpation. When rehydrating this cat with an intravenous infusion of lactated Ringer's solution, which of the following serum concentrations is most likely to become deficient?
A) Calcium
B) Chloride
C) Phosphorus
D) Potassium
E) Sodium
D) Potassium
LOSE K IN VOMITING & NOT EATING! + Lactated ringers will DILUTE POTASSIUM
64
A 400-lb (128-kg) steer has had an open sore above the hoof of the right hindlimb for the past seven days. The sore has purulent discharge. A photograph is shown. The owner reports that the steer initially had moderate swelling just below the dewclaw and above the bulb of the foot three weeks ago. The owner was unable to treat the steer, and five days later the swelling decreased. After an additional five days, the area above the right lateral claw became swollen, and the steer was markedly lame. During the next 10 days, the swelling increased and the skin at the coronary band broke open. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the current findings?
A) Digital dermatitis
B) Interdigital fibroma
C) Mycoplasma bovis infection
D) Septic arthritis
E) Sole abscess
D) Septic arthritis
65
In a dog, a radula consists of which of the following?
A) Enlargement of the submandibular lymph node
B) A fistula leading to the parotid gland
C) Gingival hyperplasia
D) Leakage of saliva from the zygomatic gland into the submucosa of the lower eyelid
E) Presence in the sublingual tissue of extravasated saliva from the sublingual gland
E) Presence in the sublingual tissue of extravasated saliva from the sublingual gland
66
Which of the following is the most likely cause of sterility in the male mule?
A) Absence of spermatogonia
B) Bilateral cryptorchidism
C) Chromosome incompatibility
D) Hermaphroditism
E) Inability to copulate
C) Chromosome incompatibility
67
A newly acquired blue-fronted Amazon parrot is being evaluated because of anorexia, nasal discharge, and lime green droppings. Radiographs show hepatomegaly and splenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A) Bacterial septicemia
B) Chlamydophilosis
C) Lead toxicosis
D) Mycoplasmosis
E) Systemic mycosis
B) Chlamydophilosis
68
Premolar and molar malocclusion is most likely to develop in which of the following animals?
A) Gerbils
B) Guinea pigs
C) Hamsters
D) Mice
E) Rats
B) Guinea pigs
69
A 6-year-old female Abyssinian cat with a four-year history of grand man seizures requires surgery to remove an intestinal foreign body. The client says that cat has a seizure about once every three months but is not on anticonvulsant therapy. Which of the following is safest to use as a preanesthetic agent?
A) Acepromazine
B) Diazepam
C) Ketamine
D) Phenytoin
E) Xylazine
B) Diazepam
70
Clinical signs of ketosis in the bovine are most commonly observed at which of the following times?
A) Three months before parturition
B) Three weeks after parturition
C) Three days before parturition
D) Three weeks after parturition
E) Three months after parturition
D) Three weeks after parturition
71
Abdominal palpation confirms pregnancy in a cat that was bred three weeks ago, and the client requests termination of the pregnancy. Which of the following is the safest and most reliable management?
A) Administration of prostaglandin F2a
B) Cesarean delivery
C) Injection of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
D) Oral administration diethylstilbestrol
E) Ovariohysterectomy
E) Ovariohysterectomy
72
A 2-year-old male German Shorthaired Pointer is being evaluated because he has been bleeding from his right nostril for the past 1 1/2 hours. He is a hunting dog with an extensive travel history. Temperature is 102.9 F, heart rate is 96 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 24 breaths/min. Physical examination shows mild generalized lymphadenomegaly and splenomegaly. Laboratory studies are shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this dog?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Doxycycline
C) Erythromycin
D) Itraconazole
E) Prednisone
B) Doxycycline
likely EHRLICHIA CANIS, which is caused by RHIPICEPHALUS SANGUINEUS (brown dog tick) causing THROMBOCYTOPENIA
73
The rodenticides brodifacoum and bromadiolone cause which of the following conditions in cats?
A) Coagulopathy
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Neurotoxicosis
D) Organophosphate toxicity
E) Renal toxicity
A) Coagulopathy
74
Which of the following gaits best describes a horse with stringhalt?
A) Abnormal jerky hyperflexion of the hock
B) Ataxia and circumduction of the hindlimb
C) Hindlimb intermittently locked into extension
D) Non-weight-bearing lameness of the hindlimb
E) Rear foot jerks caudally just prior to ground contact
A) Abnormal jerky hyperflexion of the hock
75
The presence of large numbers of the tapeworm Anoplocephala perfoliata in horses is most likely associated with which of the following?
A) Gastric ulceration
B) Ileocecal intussusception
C) Right dorsal colitis
D) Small intestinal volvulus
E) Torsion of the large colon
B) Ileocecal intussusception
76
A 14-year-old spayed female domestic shorthaired cat is undergoing routine annual examination. The client reports no changes in the cat's activity level or appetite. The cat's weight is stable; body condition score is 5/9. Respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min. Physical examination shows pink mucous membranes. Thoracic auscultation discloses a grade III/VI systolic murmur and frequent dropped heartbeats. In addition to baseline blood and urine testing, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in establishing the diagnosis?
A) Cardiac troponin testing
B) Echocardiography
C) Electrocardiography
D) N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide testing
E) Thoracic radiography
B) Echocardiography
77
A cat is being evaluated after falling from a third-story window. The cat has blood on the face, but appears stable. Physical examination of the mouth shows instability of the mandibular symphysis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Application of a tape muzzle
B) Kirschner-Ehmer pin fixation
C) Placement of an acrylic implant
D) Placement of an encircling wire caudal to the canine teeth
E) No specific treatment is necessary
D) Placement of an encircling wire caudal to the canine teeth
78
A 5-year-old castrated male llama is evaluated because of a 12-hour history of anorexia and lethargy after returning from a seven-day pack trip. Temperature 101 F, heart rate is 120 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 44 breaths/min. Physical examination discloses abdominal distention. During the examination, the llama postures to urinate, but no urine is voided. Abdominocentesis yields 2 L of yellow fluid. Analysis of the fluid shows a creatinine concentration of 30 mg/dL (N 2.5-2.9). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Abdominal fluid culture
B) Complete blood count
C) Fecal occult blood testing
D) Rectal palpation
E) Serum biochemistry profile
E) Serum biochemistry profile
79
A 2-year-old cat has a three-day history of vomiting. The cat is 10% dehydrated. On physical examination, there is pain on abdominal palpation, and a loop of fine string with evidence of enteroplication. The most appropriate step in management is to cut the string and do which of the following?
A) Begin intravenous fluid and antibiotic therapy; obtain repeat radiographs after administration of barium
B) Begin intravenous fluid and antibiotic therapy; perform an abdominal exploratory procedure as soon as the cat can withstand anesthesia
C) Begin intravenous fluid and antibiotic therapy; perform an abdominal exploratory procedure if the string does not pass in the feces in two days
D) Begin intravenous and antibiotic therapy; perform endoscopy as soon as the cat can withstand anesthesia
E) Remove each end of the string with gentle, even traction
B) Begin intravenous fluid and antibiotic therapy; perform an abdominal exploratory procedure as soon as the cat can withstand anesthesia
80
A 20-year-old cold-blooded female pony is evaluated in early summer because of a two-month history of weight loss, lethargy and intermittent sweating over the neck and shoulders. She has failed to shed her winter coat. A photo graph is shown. Temperature is 100.4 F, heart rate is 46 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 20 breaths/min. Results of laboratory studies are most likely to show which of the following findings?
A) Hyperglycemia and lymphopenia
B) Hypocholesterolemia and eosinophilia
C) Hypocholesterolemia and neutropenia
D) Hypoglycemia and lymphocytosis
E) Polycythemia and neutropenia
A) Hyperglycemia and lymphopenia
PPID AND HIRSUTISM
81
A lactating dairy cow is being examined 90 days after calving because of swollen quarter. Milk from the affected quarter is watery and contains clots and flakes. The quarter was treated for mastitis 30 days ago with an approved intramammary preparation of erythromycin. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Administration of a broad-spectrum systemic antibiotic
B) Collection of a milk sample for culture and antimicrobial sensitivity testing
C) Intramammary administration of antibiotic effective against gram-negative bacteria
D) Use of a California mastitis test on a sample of milk from the affected quarter
B) Collection of a milk sample for culture and antimicrobial sensitivity testing
82
A 4-year-old pregnant Finn-cross ewe has been recumbent and unable to rise for the past 24 hours. The owner says that the ewe has been depressed and off feed and has been grinding her teeth for the past 48 hours. Body condition score is 4/5, and temperature is 102.2 F. The breeding date is unknown, but the owner estimates that the ewe will lamb in 7 to 10 days. Fifty percent of the ewes in the flock have lambed during the past three weeks. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in establishing the diagnosis?
A) Abdominal ultrasonography
B) Determination of urine ketone concentration
C) Euthanasia and testing for rabies
D) Examination of cerebrospinal fluid
E) Fecal flotation
B) Determination of urine ketone concentration
83
Pilonidal (dermoid) sinus, a congenital condition most commonly seen in Rhodesian Ridgeback dogs, is most often located in or on which of the following areas?
A) Dorsal midline between the neck and sacrum
B) Eyelids
C) Interdigital web
D) Perianal region
E) Ventral midline between the muzzle and abdomen
A) Dorsal midline between the neck and sacrum
84
Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate for long-term treatment of myasthenia gravis in the dog?
A) Atropine
B) Bromocriptine
C) Chlorpheniramine
D) Propantheline
E) Pyridostigmine
E) Pyridostigmine
85
A 3-month-old Jersey heifer calf is being evaluated because she is constantly humped up, straining, and dribbling urine. The owner noticed that urine was dripping from the calf's navel for a few days after she was born. The calf is bright and alert, is in a good body condition, and has a shiny haircoat. Vital signs are normal. A free catch urine sample is obtained, and the only abnormal finding of a urine dipstick test is 1+ blood. Urine sediment examination shows primarily red blood cells and a few white blood cells. A blood urea nitrogen (BUN) dipstick on whole blood shows no color change. Which of the following additional diagnostic tests is most likely to help establish the diagnosis?
A) Abdominal ultrasonography
B) Analysis of peritoneal fluid
C) Karyotyping
D) Measurement of the whole blood selenium concentration
E) Serum biochemistry profile
A) Abdominal ultrasonography
86
In the dog, which of the following is most likely to result from ingestion of the rodenticide cholecalciferol?
A) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
B) Hypercalcemic nephropathy
C) Hypocalcemic tetany
D) Hypokalemic nephropathy
E) Petechial hemorrhage caused by a marked reduction in platelet aggregation
B) Hypercalcemic nephropathy
87
In the dog, which of the following sutures is most appropriate for closing the urinary bladder following a cystotomy?
A) Polydioxanone
B) Polyglactin 910
C) Polyglycolic acid
D) Silk
E) Stainless steel
A) Polydioxanone
THIS IS PDS
88
In North America, which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with visceral larva migrans in humans?
A) Baylisascaris orocyonis
B) Dirofilaria immitis
C) Toxocara canis
D) Toxocara felis
E) Toxoplasma gondii
C) Toxocara canis
89
A 6-year-old neutered male domestic shorthaired cat is brought to the clinic because of rapidly growing mass on its back that the client first noticed month ago. The cat had received annual examinations and had been in apparent good health prior to that time. Vaccinations were last given eight months ago for feline viral rhinotracheitis, calicivirus, panleukopenia, rabies, and feline leukemia virus. Physical examination shows a firm, fixed, ulcerated mass in the dorsal interscapular region. The remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. A photograph of the mass after the hair was clipped is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Bacterial abscess
B) Injection-site sarcoma
C) Local reaction to a microchip
D) Mycobacterial granuloma
E) Osteosarcoma
B) Injection-site sarcoma
90
A 1-year-old male European goldfinch has crusty proliferative lesions on both feet. The finch was recently acquired from a pet shop. The microscopic appearance of skin scrapings from the lesion is shown. The most appropriate treatment is administration of which of the following drugs?
A) Amitraz
B) Amprolium
C) Ivermectin
D) Lime sulfur
E) Metronidazole
C) Ivermectin
91
A drug-free flock of 3-week-old broiler chickens has an increase in mortality. Affected birds have bloody diarrhea. The lesion shown is seen in the cecum of most affected birds on postmortem examination. If the owner decides to administer drugs to the flock, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Amprolium
B) Metronidazole
C) Piperazine
D) Sulfonamide
E) Tetracycline
A) Amprolium
COCCIDIOSIS caused by EIMERIA TENELLA, amprolium is a coccidiostat
92
A 9-year-old spayed female cat is being evaluated because of anorexia and weight loss. On physical examination, the spleen is enlarged. The cells shown are seen on a peripheral blood smear. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hemangiosarcoma
B) Hematoma
C) Lymphoma
D) Mast cell tumor
E) Splenic torsion
D) Mast cell tumor
93
An adult spayed female cat is being treated for renal failure and has a urine culture positive for bacterial organisms sensitive to a wide variety of antimicrobial agents. Which of the following antimicrobials requires an adjustment in dose or interval in this cat?
A) Chloramphenicol
B) Clindamycin
C) Lincomycin
D) Metronidazole
E) Orbifloxacin
E) Orbifloxacin
94
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment of luteal cysts in a cow 90 days postpartum?
A) Administration of estradiol valerate
B) Administration of progesterone
C) Administration of prostaglandin F2a intramuscularly
D) Administration of prostaglandin F2a intrauterinely
E) Manual rupture
C) Administration of prostaglandin F2a intramuscularly
95
Which of the following is the holding layer when suturing the small intestine in a dog?
A) Mucosa
B) Muscularis
C) Omentum
D) Serosa
E) Submucosa
E) Submucosa
96
A 5-month-old intact male Italian Greyhound is brought for emergency evaluation because he has not been able to bear weight on his left forelimb since jumping from the client's arms and landing on his forepaws two hours ago. Physical examination shows soft tissue swelling of the left carpal region. Palpation of the area elicits pain. Radiographs disclose closed, mid-diaphysial transverse fractures of the left radius and ulna. Which of the following sets of conditions are the most likely complications of this injury?
A) Premature distal ulnar physeal closure causing carpal valgus
B) Premature closure of the medial aspect of the distal radial physis causing carpal valgus
C) Premature proximal ulnar physeal closure causing carpal varus
D) Premature closure of the lateral aspect of the distal radial physis causing carpal varus
E) Premature closure of the proximal radial physis causing limb shortening
A) Premature distal ulnar physeal closure causing carpal valgus
97
On postmortem examination of cattle carcasses at a federally inspected slaughterhouses, the cardiac and masseter muscles are routinely incised by inspectors in order to detect evidence of infection with which of the following?
A) Diphyllobothrium spp
B) Dipylidium spp
C) Taenia spp
D) Toxocara spp
E) Trichinella spp
C) Taenia spp
98
A 5-year-old symptomatic cat tests antigen positive for heartworm disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Dithiazine iodide orally for seven days
B) Levamisole orally for seven days
C) Melarsomine dihydrochloride intramuscularly once
D) Prednisolone orally every 12 hours for 14 days
E) Thiacetarsamide intravenously every 12 hours for two days
D) Prednisolone orally every 12 hours for 14 days
99
An 8-year-old neutered male Doberman Pinscher dog is evaluated because of a five-week history of a progressive, pruritic skin lesion over the left forefoot that the client first noticed after switching from day shift to night shift at work. There is no evidence of trauma. The client reports that the dog tends to develop this condition during warm weather, but he has never received treatment. Physical examination today shows a 3 x 3-cm erythematous ulcerative lesion over the dorsal of the left carpus. The surrounding skin is thickened. No other abnormalities are noted. Acral lick dermatitis is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of these findings?
A) Atopy
B) Dermatophytosis
C) Hyperadrenocorticism
D) Hypothyroidism
E) Pemphigus foliaceus
A) Atopy
100
A pair of 1-year-old male and female Turkish Van cats are brought out to the office for routine examination. The client says that he intends to breed the cats and asks the veterinarian how often the female cat is likely to be fertile in one year. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A) Multiple times, depending on the season
B) Multiple times, not depending on the season
C) Once, depending on the season
D) Once, not depending on the season
A) Multiple times, depending on the season
101
A steer that is unable to regulate rumen gas expulsion has been treated for the past several weeks. The recurrence of the problem led to the treatment as shown in the photograph. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the chronic, nonresponsive nature of the condition?
A) Acute, local peritonitis
B) Chronic pericarditis
C) Continued legume diet
D) A diaphragmatic hernia
E) Vagus (X) nerve damage
E) Vagus (X) nerve damage
102
Which of the following agents associated with mastitis are most likely to be considered contagious and to spread primarily from cow to cow?
A) Escherichia coli, Steptococcus agalactiae, Corynebacterium bovis
B) Mycoplasma, Prototheca, Escherichia coli
C) Nocardia, yeast, and Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus uberis, and Pseudomonas
E) Streptococcus agalactiae, Staphylococcus aureus, and Mycoplasma
E) Streptococcus agalactiae, Staphylococcus aureus, and Mycoplasma
103
A 9-year-old castrated male Himalayan cat has a one-week history of mild dyspnea and inappetence. No abnormalities are seen on laboratory tests. Thoracic radiographs show a 3-cm solitary mass in the caudal lung lobe. Percutaneous aspiration and cytologic examination of the mass hose a large number of degenerative neutrophils and a few atypical epithelial cells with prominent nucleoli and an increased nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Metastatic neoplasia
B) Pulmonary abscess
C) Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
D) Pulmonary granuloma
E) Pulmonary hematoma
C) Pulmonary adenocarcinoma
104
A 4-year-old male rabbit that is housed outside in a hitch has had the lesions shown for three weeks. The most appropriate treatment is administration of which of the following drugs?
A) Ivermectin
B) Metronidazole
C) Praziquantel
D) Prednisone
E) Trimethoprim/sulfadiazine
A) Ivermectin
LIKELY EAR MITES (PSOROPTES CUNICULI)
105
A cat is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Serum biochemistry profile shows slightly increased alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and alkaline phosphatase (ALP) activities. Methimazole 5 mg twice daily orally is prescribed. Three days later, the cat is anorectic and vomiting. Repeat serum biochemistry profile shows markedly increased ALT, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and ALP activities and a markedly increased concentration of bilirubin. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Administer intravenous lactated Ringer's solution
B) Discontinue the methimazole
C) Increase the dose of methimazole
D) Obtain a biopsy specimen of the liver
E) Perform an ultrasonography of the abdomen
B) Discontinue the methimazole
METHIMAZOLE IS KNOWN TO CAUSE HEPATOTOXICITY IN CATS
106
Sixty-five percent of the cows in a beef herd test positive for bovine leukemia virus; of these, what percentage are likely to develop clinical signs of lymphoma?
A) 0% to 5%
B) 6% to 10%
C) 11% to 15%
D) 16% to 20%
E) 21% to 25%
A) 0% to 5%
107
A mature horse has stiffness in all four limbs, with warm and painful swelling extending from the hocks and carpi distally. The horse recently recovered from a respiratory tract infection. Examination shows petechial hemorrhages on the mucous membranes of the lips and gums. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epizootic lymphangitis
B) Equine infectious anemia
C) Laminitis involving all four feet
D) Purpura hemorrhagica
E) Streptococcal septicemia
D) Purpura hemorrhagica
this is a HYPERSENSITIVITY/IMMUNE-MEDIATED VASCULITIS that occurs secondary to STRANGLES
108
A 4-year-old Standardbred gelding is being examined because of fever, depression, and anorexia. A wound is noted over the fetlock. Treatment consists of stall rest, a course of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and phenylbutazone, and local wound care. Two days later, the gelding is passing manure but remains inappetent. It is unsteady on its feet and has begun to bite at its legs, vocalize, and show signs of aggression toward the owner. The owner should be advised to do which of the following?
A) Allow the gelding to have pasture turn-out
B) Discontinue the antibiotic
C) Discontinue the phenylbutazone
D) Provide a companion for the horse
E) Stop handling the horse immediately
E) Stop handling the horse immediately
109
A 7-year-old female spayed mixed-breed dog is being evaluated because of a one-month history of increased thirst and increased urination. The owner reports that the dog's appetite has also increased, and she has been panting. Physical examination shows generalized thinning of the skin, mild alopecia over the trunk, and enlargement of the abdomen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
A) Abdominal ultrasonography
B) Low-dose dexamethasone suppression testing
C) Measurement of baseline cortisol concentration
D) Measurement of endogenous adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) concentration
E) MRI of the brain
B) Low-dose dexamethasone suppression testing
110
Which of the following antibiotics will allow the sale of milk in the shortest time after use in cattle?
A) Ampicillin
B) Ceftiofur
C) Enrofloxacin
D) Oxytetracycline
E) Spectinomycin
B) Ceftiofur
111
Which of the following cestodes has the ability to infect dogs and has the most significant public health implications?
A) Dipylidium caninum
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Spirometra mansonoides
D) Taenia ovis
E) Taenia pisiformis
B) Echinococcus granulosus
ADULT TAPEWORMS that have MINIMAL SIGNS IN DOGS BUT CAN INFECT HUMANS
112
A 2-year-old spayed female domestic longhaired cat is evaluated because of a two-day history of excessive licking of the perineum. Physical examination discloses swelling near the anus at the 3'oclock position. The cat is sedated, and a copious amount of brown-yellow material is expressed from the anal sac. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A) Corynebacterium parvum
B) Escherichia coli
C) Nocardia asteroides
D) Pasteurella multocida
E) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Escherichia coli
USUALLY CAUSE OF ANAL GLAND SACCULITIS IN DOGS & CATS
113
A veterinarian has been asked to "float the teeth" of a 15-year-old Arabian gelding. Examination of the teeth is most likely to show which of the following?
A) The teeth are longest on the buccal surface of both the upper and lower arcades
B) The teeth are longest on the buccal surface of the upper arcade and the lingual surface of the lower arcade
C) The teeth are longest on the lingual surface of both the upper and lower arcade
D) The teeth are longest on the lingual surface of the upper arcade and the buccal surface of the lower arcade
E) There is no difference in wear between the buccal and lingual surfaces of either the upper or lower arcades
B) The teeth are longest on the buccal surface of the upper arcade and the lingual surface of the lower arcade
114
In the dog, mineralized fetal skeletons are most likely to be seen first radiographically at how many days of gestation?
A) 10 to 20
B) 21 to 30
C) 31 to 40
D) 41 to 50
E) 51 to 60
D) 41 to 50
115
An 8-year-old neutered male German Shepherd Dog is brought to the clinic because he was straining to defecate and has had a small amount of watery diarrhea for the past five days. Appetite is reduced, but water intake has not changed. Palpation of the caudal abdomen elicits mild pain. Limited rectal examination shows no significant abnormalities. A radiograph of a lateral view of the abdomen is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Administration of cisapride
B) Administration of fenbendazole
C) Administration of loperamide
D) Deobstipation
E) Withholding of food and water for 24 hours
D) Deobstipation
116
An 8-year-old female Abyssinian cat has severe periodontal disease. The palatopharyngeal arches are dark red and ulcerated. On biopsy, this is reported to be plasma cell gingivitis-stomatitis. Which of the following is most likely to be concurrently observed?
A) Alveolar bone proliferation
B) Firm, raised lesions on the tongue and/or hard palate
C) Herpesvirus isolation from affected oral tissues
D) Increased serum gamma globulin concentration
E) Oral squamous cell carcinoma
D) Increased serum gamma globulin concentration
INCREASED INFLAMMATION = HYPERGLOBULINEMIA
117
Which of the following is the most likely finding if the facial (VII) nerve in the dog is damaged during total ear canal ablation?
A) Circling and ataxia
B) Head tilt
C) Inability to blink the eye
D) Loss of pain perception of the face
E) Loss of pupillary light reflex
C) Inability to blink the eye
118
Which of the following lists represents the clinical signs of progressive retinal atrophy in the dog?
A) Day blindness in early disease, night blindness later in disease
B) Day blindness, retinal vascular attenuation, vitreous liquefaction, cataract formation
C) Night blindness, increased retinal vascular tortuosity, tapetal pigmentation, optic disc hyperemia
D) Night blindness, optic disk pallor, iris atrophy, ocular hypotension
E) Night blindness, retinal vascular attenuation, tapetal hyperreflectivity, optic disk pallor
E) Night blindness, retinal vascular attenuation, tapetal hyperreflectivity, optic disk pallor
119
A 2-year-old domestic shorthaired cat is being evaluated because of an apparent inability to urinate. On examination, the cat has a large bladder that is easily expressed. The tail is limp, with no voluntary movement. Anal sphincter tone is normal. These findings are most consistent with which of the following?
A) Cauda equina syndrome
B) Fibrocartilaginous embolism
C) Lumbosacral instability
D) Protrusion of the intervertebral disk
E) Traumatic damage to the sacral nerves
E) Traumatic damage to the sacral nerves
USUALLY SEE PARESIS OR PARALYSIS WITH FCE, sacral nerves responsible for bladder innervation!
120
Several 4-month-old lambs from a group of 30 lambs are found dead in a pasture. On postmortem examination, the carcasses are emaciated and tissues appear pale. The abomasum contains red-brown fluid with numerous threadlike worms. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate for the treatment of the remaining lambs?
A) Amprolium
B) Clorsulon
C) Ivermectin
D) Monensin
E) Sulfadimethoxine
C) Ivermectin
121
The average length of the estrous cycle in a mare during the physiologic breeding season is how many days?
A) 17
B) 21 to 22
C) 28
D) 35 to 40
B) 21 to 22
122
The manager of a 300-sow farrow-to-finish farm reports that six of 1000 nursery pigs are lying on their sides and paddling. Two pigs are euthanized. Postmortem examination shows valvular endocarditis. Gram-positive cocci are identified on a meningeal smear. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for pigs on this farm?
A) Add electrolytes to the drinking water for all nursery pigs and euthanize affected pigs
B) Add penicillin to the drinking water for all nursery pigs and increase the temperature in the room
C) Administer intravenous fluids and corticosteroids to affected pigs
D) Isolate affected pigs and administer penicillin intramuscularly
E) Syringe-feed a gruel of medicated feed and water to affected pigs
D) Isolate affected pigs and administer penicillin intramuscularly
STREP SUIS INFECTION BEST TREATED WITH PENICILLIN
123
A 4-year-old neutered male British Shorthair cat is brought for routine annual wellness examination. Thoracic auscultation discloses a new grade II/VI cardiac murmur heard loudest over the sternum. Heart rate and rhythm are otherwise normal. Echocardiography discloses a thickened intraventricular septum, a thickened left ventricular free wall, and a markedly enlarged left atrium. No other abnormalities are noted. This cat is at great risk for which of the following?
A) Aortic thromboembolism
B) Blindness
C) Hypertension
D) Seizures
E) Syncope
A) Aortic thromboembolism
HOCM!
124
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism of pyoderma in the dog?
A) Dermatophilus congolensis
B) Proteus mirabilis
C) Pseudomonas mallei
D) Staphylococcus epidermis
E) Staphylococcus intermedius
E) Staphylococcus intermedius
125
A 2-year-old male Labrador Retriever has had bilateral mucopurulent nasal discharge for the past two months. The dog shows no systemic signs of illness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Coccidiomycosis
B) Cryptococcosis
C) Distemper
D) Nasal adenocarcinoma
E) Nasal aspergillosis
E) Nasal aspergillosis
126
Which of the following drugs is CONTRAINDICATED for the treatment of nematodiasis in a leopard tortoise?
A) Albendazole
B) Fenbendazole
C) Ivermectin
D) Levamisole
E) Milbemycin
C) Ivermectin
127
In dogs, neurological adverse effects are most likely to result from an overdose of which of the following?
A) Ampicillin
B) Cephalothin
C) Metronidazole
D) Tetracycline
E) Trimethoprim-sulfadiazine
C) Metronidazole
128
The owner of a dairy finds 10% of a group of 100 heifers dead and 20% down when he goes out to feed in the morning. The heifers had broken into a shed and eaten Faraday 4F (carbofuran), an organophosphate. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate plan of action?
A) Administer activated charcoal per os to affected heifers
B) Administer atropine to affected heifers
C) Administer neostigmine to affected heifers
D) Begin fluid therapy on the down heifers
E) Perform postmortem examinations of the two dead heifers
B) Administer atropine to affected heifers
ORGANOPHOSPHATES OVERWHELM MUSCARINIC RECEPTORS and ATROPINE is a MUSCARINIC ANTAGONIST!
129
The Schirmer tear test is used to measure which of the following?
A) The force needed to separate a healed corneal incision
B) Lacrimal drainage to the nasal cavity
C) Lacrimal production in response to an irritant
D) The percentage of aqueous humor outflow
E) The rate of aqueous humor production
C) Lacrimal production in response to an irritant
130
A 5-year-old Quarter Horse gelding is being examined because of chronic lameness of the right forelimb. No swelling or heat is detected on palpation of the forelimbs, and digital pulses are not increased. There is a mild response to application of hoof testers across the heels of both front feet. When trotting in a straight line, the horse appears to favor the right forelimb slightly. When lunging in a circle to the right, a grade III/V lameness of the right forelimb is observed. When lunging in a circle to the left, a grade III/V lameness of the left forelimb is observed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Fracture of P3
B) Laminitis
C) Navicular syndrome
D) Quittor
E) Sole abscess
C) Navicular syndrome
MILD CHRONIC SHIFTING LAMENESS IN FORELIMBS, POSITIVE RESPONSE TO HOOF TESTERS
Predisposed on QUARTER HORSES
131
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for the treatment of beta-streptococcal pneumonia in horses?
A) Chloramphenicol
B) Erythromycin
C) Gentamicin
D) Oxytetracycline
E) Penicillin
E) Penicillin
132
Approximately 50 lambs in a flock of 200 crossbred lambs on pasture have had lameness over the past week. The lambs range in age from 3 to 4 months. Examination of several affected lambs show erythema and swelling in the interdigital area. In addition to recommending trimming the claws of all lambs where indicated, which of the following recommendations should be given to the owner?
A) Inspect the feet of all lambs; treat all lambs with a foot bath containing copper sulfate
B) Inspect the feet of all lambs; treat all lambs with a foot bath containing zinc sulfate
C) Inspect the feet of lame lambs only; treat all lambs with a foot bath containing copper sulfate
D) Inspect the feet of lame lambs only; treat all lambs with a foot bath containing zinc sulfate
B) Inspect the feet of all lambs; treat all lambs with a foot bath containing zinc sulfate
INTERDIGITAL DERMATITIS/FOOTROT; HERD-LEVEL ISSUE AND ALL SHOULD BE TREATED WITH ZINC > COPPER SULFATE
133
Which of the following is the most likely result of a blood transfusion from a donor cat with type A blood to a recipient cat with type B blood, assuming that neither cat has ever received a blood transfusion?
A) An acute transfusion reaction is not expected to occur because type A cats are universal donors
B) An acute transfusion reaction is not expected to occur because type B cats are universal recipients
C) An acute transfusion reaction will occur because of the presence of naturally occurring anti-A antibodies in the blood of the recipient cat
D) An acute transfusion reaction will occur because of the presence of naturally occurring anti-B antibodies in the donor cat
E) An acute transfusion reaction will occur because red blood cells from type A cats have shorter life spans than cats with type B blood
C) An acute transfusion reaction will occur because of the presence of naturally occurring anti-A antibodies in the blood of the recipient cat
134
Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for rehydration of a cow with right abomasal volvulus?
A) 0.9% Sodium chloride with added KCl
B) 0.9% Sodium chloride with added NaHCO3-
C) 5% Dextrose in water with added KCl
D) 5% Dextrose with added NHCO3-
E) Lactated Ringer's solution with added NHCO3-
A) 0.9% Sodium chloride with added KCl
Right abomasal volvulus = METABOLIC ALKALOSIS (so no bicarb) + HYPOKALEMIA/HYPOCHLOREMIA
135
A 7-year-old intact male German Shepherd Dog has had multiple episodes of syncope over the past two days. An electrocardiogram shows third-degree atrioventricular block. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Administration of atenolol
B) Administration of enalapril
C) Administration of theophylline
D) Implantation of a defibrillator
E) Placement of a pacemaker
E) Placement of a pacemaker
136
A 4-year-old domestic shorthaired cat has pruritus and numerous crusts on the dorsal lumbosacral area and around the neck. Impression smears show eosinophils, neutrophils, and an occasional basophil. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Demodectic mange
B) Dermatophytosis
C) Flea allergy
D) Pemphigus foliaceus
E) Pyoderma
C) Flea allergy
137
In the cat, a finding of increased resonance on percussion of the chest is most indicative of which of the following?
A) Diaphragmatic hernia
B) Pleural effusion
C) Pneumothorax
D) The presence of a pulmonary mass
E) Pulmonary edema
C) Pneumothorax
138
A 5-year-old female alpaca is evaluated because of a three-week history of crusting dermatitis with hair loss. Four other animals in the herd have similar signs. The affected alpaca is bright, alert and responsive. Temperature, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are within normal limits. Physical examination discloses hair loss, hyperkeratosis, and pruritic, crusted papulopustular lesions around the lips, over the ventral abdomen and perineal region, and between the toes. Thoracic auscultation discloses no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Bacterial culture of a skin swab
B) Fecal egg count
C) Immunohistochemical examination of a lesion biopsy specimen
D) Initiation of trial therapy with a parenteral antimicrobial drug
E) Microscopic examination of a skin scraping
E) Microscopic examination of a skin scraping
MOST LIKELY MANGE (Chorioptes, Sarcoptes) --> MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION OF SKIN SCRAPING IS FASTEST AND BEST WAY TO DIAGNOSE
139
Which of the following is the most common clinical sign in horses with guttural pouch mycosis?
A) Coughing
B) Dysphagia
C) Dyspnea
D) Epistaxis
E) Head tilt
D) Epistaxis
140
A 2-year-old Doberman Pinscher dog has a cutaneous tumor on the left side of the cheek. Which of the following is the most likely type of tumor?
A) Apocrine adenocarcinoma
B) Hemangioma
C) Histiocytoma
D) Lymphoma
E) Squamous cell carcinoma
C) Histiocytoma
= BENIGN SKIN TUMOR originating from LANGERHANS CELLS IN THE SKIN
Common in YOUNG DOGS (Dobermans, Boxers) <3 YEARS OLD
141
A 10-year-old neutered male domestic shorthaired cat is in respiratory distress. Temperature is 100.1 F, and heart rate is 210 beats/min with a gallop rhythm. Crackles are heard in the lung fields. Follow-up tests show congestive heart failure caused by dilated cardiomyopathy. The client should be asked about which of the following factors in this cat's history?
A) Chewing on an electrical cord
B) Diet
C) Exposure to rodenticides
D) Previous trauma
E) Previously diagnosed congenital abnormalities
B) Diet
142
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be isolated from a subcutaneous abscess in a cat?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Pasteurella multocida
C) Sporothrix schenckii
D) Staphylococcus intermedius
E) Streptococcus sp
B) Pasteurella multocida
ANAEROBIC and common in SQ abscesses from BITES in CATS
Staph intermedius more common in DOGS and usually NOT PRIMARY PATHOGEN
143
Which of the following structures attaches at the site of the fracture shown in this radiograph?
A) Cunean tendon
B) Deep digital flexor tendon
C) Distal impar ligament
D) Superficial digital flexor tendon
E) Suspensory ligament
E) Suspensory ligament
144
In the dog, which of the following is a paraneoplastic condition that is most often associated with mastocytosis?
A) Gastric hyperacidity
B) Hypercalcemia
C) Hypoglycemia
D) Hypokalemia
E) Metabolic acidosis
A) Gastric hyperacidity
Mastocytosis --> proliferation of mast cells
NEOPLASTIC MAST CELLS DEGRANULATE --> releases HISTAMINE --> acts on H2 receptors on GASTRIC PARIETAL CELLS --> increases gastric acidity
145
A 5-year-old female spayed domestic shorthaired at is brought to the clinic because of a three-month history of intermittent changes in behavior, including excessive vocalizing, standing with her head down and hind end raised, and rolling over. The client reports that the behavioral changes have occurred four times in the past three months, with each occurrence lasting approximately one week. The cat was spayed at 6 months of age. Body condition score is 5/9. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A) Adrenal tumor
B) Behavioral problem
C) Ovarian remnant syndrome
D) Stump pyometra
E) Supernumerary ovary
C) Ovarian remnant syndrome
146
A previously healthy 6-year-old indoor/outdoor male cat is being evaluated because of the acute onset of disorientation, rolling on the ground, and head tilt to the left. Physical examination also shows horizontal nystagmus. Findings on otic examination are within normal limits, and neurologic examination shows no additional cranial nerve or proprioceptive deficits. Findings on radiographs of the skull and results of the cerebrospinal fluid analysis are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Facial (VII) nerve tumor
B) Idiopathic vestibular syndrome
C) Inner ear infection
D) Inner ear polyp
E) Tumor in the tympanic bulla
B) Idiopathic vestibular syndrome
147
Postmortem examination of a neonatal pig reveals distention of half of the midsection of the jejunum with bloody contents and an extremely hyperemic and hemorrhagic wall. These findings are caused by which of the following agents?
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Campylobacter spp
C) Clostridium perfringens type C
D) Escherichia coli
E) Seruplina hyodysenteriae
C) Clostridium perfringens type C
148
Intramuscular injection of prostaglandin F2a in a cow in the midluteal phase of the estrous cycle is most likely to cause which of the following?
A) A 50% increase in serum progesterone concentration in 24 hours
B) Peak of serum luteinizing hormone concentration in 30 hours
C) Decrease of serum estrogen concentration in 48 to 72 hours
D) Occurrence of ovulation in 96 hours
E) Peak of serum follicle-stimulating hormone concentration in 96 hours
D) Occurrence of ovulation in 96 hours
149
Which of the following conditions are most likely responsible for the clinical signs exhibited by the horse in the photograph shown?
A) Liver disease, botulism, vasculitis, salt toxicity
B) Renal disease, heart failure, salt toxicity, thrombocytosis
C) Thrombocytopenia, botulism, heart failure, renal disease
D) Vasculitis, liver disease, heart failure, renal disease
E) Vasculitis, thrombocytosis, heart failure, liver disease
D) Vasculitis, liver disease, heart failure, renal disease
ALL CAUSES OF VENTRAL EDEMA!! THAT'S WHAT'S IN THE PIC
150
A 3-week-old foal has had intermittent abdominal discomfort for several days. The owner reports that the foal appears uncomfortable after nursing and that it has been losing weight. It also seems to make a grinding sound with its teeth and frequently lies in the dorsal or lateral recumbent position for prolonged periods of time. Examination shows thin body condition and a bandage on a forelimb, which the owner explains is to treat lameness for the past 10 days. The owner reports that the lameness has responded very well to treatment with phenylbutazone. Which of the following procedures is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A) Abdominal ultrasonography
B) Abdominocentesis
C) Digital rectal palpation
D) Fecal flotation of parasites
E) Gastroscopy
E) Gastroscopy
PHENYLBUTAZONE IS AN NSAID THAT CAN CAUSE ULCERS!!
151
Which of the following parasites of dogs is most commonly associated with visceral larval migrans in children?
A) Ancylostoma spp
B) Dipylidium spp
C) Taenia spp
D) Toxocara spp
E) Trichuris spp
D) Toxocara spp
152
The shipment of small pet turtles into some jurisdictions is prohibited because these animals may harbor which of the following organisms?
A) Francisella tularensis
B) Leptospira spp
C) Salmonella spp
D) Shigella
E) Toxoplasma gondii
C) Salmonella spp
153
A 12-year-old spayed female Siamese cat is evaluated because of the acute onset of blindness. Physical examination shows dilated pupils bilaterally; menace responses and pupillary light reflexes are absent. The pupils constrict after topical application of pilocarpine. Indirect ophthalmoscopic examination discloses areas of retinal hemorrhage. Administration of which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
A) Amlodipine
B) Mannitol
C) Prednisolone
D) Tacrolimus
E) Timolol
A) Amlodipine
154
Which of the following clinical signs are most likely to support a diagnosis of cerebellar disease in cattle?
A) Ataxia, proprioceptive deficits, and stertorous respiration
B) Bruxism, head pressing, aimless walking, blindness, and convulsions
C) Loss of sensation and voluntary movement of a single limb
D) Tremors, head bobbing, and hypermetria with normal mentation
E) Unilateral mitosis, facial anesthesia, blindness, and a deviated philtrum
D) Tremors, head bobbing, and hypermetria with normal mentation
155
Which of the following organisms is most commonly isolated from the urine of dogs with a urinary tract infection?
A) Citrobacter spp
B) Escherichia coli
C) Proteus mirabilis
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
E) Streptococcus spp
B) Escherichia coli
156
A 9-year-old neutered male Labrador Retriever dog has recently been diagnosed with osteoarthritis of multiple joints. Physical examination shows no other abnormalities. Treatment with carprofen is initiated for long-term control of pain. Which of the following should be monitored in this dog to prevent toxicity associated with long-term administration of carprofen?
A) Buccal mucosal bleeding time
B) Fecal occult blood
C) Microalbuminuria
D) Serum liver enzyme activities
D) Serum liver enzyme activities
157
A 3-year-old spayed female Bloodhound dog is evaluated four hours after being hit by a car. Temperature is 101.8, heart rate is 130 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min. On physical examination, the dog appears cardiovascularly stable. Radiographs show a closed, mid-diaphysial, complete transverse fracture of the left humerus. Which of the following bandage techniques is most appropriate to stabilize this dog's fracture?
A) Bivalve cast
B) Ehmer sling
C) Modified Robert-Jones bandage
D) Spica splint
E) Velpeau sling
D) Spica splint
GOES OVER TRUNK AND LIMB, can stabilize PROXIMAL LONGBONES
158
An 8-year-old neutered male Siamese cat is evaluated because of a two-week history of constipation. On physical examination, the colon is distended and contains a large amount of firm feces. An enema will be administered. Which of the following enema solutions has the greatest risk for creating an electrolyte imbalance in this cat?
A) Dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
B) Lactulose
C) Mineral oil
D) 0.9% Sodium chloride
E) Sodium phosphate
E) Sodium phosphate
CATS EXCRETE PHOSPHATE SLOWLY, and being given rectally will cause RAPID ABSORPTION --> fatal hyperphosphatemia and other electrolyte derangements
159
A 2-year-old spayed female dog is being evaluated because of a history of acute dyspnea. The dog lives on a farm where herbicides and rodenticides are kept. A thoracic radiograph is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in establishing the diagnosis?
A) Assay for von Willebrand's factor
B) Complete blood count
C) Exploratory thoracotomy
D) Measurement of activated clotting time
E) Transtracheal wash
D) Measurement of activated clotting time
PROBABLY HEMOTHORAX! DUE TO ANTICOAGULANT RODENTICIDE
160
Which of the following is the most effective agent for the sterilization of surgical instruments?
A) Chlorhexidine
B) Ethylene oxide
C) Hydrogen peroxide
D) Isopropyl alcohol
E) Povidone-iodine
B) Ethylene oxide
161
A 2-year-old indoor/outdoor male domestic shorthaired cat is brought for evaluation because of listlessness and lethargy. Ten days ago, the cat killed a wild cottontail rabbit and ate a large portion of it. Physical examination today shows enlarged submandibular, prescapular, and popliteal lymph nodes that are painful on palpation. Oral examination shows ulcers on the tongue and gingiva. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Echinococcus multilocularis
C) Ehrlichia canis
D) Francisella tularensis
E) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Francisella tularensis
TULAREMIA COMES FROM RABBITS
162
A fourth-lactation cow is being examined because of the eye lesion shown in the photograph. The cow is not pregnant as confirmed by rectal palpation; however, several 10- to 15-cm masses are found in the caudal abdomen. Both prescapular lymph nodes are five times the normal size. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Cryotherapy using liquid nitrogen
B) Enucleation of the eye
C) Euthanasia
D) Slaughter
C) Euthanasia
163
A veterinary technician at a bovine practice announces that she is pregnant. Her physician has asked her for a list of zoonotic diseases that she may be exposed to in practice. Which of the following diseases is most appropriate to put on this list?
A) Bovine leukosis
B) Bovine virus diarrhea
C) Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
D) Leptospirosis
E) Paratuberculosis
D) Leptospirosis
164
A 7-year-old neutered male domestic shorthaired cat is brought to the clinic by the client for reevaluation three weeks after starting therapy for an uncomplicated upper respiratory infection. The client reports that the cat has had a ravenous appetite since the last visit but has had difficulty swallowing its food and regurgitates immediately after eating. The cat has lost 1.1 lb (0.5 kg) in the past three weeks. Temperature is 100.8F and respiratory rate is 20 breaths/min. Physical examination shows a well-hydrated cat with no significant physical abnormalities. Endoscopic examination of the esophagus shows a ridge of fibrous tissue and inflammation of adjacent mucosa at the level of the heart base. Administration of which of the following agents was most likely responsible for these adverse effects?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Cephalexin
C) Doxycyline
D) Enrofloxacin
E) Sulfadimethoxine
C) Doxycyline --> ESOPHAGEAL STRICTURES
165
A 7-year-old intact male Labrador Retriever dog used for hunting is evaluated because of a two-day history of the findings shown in the photograph. On otoscopic examination of the right ear, the tympanic membrane is intact; ceruminous gland hyperplasia is noted. Examination of the left ear shows no abnormalities. Gram staining of the discharge from the right ear discloses 1 to 3 cocci bacteria and 12 to 15 Malassezia spp organisms per high powered field. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Ablation of the right ear canal
B) CT scan of the head
C) Initiation of a hypoallergenic diet
D) Myringotomy of the right tympanic membrane
E) Surgical drainage of the right pinna
E) Surgical drainage of the right pinna
166
Which of the following is the most reasonable estimation of a dog's blood volume?
A) 40 mL/lb (88 mL/kg)
B) 50 mL/lb (110 mL/kg)
C) 65 mL/lb (143 mL/kg)
D) 80 mL/lb (176 mL/kg)
E) 90 mL/lb (198 mL/kg)
A) 40 mL/lb (88 mL/kg)
167
Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for the treatment of myonecrosis caused by Clostridium perfringens infection in horses?
A) Cloxacillin
B) Gentamicin
C) Penicillin
D) Rifampin
E) Tobramycin
C) Penicillin
168
The owner of a group of 2-year-old Hereford-Angus cross first-calf heifers has observed a high mortality rate (20%) in the calves younger than two weeks. It is suspected that dystocia is affecting calf survival. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation to reduce the dystocia rate and improve calf health and survival?
A) Breed heifers to only continental breeds of bull
B) Breed heifers to bulls with low expected progeny differences (EPD) for birth weight
C) Do not breed heifers younger than 24 months
D) Ensure that heifers achieve 50% of their mature body weight prior to breedin
E) Ensure that heifers have a body condition score of less than 5/9
B) Breed heifers to bulls with low expected progeny differences (EPD) for birth weight
169
A flock of 30,000 5-week-old commercial broilers has an increase in mortality. Affected birds are listless and have bloody diarrhea. A photograph of an intestinal scraping obtained on postmortem examination of an affected bird is shown. Administration of which of the following agents is most likely to decrease the risk of this condition in subsequent flocks?
A) Amantadine
B) Amprolium
C) Biotin
D) Metronidazole
E) Tetracycline
B) Amprolium
170
The manager of a 2000-sow herd reports an annual sow mortality rate of 18% in August during the past three years. Records show that 23 of the 30 deaths during the previous month occurred right after farrowing. Seventeen of the 23 farrowing-related deaths occurred in sows with a parity of five or greater. Data from the month of August are shown. Which of the following best describes this study?
A) Cohort
B) Cross-sectional
C) Nonrandomized controlled
D) Retrospective analytical
E) Two-by-two factorial
D) Retrospective analytical
171
Over the past two weeks, a boar has had a high percentage of proximal and distal droplets in his semen. The overall motility of the last collection is 50%. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Administer a broad-spectrum antibiotic to treat infection
B) Collect semen from the boar more frequently to eliminate affected sperm
C) Cull the boar because this condition will likely worsen
D) Do not change anything because this condition will improve over time
E) Suspend collecting semen from the boar for three weeks
E) Suspend collecting semen from the boar for three weeks
DROPLETS SHOW ABNORMAL SPERM MATURATION, which can occur due to STRESS, ILLNESS, OVERUSE OF THE BOAR --> wait 3 weeks!
172
A 6-year-old neutered male Burmese cat has lost 1.1 lb (0.5 kg) since he was examined 12 months ago. On physical examination, the cat is reluctant to have his mouth examined. Both palatopharyngeal arches are swollen and dark red and bleed easily. Additionally, several incisors are missing, and one lower premolar is fractured off at the gum line. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this cat's mouth pain?
A) Bacterial tonsilitis
B) Herpesvirus infection
C) Lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis
D) Multiple eosinophilic granulomas
E) Periapical tooth root abscess
C) Lymphocytic-plasmacytic stomatitis
CAUSES SEVERE INFLAMMATION OF CAUDAL ORAL CAVITY --> PALATOPHARYNGEAL ARCHES & TOOTH LOSS due to PERIODONTAL INFLAMMATION
173
Nasal radiographs from a 10-year-old Airdale dog with a unilateral purulent, hemorrhagic nasal discharge show loss of trabecular pattern and increased soft tissue density in the left nasal passage as well as opacification of the frontal sinus. Which of the following conditions is most likely to produce these findings?
A) Adenocarcinoma
B) Bacterial infection with Pasteurella spp
C) Hemangiosarcoma
D) Lymphoma
E) Nasal polyps
A) Adenocarcinoma
Airdales are PREDISPOSED TO NASAL TUMORS (adenocarcinomas, malignant epithelial tumor)
DESTRUCTION OF NASAL TURBINATES ON RADIOGRAPHS showing LOCAL INVASIVENESS & SOFT TISSUE OPACITY (tumor)
Nasal polyps usually benign, bilateral/diffuse and NOT as common in dogs < cats
174
A 5-year-old neutered male ferret with bilateral truncal alopecia is being evaluated because of stranguria and dysuria. A sonogram shows an enlarged prostate gland. In addition to providing a patent urine flow, which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A) Administration of systemic antibiotics
B) Adrenalectomy
C) Cystocentesis
D) Prostatectomy
E) Urine culture
B) Adrenalectomy
Adrenal gland dz COMMON IN FERRETS and causes EXCESS RELEASE OF SEX HORMONES (thus enlarged prostate) --> best to remove adrenal gland!
175
A 3-week-old, hand-fed cockatiel is being evaluated because of inappetence, regurgitation and delayed crop emptying. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A) Administration of metoclopramide
B) Biopsy of the crop wall
C) Cytologic examination of crop contents
D) Radiography of the crop
E) Ultrasonography of the crop
C) Cytologic examination of crop contents
176
A 3-month-old guinea pig has had partial anorexia and lameness for the past two weeks. The client says that the guinea pig attempts to bite and vocalize when it is picked up and held. This behavior never occurred before now. The guinea pig's diet consists of timothy hay, alfalfa cubes, apples, and banana. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Selenium deficiency
B) Vitamin A deficiency
C) Vitamin B6 deficiency
D) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency
E) Vitamin E (alpha-tocopherol) deficiency
D) Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency
177
Which of the following metabolic disturbances are most likely to develop following the rupture of the urinary bladder in the foal?
A) Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, and mild to moderate acidosis
B) Hypernatremia, hyperkalemia, and mild to moderate alkalosis
C) Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a mild to moderate acidosis
D) Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a mild to moderate alkalosis
E) Hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and a mild to moderate alkalosis
C) Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and a mild to moderate acidosis
ABSORPTION OF URINE SOLUTES ACROSS PERITONEUM!
Na DILUTED due to movement of WATER in urine into EXTRACELLULAR SPACE and then sodium GOES INTO PERITONEAL CAVITY
K HIGH because NORMALLY EXCRETED IN URINE and now RESORBED ACROSS PERITONEUM
Acidosis because RESORPTION OF H+ IONS, UREA, and ORGANIC ACIDS --> ACIDOSIS
178
On physical examination of a 24-hour-old foal, temperature is 101 F, heart rate is 80 beats/min, and respiratory rate is 48 breaths/min. The foal is slightly lethargic and shows marked icterus. Neonatal isoerythrolysis is suspected. Which of the following recommendations should be made to prevent this occurrence at the next foaling?
A) Breed mare to a related stallion
B) Do not allow the foal to nurse for six hours; provide a plasma transfusion
C) Do not allow the foal to nurse for 18 hours; provide an alternative source of colostrum
D) Give the foal plasma orally; then, allow it to nurse
E) No changes are necessary, as the situation is unlikely to recur
C) Do not allow the foal to nurse for 18 hours; provide an alternative source of colostrum
NEONATAL ISOERYTHROLYSIS = TYPE II HYPERSENSITIVITY RXN where MARE'S COLOSTRUM HAS Abs AGAINST FOAL'S RBCS
Need to wait 18 hours because ANTIBODIES IN THE COLOSTRUM ONLY ABSORBED FOR FIRST 18-24 HOURS in foal, so can give a MILK REPLACER or COLOSTRUM FROM ANOTHER MARE
179
A 4-year-old female Maltese dog has had the progressive onset of tremors, excitability, and panting during the past hour. She has had two tonic seizures during this time. The dog whelped five healthy puppies four weeks ago. Her temperature is 103.9 F. On examination, the dog is very anxious, has muscle tremors, and is hyperresponsive to tactile stimulation. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate pharmacologic treatment of this dog?
A) Calcium gluconate intravenously
B) Dexamethasone intravenously
C) Diazepam intravenously
D) Phenobarbital intravenously
E) Potassium bromide orally
A) Calcium gluconate intravenously
HYPOCALCEMIA causes NEUROMUSCULAR EXCITABILITY, TREMORS & SEIZURES
180
In the dog, injury to which of the following nerves is most likely to account for the observed sign of walking on the dorsum of the front paw?
A) Lateral thoracic
B) Median
C) Musculocutaneous
D) Radial
E) Ulnar
D) Radial
Vet School
flashcards
Decks in class (149)
# Cards
-
Support & Movement 1: Brachial Plexus Nerves & What They Innervate14
-
TPR for Hippiatrika (Cat, Dog, Horse, Cow, Camelid)5
-
Luteal vs. Non-Luteal Dependent Species2
-
Reproduction and Development I: CL Lifespan and Placental Progestogen8
-
Reproduction & Development I: Placenta Types by Species4
-
Reproduction & Development I: Placenta Layers by Species3
-
Reproduction & Development I: Type of Placenta Loss by Species2
-
Defense & Barriers 1: Cytokines16
-
Digestion & Metabolism I: Gastric Drugs11
-
Digestion & Metabolism I: Microminerals3
-
Digestion & Metabolism I: Small Animal Micronutrients14
-
Digestion & Metabolism I: Small Animal Nutrient Values4
-
Cranial Nerves13
-
Effect of Lesions16
-
Oil and Blood Gas Partition Coefficients4
-
FTK 3: Round Cell Tumors6
-
FTK 3: Basic Cancer Terms6
-
FTK 3: Amyloid5
-
FTK 3: Clin Path S165
-
Circ & Resp 2: Clin Path S1197
-
Circ & Resp 2: Lungworm Species & Life Cycles9
-
Support & Movement 2: Clin Path S135
-
FTK 4: Large Animal Anesthesia52
-
FTK 4: Zoo Animal Anesthesia30
-
FTK 4: Pharmacokinetics Terms19
-
FTK 4: Exotic Animal Anesthesia36
-
FTK 4: LA Feed & Water Toxicosis24
-
FTK 4: Toxicology Principles27
-
FTK 4: Toxicosis Treatment20
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Skin Lesions14
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Skin Basics26
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Skin Diseases22
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Skin Patterns34
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Skin Exam/Cytology42
-
Defense & Barriers: Otitis32
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Pruritus52
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Pruritus Treatment21
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Eosinophilic Dermatoses41
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Ectoparasites66
-
Defense & Barriers: Otitis 225
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Adverse Food Reactions13
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Folliculitis55
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Folliculitis 21
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Equine Immunodeficiencies37
-
Defense & Barriers 2: SA Immunodeficiency30
-
Defense & Barriers 2: LA Immunodeficiency25
-
Defense & Barriers 2: (1) Endocrine Diseases of Adrenal Gland30
-
Defense & Barriers 2: (2) Endocrine Diseases of Adrenal Gland22
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Endocrine (Mauldin)24
-
Defense & Barriers 2: (3) Endocrine Diseases of the Adrenal Gland19
-
Defense & Barriers 2: (4) Endocrine Diseases of the Adrenal Gland27
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Adrenal Tumors15
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Anemia & Thrombocytopenia46
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Pig Disease23
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Poultry Diseases25
-
Defense & Barriers 2: FeLV & FIV29
-
Defense & Barriers 2: FIP27
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Ruminant Retroviruses22
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Hematolymphoid Pathology41
-
Defense & Barriers 2: Canine Lymphoma & Leukemia31
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Periodontal & Oral Dz43
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Pathology of SA Oral Cavity54
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Pathology of LA Oral Cavity44
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Radiology of GI NORMAL49
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Radiology of GI ABNORMAL43
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Gastric DZ SA25
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Abdominal Approaches (Holt)23
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Maxillofacial & Oral Dz31
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: LA Common GI Parasites35
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: SA Common GI Parasites40
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Esophageal Sx (Holt)8
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: LA Esophageal Dz37
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: LA Oral Dz Quick16
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: SA Esophageal & Swallowing Dz32
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Bacterial Pathophys34
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Large Intestinal Sx40
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Sx dz of Equine Colon46
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Medical Dz of Equine Colon36
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Non-Equine LI Dz55
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: LA Peritoneal Dz31
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Neonate Ruminant22
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Neonate Foal52
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Canine Hepatic Dz34
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Feline Hepatic Dz31
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Peritonitis23
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Liver Response to Injury37
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: SA Exocrine & Pancreatic Dz36
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Liver & Pancreas Sx48
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Feline Biliary Sx31
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Equine Hepatic Dz38
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Ruminant Hepatic Dz23
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Poultry Intestinal Dz28
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Swine GI Dz34
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: SA Therapeutic Nutrition25
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Diabetes Mellitus61
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Insulin, Glucose Curves & Diabetes63
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Diabetic Ketoacidosis22
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Thyroid Diseases46
-
Digestion & Metabolism 2: Thyroid & Pancreas Sx30
-
Clin Path S2123
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Drug Metabolism32
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Circulatory Hepatopathology49
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Hepatobiliary Imaging36
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Portosystemic Shunts45
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Group Presentation Qs43
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Renal Dz & Anesthesia72
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Equine Nephrology55
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Urinary Sx Ruminants36
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Urinary Dz Ruminants38
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Urinary Tumors38
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Proteinuria & PLN52
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Hepatotoxins29
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Nephrotoxins34
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Urinary Pathology67
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Infections of the UT54
-
Elimination & Detox 2: UT Trauma18
-
Elimination & Detox 2: Sx of UT35
-
Elimination & Detox: Urolithiasis Sx6
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Orbital Dz52
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Neuro-Ophthalmic Exam39
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Eyelids53
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Lacrimal/Nasolacrimal39
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Conjunctiva31
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Cornea71
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Anterior Uvea38
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Glaucoma49
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Eye Exam14
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Ocular Pathology28
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Neuro Clinical Signs15
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Canine Aggression13
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Separation Anxiety8
-
Cognition & Senses 2: SA Intracranial Dz30
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Seizures & Head Trauma28
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Vestibular Dz27
-
Cognition & Senses 2: Intracranial Neoplasia30
-
Y2 OSCE: GI Parasite ID6
-
Y2 OSCE: Ticks4
-
Y2 OSCE: Urinalysis10
-
Y2 OSCE: Troubleshooting Fluids7
-
Intracardiac Pressures6
-
NAVLE Self Assessment #2 Qs180
-
Canine PowerPages 1232
-
Canine PowerPages 2257
-
Feline PowerPages115
-
Equine PowerPages242
-
Bovine PowerPages144
-
Porcine PowerPages55
-
Ovine & Caprine PowerPages77
-
Path48
