nervous

Question 1

the prosencephalon includes which parts
a) telencephalon
b) mesencephalon
c) metencephalon
d) myelencephalon

Answer 1

A and diencephalon- forebrain

Question 2

the prosencephalon includes which parts
a) pons
b) cerebellum
c) cerebral cortex
d) basal nuclei
e) thalamus
f) hypothalamus
g) cerebral peduncles
h) midbrain
i) medulla oblongata

Answer 2

C, D, E, F
The telencephalon develops into the cerebrum, which includes the cerebral cortex, underlying white matter, and the basal nuclei (also known as basal ganglia).
The diencephalon develops into the thalamus and hypothalamus (as well as the epithalamus and subthalamus
and the limbic system

Question 3

the mesencephalon includes the
a) pons
b) cerebellum
c) cerebral cortex
d) basal nuclei
e) thalamus
f) hypothalamus
g)cerebral peduncles
h) midbrain
i) medulla oblongata

Answer 3

G, H- midbrain including tectum, tegmentum, cerebral peduncles

Question 4

the metencephalon includes what?
a) pons
b) cerebellum
c) cerebral cortex
d) basal nuclei
e) thalamus
f) hypothalamus
g)cerebral peduncles
h) midbrain
i) medulla oblongata

Answer 4

A, B

Question 5

the rhombencephalon includes:
a) telencephalon
b) mesencephalon
c) metencephalon
d) myelencephalon

Answer 5

C (pons, cerebellum) and D (medulla oblongata)

Question 6

which cranial nerves come from the forebrain?

Answer 6

olfactory and optic

Question 7

which cranial nerves come from the midbrain

Answer 7

oculomotor, trochlear

Question 8

which cranial nerve comes from the pons

Answer 8

trigeminal

Question 9

which cranial nerve runs through the foramen magnum?

Answer 9

part of the accessory nerve:
The accessory nerve, has its origin in the medulla oblongata and also in the cervical spinal cord. The cranial roots have their cell bodies in the caudal portion of the nucleus ambiguus of the medulla oblongata.
Lateral to the medulla, they join the axons of the spinal roots, which enter the cranial cavity via the foramen magnum. Within the cranial cavity the spinal part of the accessory nerve lies on the ventrolateral surface of the medulla before joining the cranial roots to form the accessory
nerve.
In addition to dorsal and ventral roots, the first seven (sometimes eight) cervical segments have rootlets that emerge midlaterally from the spinal cord and join to form the spinal root of the accessory nerve
The axons in the spinal roots are contained in the external branch of the accessory nerve, which leaves the cranial cavity with the vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves through the jugular foramen (inner skull hole) and through tympanooccipital fissure

Question 10

in the spinal cord, where do the afferent neuron arise from?
a) ventral horn
b) dorsal horn
c) dorsal funiculus
d) venral funiculus

Answer 10

B- grey matter- afferent is incoming, sensory information
grey matter is central and white matter is peripheral in the cord

dorsal is both somatic and visceral sensory
somatic is medially located
visceral is laterally located

Question 11

in the spinal cord, where do the efferent neuron arise from?
a) ventral horn
b) dorsal horn
c) dorsal funiculus
d) venral funiculus

Answer 11

A- grey matter- effect, motor

both somatic and visceral autonomic

Question 12

what is the role of white matter in the spinal cord?

Answer 12

Spinal cord white matter is formed by concentrations of myelinated and nonmyelinated axons. Within white matter,
there are afferent axons, which enter the spinal cord through dorsal roots, efferent axons, which exit the spinal cord through
ventral roots, and axons that compose pathways that convey information cranially and caudally in the spinal cord. Cranially and caudally projecting axons conveying information from one location to another typically have a common function and travel together in the white matter. Collectively,
the related axons are identified as a tract or fasciculus. Tracts are named for their origin and termination (e.g., spinothalamic
and vestibulospinal).

Question 13

the white matter of the spinal cord is made up of:
a) 3 horns- dorsal, ventral and middle
b) 3 funiculi- dorsal, lateral and ventral
c) 3 trabeculae- dorsal, ventral and middle

Answer 13

B

positioned superficially in the spinal cord. It features packed myelinated axons. Nonmyelinated axons are also present in white matter, as are oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, and blood vessels (these vessels are less dense than those in gray matter).
The funiculi are composed of ascending and descending nerve fibers many of which are
grouped into bundles (fasciculi or tracts)
o These tracts connect the brain and interconnect the various spinal segments of the cord
E.g. rubrospinal tract, ventral spinocerebellar tract etc.

Question 14

1. Which funiculus primarily carries fine touch, vibration, and conscious proprioception?
   A. ventral funiculus
   B. Lateral funiculus
   C. dorsal funiculus
   D. Central gray matter

Answer 14

C

dorsal funiculus = precise sensory (touch, vibration, proprioception).

Lateral funiculus = mixed sensory (pain, temperature, proprioception) + motor control.

ventral funiculus = mostly motor + crude sensory.

The dorsal funiculus – consists essentially of ascending tracts mainly involved in proprioception
The lateral funiculus – contains both ascending (proprioception, touch, pressure, temperature and pain pathways) and descending (motor
pathways) tracts
The ventral funiculus – contains only descending motor tracts.

Question 15

2. The lateral corticospinal tract, which controls voluntary movement, is located in the:
   A. dorsal funiculus
   B. Lateral funiculus
   C. ventral horn
   D. Central canal

Answer 15

B

Question 16

which spinal nerves have ganglions? dorsal or ventral or both?

Answer 16

Dorsal root - afferent (sensory) fibres whose cell bodies are clumped together to form a
visible swelling — the DORSAL ROOT GANGLION
o Ventral Root - efferent fibres emanating from the ventral horn of the gray matter
These two roots join peripherally to the dorsal root ganglion to form the mixed spinal nerve that leaves the canal through the IVF

Question 17

does the spinal cord extend further caudally at birth or at maturity?

Answer 17

at birth
At birth, the canine spinal cord extends into the sacrum. Following postnatal development, the spinal cord terminates in
the caudal lumbar region. Overall, the vertebral column outgrows the spinal cord in length; however, the degree of elongate
growth of spinal cord segments is regionally variable

Question 18

where does the most cranial spinal cord nerve exit the central nervous system?

Answer 18

lateral vertebral foramen, located in the dorsal arch of the atlas.

Question 19

are the nerves that make up the cauda equina surrounded by meninges?

Answer 19

yes- tightly

Question 20

Within the vertebral canal, an epidural space separates spinal cord dura mater from the periosteum lining the canal, except where?
a) dorsally level with c1
b) ventrally, level with c1 and c2
c) foramen magnum- brachial plexus, where it is fused to the periosteum circumferentially
d) dorsally level with c1 and c2

Answer 20

B it is fused with the periosteum

There is no epidural space in the cranial cavity, because cranial dura mater doubles as periosteum. It originates embryologically as a double layer, and at certain locations it splits into an outer periosteal layer and an inner layer that forms partitions between
parts of the brain. A venous sinus is generally present where the layers separate

Question 21

how fat does the meningeal/ dural sheath extend along the nerve root

Answer 21

At an intervertebral foramen, meningeal sheath fibrous tissue becomes continuous with epineurium and perineurium
of spinal nerves. Also, dura mater merges with periosteum. In the lumbosacral region, fibrous bands extend from the spinal cord dura mater to the floor of the vertebral canal. The bands often accompany spinal roots and attach near intervertebral
foramina.

Question 22

what is the denticulate ligament?

Answer 22

Pia mater collagen is bilaterally thickened along the lateral surface of the spinal cord, forming a denticulate ligament. Denticulate
ligaments have lateral extensions that traverse the subarachnoid space and attach to dura mater, thereby suspending the spinal cord in cerebrospinal fluid within the subarachnoid space.

Question 23

what is th embryological origin of the ventricular system of the brain?
a) ectoderm
b) neural tube
c) mesoderm
d) endoderm
e) neural crest

Answer 23

B

Question 24

what is the tela choroidea

Answer 24

The tela choroidea is the thin, highly vascularised, loose connective tissue portion of pia mater that gives rise to the choroid plexus. Thus, it is basically the lamina propria of the ependyma and lies directly adherent to it, without any tissue in between the two. At one region along the wall of each ventricle, nervous tissue is absent so that pia mater contacts ependyma. The combined tissue, called tela choroidea, forms part of the floor of each lateral ventricle and the roof of the third and fourth ventricles. Tela choroidea plus a plexus of capillaries gives rise to choroid plexus.

At one region along the wall of each ventricle, nervous tissue is absent so that pia mater contacts ependyma. The combined tissue, called tela choroidea, forms part of the floor of each lateral
ventricle and the roof of the third and fourth ventricles.
- tela choroidea + a plexus of capillaries = choroid plexus.

Question 25

fill in the blanks

Answer 25

green- mesencephalic aqueduct orange- (ventral horn (temporal), lateral ventricle purple- third ventricle

Question 26

what is this

Answer 26

mesencephalic aqueduct

Question 27

what is the normal rate of csf production in dogs? a) 1ml/min b) 3ml/min c) 0.05ml/min d) 0.01ml/min

Answer 27

C or 3ml/hr Feline --> 0.017 mL/min or 1 mls/hr Hu --> 0.5 mL/min - Rate of production is independent of blood hydrostatic pressure but is influenced by osmotic pressure of blood (hypertonic solutions in the blood reduce rate of formation - you can give hypertonic NaCl to reduce ICP) - Rate of production also independent of pressure of CSF in the ventricular system

Question 28

where does lymph drain to drom the brain?

Answer 28

into the ventricular system, the central nervous system lacks lymph vessels

Question 29

can csf and extracellular fluid mix?

Answer 29

Cerebrospinal fluid is separated from extracellular fluid of nervous tissue by glial limiting membrane and either pia mater or ependyma. Solutes can be exchanged between the two fluid compartments, and cerebrospinal fluid is normally augmented by flow of extracellular fluid from nervous tissue.

Question 30

explain the pathway of the flow of csf

Answer 30

Cerebrospinal fluid flows from the lateral ventricles, through interventricular foramina, into the third ventricle, and, through the mesencephalic aqueduct, into the fourth ventricle. From the fourth ventricle, fluid flows into the subarachnoid space, through bilateral recesses and apertures. A very small amount of fluid from the fourth ventricle flows into the central canal and, ultimately, the terminal ventricle of the spinal cord.

Question 31

how does csf return to the blood?

Answer 31

Two major drainage routes for return of cerebrospinal fluid to blood are arachnoid villi and lymphatics associated with nerves. There is considerable fluid drainage associated with the optic and olfactory nerves. minimal retruns through venules in the subarachnoid space

Question 32

what is the relationship between the lumbosacral nerve segments and their corresponding vertebrae?

Answer 32

Caudal lumbar, sacral, caudal region--> segments lie progressively cranial to their respective vertebra

Question 33

what is the relationship between the cervical nerve segments and their corresponding vertebrae?

Answer 33

- Initial Cervical Region - The first cervical segment lies within the corresponding vertebra - Caudal cervical through cranial thoracic region - Segments are positioned cranial to their respective vertebrae - Thoracolumbar region - Segments lie within their corresponding vertebrae

Question 34

where does th espianl cord end in dogs and cats?

Answer 34

o End of the spinal cord - Ca – L5/L6; Fe – L6/L7 o Eq – S2 o Ru and Su – L6

Question 35

which nerve innervates the trapezius mm?

Answer 35

accessory

Question 36

which nerve innervates the omotransversarius mm?

Answer 36

accessory

Question 37

which nerve innervates the brachiocephalicus and rhomboideus mm?

Answer 37

not accessory?

Question 38

which nerve innervates the biceps mm?

Answer 38

musculocutaneous (also brachialis mm) also biceps reflex

Question 39

which nerve innervates the triceps mm?

Answer 39

radial also triceps reflex

Question 40

which nerve from the brachial plexus extends laterally around the caudal aspect of the humerus? a) axillary b) median c) radial d) ulnar

Answer 40

C- passes close to the triceps which it innervates. the others remain medial also inntervate the extensors, which are lateral on the elbow - Radial nerve (C7-T-2) – largest nerve of the brachial plexus o Supplies the extensors of the elbow, carpal and digital joints, triceps, supinator, brachioradialis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles -- ALL CAUDOLATERAL MUSCLES!

Question 41

which brachial plexus nerves inntervates the flexors of the carpus and digits?

Answer 41

median and ulnar

Question 42

which spinal nerve segments make up the sciatic nerve generally?

Answer 42

L6, 7, s1

Question 43

which muscles of the proximal thigh does the sciatic nerve innervate?

Answer 43

biceps femoris, semimembranous, semitendinous also others through the common peroneal and tibial nn.

Question 44

which pelvic limb nerve is important for the flexor reflex?

Answer 44

sciatic nerve largest nn in the body

Question 45

The axillary nerve innervates the? a) extensors of the shoulder b) flexors of the shoulder c) flexors of the elbow d) extensors of the elbow

Answer 45

B mm. teres major and deltoideous - Cranial lateral cutaneous brachial nerve

Question 46

what is the function of the femoral nerve (2)? a) extensors of the pelvic limb b) flexors of the pelvic limb c) ancillary flexor of the hip d) bladder control

Answer 46

A, C

Question 47

which muscles does the proximal femoral nerve pass through?

Answer 47

psoas mm Exits through the psoas muscles to reach a gap between the dorsocaudal corner of the flank and the psoas muscles (femoral canal). -It is accompanied by the femoral artery and vein and runs between the sartorius and pectineus. -Ends within the quadriceps femoris - Innervates - extensors of the limb and ancillary flexor of the hip - Damage to this nerve is bad – the quadriceps muscle would be paralysed and the stifle joint cannot be fixated, the limb cannot support weight

Question 48

where does the phrenic nerve originate?

Answer 48

- Cervical Ventral Rami - PHRENIC NERVE - Formed by the 5th, 6th, and 7th cervical nerves, extending ventrally to enter the mediastinum between the first 2 ribs. - The right nerve utilizes the plica vena cavae in the last part of its course. - The left phrenic nerve lies in a similar plica from the entire left pleural sheet of the mediastinum - The nerve ramifies in the diaphragm - Exit the neuroforamen CRANIAL to the cervical vertebrae

Question 49

which nerves are important for urine retention

Answer 49

hypogastric and pudendal

Question 50

whare does the hypogastric nerve originate

Answer 50

L1-4

Question 51

where does the pudendal nerve originate

Answer 51

s1-s2

Question 52

How is urine retention controlled (nerves, receptors, action)

Answer 52

- detrusor m. relaxation --> HYPOGASTRIC nerve (beta-adrenergic) (L1-L4) - internal sphincter contraction -->HYPOGASTRIC nerve (alpha-adrenergic) (L1-L4) - external sphincter contraction --> PUDENDAL nerve (S1-S2)(nicotinic)

Question 53

which nerves are important for urination?

Answer 53

hypogastric, pudendal and pelvic

Question 54

where does the pelvic nerve originate?

Answer 54

S1-3

Question 55

how is urination controlled (nerves, receptors, action)

Answer 55

parasympathetic: - internal sphincter relaxation --> inhibition of hypogastric input - external sphincter relaxation --> inhibition of pudendal input - detrusor m. contraction --> PELVIC nerve (S1-S3) (muscarinic ACh receptors)

Question 56

where is the lesion if the bladder is hard and difficult to express

Answer 56

pons-L7. upper motor neuron bladder

Question 57

where is the lesion if the bladder is flaccid and difficult to express?

Answer 57

S1-3. LMN bladder

Question 58

where is cerebrospinal fluid produced? how is it produced?

Answer 58

choroid plexus (some from pial vessels and other parts of ependymal lining) secretion and ultrafiltration

Question 59

what type of cells line the ventricles in the brain?

Answer 59

modified ependymal cells

Question 60

which is false about the composition of CSF? a) higher k+ than plasma b) higher ca2+ than plasma c) lower Na+ than plasma d) higher protein than plasma

Answer 60

D Contains little protein -->blood-brain barrier (BBB) is impermeable for large molecules

Question 61

which is false about the composition of CSF? a) relatively deficient in glucosa b) no red blood cells c) very low to no white blood cells d) lower K+ than plasma

Answer 61

D

Question 62

which part of the midbrain are the colliculi attached to? a) tegmentum b) tectum c) mesencephalic aqueduct d) quadrigeminal cistern

Answer 62

B

Question 63

which colliculus is connected to the lateral geniculate body, and responsible for part of the vision pathway?

Answer 63

rostral

Question 64

the _____ colliculus is connected to the ______ geniculate body, and responsible for part of the auditory pathway

Answer 64

caudal colliculus medial geniculate body

Question 65

which geniculate body is important for vision? medial or lateral

Answer 65

Lateral

Question 66

which geniculate body receives acoustic fibres?

Answer 66

medial

Question 67

the geniculate bodies are in the... a) hypothalamus b) tectum of the midbrain c) thalamus d) midbrain

Answer 67

C

Question 68

the pineal gland is part of the a) thalamus b) epithalamus c) tectum d) quadrigeminal cistern

Answer 68

B

Question 69

which is the lentiform nucleus

Answer 69

Question 70

which is the claustrum and the caudate nucleus

Answer 70

Question 71

?

Answer 71

hippocampus

Question 72

hat is the main difference between the pyramidal tracts (corticospinal & corticobulbar) and the extrapyramidal system in motor control?

Answer 72

The pyramidal tracts carry UMNs directly from the cerebral cortex through the crus cerebri to innervate LMNs in the ventral horn or cranial nerve motor nuclei. In contrast, the extrapyramidal system provides indirect control by modulating and regulating the activity of ventral horn cells.

Question 73

which are the lateral and medial geniculate nuclei

Answer 73

Question 74

for the cranial nerves, are the motor nuclei dorsal or ventrally located

Answer 74

Nuclei of the cranial nerves - continuation of the four functional components of the spinal cord that compose the gray matter of the spinal cord - somatic/visceral afferent and somatic/visceral efferent MOTOR NUCLEI --> VENTRAL SENSORY NUCLEI --> DORSAL

Question 75

patient circling to the left, absent menace in the right eye, abnormal postural reactions in the right thoracic and pelvic limbs. normal withdrawal reflexes in all limbs. where is the lesion?

Answer 75

left forebrain

Question 76

a patient with seizures had a head turn towards the right, where is the lesion?

Answer 76

right forebrain turn towards the side of the lesion as a lesion on the right effects vision perception in the left eye. turn away from side they are blind on

Question 77

which nerves are tested with the menace response?

Answer 77

optic facial - blink possible abducens and muscles of neck to move away

Question 78

which of the following is not involved in the menace response? a) cerebellum b) thalamus c) medulla oblongata d) trigeminal nerve

Answer 78

D menace response tests a lot of areas, but lesions could happen in the visual pathway that also then effect the response depending on the mental status some won't respond or stop responding with repeated testing

Question 79

which nerve is responsible for facial sensation?

Answer 79

trigeminal

Question 80

if the patient has absent facial sensation on the left, where is the lesion?

Answer 80

right side, crosses over

Question 81

if the patient is unconscious, were is the lesion?

Answer 81

brain stem- ascending reticular activating system brainstem also for Cardiovascular, respiratory, swallowing, voluntary excretion, vomiting, muscle tone and voluntary movement

Question 82

where is the red nucleus? what is it important for? a) pons b) mid brain c) MO d) thalamus

Answer 82

midbrain for gait generation

Question 83

what is the difference between decerebrate and decerebellate posture?

Answer 83

decerebrate- midbrain lesion- unconscious decerebellate- lesion in cerebellum, conscious leg position can be misleading

Question 84

which muscles does the oculomotor nerve control?

Answer 84

-dorsal, medial ventral rectus and ventral oblique -levator palpebrae superioris- opens eyelid -iridial sphincter muscle- iris

Question 85

which cranial nerves are tested with the PLR?

Answer 85

optic, occulomotor

Question 86

a patient has unilateral strabismus (right eye looking laterally) and a reduced plr on the right but normal on the left (direct and indirect), the patient has a positive menace bilaterally, where is the lesion?

Answer 86

oculomotor nerve looking laterally as lost motor to medial rectus

Question 87

what is special about the trochlear nerve compared to other cranial nerves?

Answer 87

the only one that arises dorsally in the midbrain, only one that crosses over

Question 88

which nerve provides sensation to the inner nose and cornea?

Answer 88

ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nn.

Question 89

how does sympathetic innervation reach the eye?

Answer 89

Question 90

which nerves are important in the gag reflex?

Answer 90

IX, X, XI- nucleus ambiguus

Question 91

with standard vestibular disease, the head tilt is usually which direction?

Answer 91

towards the lesion

Question 92

a patient has a head tilt to the left, is falling to the left, has abnormal strabismus and nystagmus and abnormal postural reactions in the left limbs, where is the lesion

Answer 92

central vestibular- brain stem

Question 93

a patient has a wide based stance and hypermetric gait and left sided menace deficits with normal vision, where is the lesion?

Answer 93

left cerebellar

Question 94

a patient has a head tilt to the LEFT, is falling to the LEFT, has abnormal strabismus and nystagmus and abnormal postural reactions in the RIGHT limbs, where is the lesion

Answer 94

paradoxical vestibular- caudal cerebellar peduncle

Question 95

a lesion in the cerebellum causes which clinical sign?(2) a) deficits in all four limbs or contralateral to the lesion b) deficits in all four limbs or ipsilateral to the lesion c) normal or increased spinal reflexes in all limbs d) ipsilateral menace deficits

Answer 95

B and D

Question 96

a lesion where, would cause normal to increased spinal reflexes in all four limbs? a) cerebrum b) cerebellum c) brainstem d) c6-T2

Answer 96

A, B, C- UMN can also occur with thalamic or hypothalamic lesions

Question 97

if a patient is bilaterally blind with a normal PLR, where is the lesion? a) optic nerve b) pre-tectal nucleus c) ciliary ganglions d) occipital lobe

Answer 97

D

Question 98

with a unilateral lesion in the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus) which side are the central nervous system signs affected and which side are the motor signs affected? a) CN are ipsilateral, motor are contralateral b) CN are ipsilateral, motor are ipsilateral c) CN are contralateral, motor are contralateral d) CN are contralateral, motor are ipsilateral

Answer 98

A

Question 99

retrocolis and convergence retraction nystagmus are a sign of disease where? a) cerebrum b) midbrain c) cerebellum d) pons

Answer 99

B Dorsal midbrain Convergence-retraction nystagmus is a type of jerky eye movement where the eyeballs converge (turn inward) and then retract (pull back into the orbit), especially during attempted upgaze or when following a downward-moving object. Retrocollis is a type of torticollis (a condition causing neck muscle spasms) where the head is drawn backward due to repetitive muscle contractions in the neck, resulting in neck extension OPISTHOTONUS --> midbrain and rostral cerebellum lesions

Question 100

with a unilateral lesion in the brainstem which side are the central nervous system signs affected and which side are the motor signs affected? a) CN are ipsilateral, motor are contralateral b) CN are ipsilateral, motor are ipsilateral or contralateral c) CN are contralateral, motor are contralateral d) CN are contralateral, motor are ipsilateral

Answer 100

B

Question 101

With vestibular disease, which of these would indicate central vestibular disease? a) normal facial sensation b) ipsilateral postural reaction deficits c) horners d) vertical or positional nystagmus

Answer 101

B, D horners could be central or peripheral but having horners is rare with central vestibular and more common with peripheral vestibular Primary characteristics of peripheral vestibular disease are: - Symmetric ataxia without deficits in postural reaction - No paresis or loss of proprioception - Horizontal or rotatory nystagmus that DOES NOT change direction with different head positions - Quick phase is away from the side of the lesion

Question 102

what autonomic functions does the facial nerve have?

Answer 102

parasympathetic to the lacrimal gland, 3rd eyelid gland, palatine and nasal glands taste on the rostral tongue

Question 103

which test does not test the facial nerve? a) menace b) palpebral c) gag d) corneal

Answer 103

C

Question 104

which nerves and segments are important for the perineal reflex in dogs and cats?

Answer 104

pudendal nerve and the S1–S3 spinal cord segments. sensory- pudendal motor from s1-s1 segments causing the anal sphincter to contract and often the tail to flex

Question 105

which major nerves are tested in the withdrawal reflex of the thoracic limb?

Answer 105

loads- radial ulna, median and musculocutaneous

Question 106

which major nerves are tested in the withdrawal reflex of the pelvic limb?

Answer 106

sciatic only THE SCIATIC NERVE INNERVATES NEARLY ALL FLEXOR MUSCLES IN THE PELVIC LIMB. withdrawal reflex assesses pretty much only the sciatic nerve!

Question 107

which muscle innervates the biceps brachii, and is important for the myotactic reflex? which nerve segment is this?

Answer 107

musculocutneous (c6) c7-8 (t1)

Question 108

which muscle innervates the triceps brachii, and is important for the myotactic reflex? which nerve segment is this?

Answer 108

radial (alnd all extensors) c7-8 (t1, 2)

Question 109

which muscle innervates the quadriceps and is important for the patella reflex? which nerve segment is this?

Answer 109

femoral (L3), L4-5 (L6)

Question 110

which muscle innervates the gastrocnemius, and is important for the myotactic reflex? which nerve segment is this?

Answer 110

tibial (part of sciatic) L6-7 (s1) does a lot of flexors in the hindlimb.

Question 111

which muscle innervates the cranial tibial mm, and is important for the myotactic reflex? which nerve segment is this?

Answer 111

Peroneal (part of sciatic) L6-7 (s1) the peroneal does a lot of extensors muscles

Question 112

if a lesion is in the cervical spine what neurological signs are expected?

Answer 112

nerve root signature*

Question 113

if a lesion is in c6-T2 what neurological signs are expected?

Answer 113

Question 114

if a lesion is in T3-L3 what neurological signs are expected?

Answer 114

Question 115

if a lesion is in the lumbosacral region what neurological signs are expected?

Answer 115

nerve root signature*

Question 116

where does the phrenic nerve arise from?

Answer 116

c5-7

Question 117

which nerve passes through the inguinal ring?

Answer 117

genitofemoral (L3-4) Medial aspect of the thigh * Spermatic fasciae, scrotum and prepuce, CREMASTER MUSCLE * Inguinal mammary gland and its covering skin in the female