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Network Operations Flashcards

Day15_Supporting Network Management Part_2 (86 cards)

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1
Q

In terms of CPU usage, what devices are primarily referred to?

A

Routers and firewalls

CPU usage in these devices increases as traffic increases.

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2
Q

What strategies can be used to manage traffic volume in a network?

A
  • Use VLANs
  • Implement different subnet configurations
  • Add more devices (e.g., routers)

Managing traffic effectively can reduce latency and errors.

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3
Q

What is the MDF in networking?

A

Main Distribution Frame

It is the central point where cables enter the building.

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4
Q

What does an IDF refer to?

A

Intermediate Distribution Frame

It distributes cables throughout the building to workstations.

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5
Q

What are some common factors affecting network performance?

A
  • CPU usage
  • DNS issues
  • High bandwidth
  • Malfunctioning devices
  • Cabling and connectivity

These factors can complicate the identification of network problems.

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6
Q

What is a common cause of cabling and connectivity issues?

A

Defective cables

Cables can break or become disconnected due to physical damage.

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7
Q

What is the role of the Domain Name System (DNS)?

A

DNS serves as the internet’s phonebook, translating human-readable domain names, such as www.example.com—into machine-readable IP addresses, like 192.0.2.1

DNS issues can lead to loss of connectivity to the Internet and local systems | This translation is essential because while users can easily remember domain names, computers require numerical IP addresses to locate and access websites, services, and devices

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8
Q

What is a Forward zone type in relation to DNS?

A

Forward zone type translates domain names into IP addresses

Primarily uses A (Address) records for IPv4 and AAAA for IPv6 | When a user types a website name into a browser, the DNS server checks the forward zone to find the matching IP address

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9
Q

What is a Reverse zone type in relation to DNS?

A

Reverse zone type translates IP addresses back into domain names.

Uses PTR (Pointer) records |Common in network diagnostics, logging, and security auditing to identify which host is associated with a given IP

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10
Q

True or false: It is advisable to have only one DNS server for redundancy.

A

FALSE

Always have at least two DNS servers to ensure backup connectivity.

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11
Q

What is Domain Name Security Extensions (DNSSEC)?

A

DNSSEC a suite of security protocols that adds cryptographic authentication to DNS, ensuring that the responses to DNS queries are authentic and haven’t been tampered with.

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12
Q

What is DNS over HTTPS (DoH)?

A

DoH a security protocol that encrypts DNS queries using HTTPS, protecting users from eavesdropping, spoofing, and manipulation of DNS data

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13
Q

What is DNS over TLS (DoT)?

A

DoT a security protocol that encrypts DNS queries using TLS, protecting them from interception, manipulation, and surveillance

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14
Q

What are some network metrics that can indicate problems?

A
  • Jitter
  • Latency
  • Packet loss
  • Throughput
  • Packet duplication or reordering

Monitoring these metrics helps in diagnosing network issues.

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15
Q

What does latency refer to in a network context?

A

The delay or time it takes for a data packet to travel from its source to its destination, often measured in milliseconds.

High latency can be related to increased traffic volume; also referred to as slow traffic

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16
Q

What is the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) used for?

A
  • Identifying devices
  • Obtaining device status
  • Monitoring performance
  • Tracking network configuration changes

SNMP simplifies network management tasks.

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17
Q

What are the roles of Managers and Agents in SNMP?

A
  • Managers: Collect and process information
  • Agents: Gather information from devices and report to managers

This client-server model is fundamental to SNMP’s operation.

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18
Q

What significant security improvements were made in SNMP version 3?

A

Improvements in v3 include:

  • encrypted transmission
  • granular authentication requirements

These enhancements help protect against unauthorized access.

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19
Q

What is a Management Information Base (MIB) in SNMP?

A

MIB a hierarchical collection of manageable device definitions that identifies device property information.

Each device maintains its own MIB to describe its characteristics

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20
Q

What is the purpose of network logging features?

A
  • To record activities
  • To identify who performed tasks
  • Track when events occurred

Log files provide critical information for network management.

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21
Q

True or false: Log files proactively inform you about network events.

A

FALSE

You must manually examine log files to ascertain information.

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22
Q

What is a potential drawback of enabling logging on devices?

A

Enabling logging requires additional processing and storage

When logging is configured, high severity levels such as level 7 (Debug), which generates a large volume of detailed messages can result in device and network instability | The decision to enable logging should be based on security needs.

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23
Q

What is the purpose of logging in network operations?

A

Logging maintains a comprehensive record of all activities, events, errors, and system statuses occurring within the network infrastructure

Logging helps make better decisions for implementing preventative measures | Logging doesn’t inform in real-time, it reports on events that have already occurred

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24
Q

True or false: Logging can proactively prevent events from happening.

A

FALSE

Logging only informs about past events and does not prevent occurrences.

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25
What does **Audit Logging** typically include?
* Resource access * Breaches of policies * Configuration changes * Implementation of policies ## Footnote It ensures accountability for actions taken by users and administrators.
26
What is the **Syslog Protocol** used for?
To collect logging information from various types of devices ## Footnote Syslog defines categories of events to help prioritize logging.
27
What is the significance of **Link Status** in network interfaces?
Indicates whether the network connection is active ## Footnote A link light typically shows the status of the connection.
28
What is the purpose of monitoring **Protocol Statistics**?
To understand data flow across an interface ## Footnote It helps establish a baseline for normal activity.
29
What is the **Frame Check Sequence Error** (FCS)?
**FCS** indicates that a data frame has been **corrupted during transmission**, as detected by a mismatch in its error-checking code. ## Footnote The receiver uses a cyclical redundancy checking (CRC) algorithm to verify the integrity of the frame.
30
What does a **Giant** packet refer to in networking?
**Giant** a packet that is **too large**, exceeding 1518 bytes ## Footnote Giants may indicate hardware or driver problems or direction mismatch.
31
What are **Runts** in networking?
**Runts** are packets that are **too small**, specifically under 64 bytes ## Footnote Runts can result from hardware issues or too many collisions on the network.
32
What are **Encapsulation Errors** indicative of?
An incorrect encapsulation method assigned to an adapter ## Footnote Encapsulation wraps one type of packet into another for transmission over a network.
33
True or false: A robust management platform is required to monitor network devices effectively.
FALSE ## Footnote Devices can still be accessed directly to view logs and activity details.
34
What is the **System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)**?
A **phased approach** to system implementation from inception to retirement ## Footnote It guides organizations through various stages of system development.
35
List the **nine steps** typically involved in the SDLC.
* Analysis * Planning * Design * Development * Testing * Deployment * Maintenance * Evaluation * Disposal ## Footnote These steps help structure the development process.
36
What are the key steps involved in managing a **software upgrade**?
* Train users * Obtain licenses * Test new application * Deploy new application * Verify successful installation * Determine devices for uninstallation ## Footnote Managing software upgrades involves multiple administrative tasks.
37
What is a **Non-disclosure Agreement (NDA)**?
A legally binding document to protect confidential information ## Footnote It outlines parties involved and the duration of confidentiality.
38
What is a **Service Level Agreement (SLA)**?
**SLA** a **commitment** by the service provider detailing the services offered and expected levels of customer support service ## Footnote Important for clients to understand what to expect from providers.
39
What does a **Service Level Agreement (SLA)** outline?
* Pricing * Level of service * Scope of service * Responsibilities of each party * Metrics for service measurement ## Footnote It may include penalties for not meeting service levels.
40
What are the two types of **downtime** defined in an SLA?
* **Planned** Downtime * **Unplanned** Downtime ## Footnote Each type has different implications for service availability.
41
What is a **Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)**?
A formal agreement between entities to establish a partnership ## Footnote It is often not legally binding.
42
What is the purpose of a **Password Policy**?
To enforce standards for creating strong passwords ## Footnote Strong passwords help prevent unauthorized access to network resources.
43
What does an **Acceptable Use Policy** define?
Expected behavior for employees regarding Internet use and access to resources ## Footnote It outlines acceptable and unacceptable behaviors.
44
What is the purpose of an **Onboarding Policy**?
To define processes for new employees and familiarize them with the organization ## Footnote It aims to engage new hires and reduce turnover.
45
What is an **Offboarding Policy**?
A checklist for tasks when an employee leaves the organization ## Footnote It ensures all necessary actions are completed to remove the employee's access.
46
What is a **Data Loss Prevention (DLP)** policy?
Requirements to keep valuable data **within** the organization ## Footnote It prevents unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information.
47
What does a **Business Impact Analysis (BIA)** identify?
Crucial components of a business and the impact of their failure ## Footnote The greater the impact, the more resources should be directed to mitigate risks.
48
What does an **IT Security Policy** cover?
Rules and procedures for anyone accessing the IT infrastructure ## Footnote It applies to all users, including contractors and guests.
49
What does a **remote access policy** define?
Acceptable means for establishing and using remote connections to access corporate resources ## Footnote It may include approved applications, user restrictions, time limitations, and location-based access.
50
True or false: A **remote access policy** can restrict access based on location.
TRUE ## Footnote For example, access might only be allowed from branch offices with known IP addresses.
51
What is **Security Information & Event Management** (SIEM)?
**SIEM** a cybersecurity solution that **collects, analyzes**, and **correlates** security data from *various sources across an organization’s IT infrastructure in real time* to detect threats and support incident response
52
What is a key factor in maintaining services in a data center?
A key factor is ensuring high levels of **uptime** through the implementation of **redundant systems**, such as backup power supplies, cooling systems, and network connections, which allow **operations to continue** during failures
53
What does an **HVAC system** do in a data center?
Manages heat and maintains acceptable levels of temperature and humidity ## Footnote Critical for preventing overheating and ensuring optimal equipment function.
54
What environmental factor can lead to **condensation buildup** in a data center?
Excessive humidity ## Footnote Can cause short circuits or corrosion in equipment.
55
What should be considered for fire prevention in a data center?
Fire detection and suppression systems ## Footnote HVAC systems must not feed oxygen to a fire during an incident.
56
What is the importance of establishing **Network Performance Baselines**?
To determine normal operating conditions and identify anomalies ## Footnote Baselines help in troubleshooting and managing network changes.
57
What should be included when creating a **baseline report**?
Network activity at various times of day ## Footnote This helps to identify situations that stray from the norm.
58
What is **NetFlow**?
**NetFlow** a network protocol developed by **Cisco** for gathering information about network traffic and monitoring traffic flows ## Footnote It is valuable for troubleshooting and establishing a baseline of normal activity.
59
What are the **features** of NetFlow?
* Flow-based visualizations * User profiling for unusual activity * Planning and growing the network * High-level and detailed monitoring ## Footnote These features help network administrators and security personnel actively monitor network services.
60
What are the two types of **Flow Expiration** in NetFlow?
* Inactive timeout * Active timeout ## Footnote These types determine when flow data is exported for analysis.
61
What does **Inactive timeout** refer to in NetFlow?
The connection has gone quiet with no packets exchanged ## Footnote Typically configured to around 15 seconds before data is exported.
62
What does **Active timeout** mean in NetFlow?
NetFlow intervenes if a connection is ongoing for too long ## Footnote Recommended value is around one minute to prevent data from escaping detection.
63
What is a **flow record** in NetFlow?
The output produced by NetFlow for analysis ## Footnote Important for exporting data to external sources for further analysis.
64
What is the purpose of **Templates** in NetFlow?
Purpose is to provide future support for new or developing protocols ## Footnote The templates help implement new features without recompiling.
65
What does **Network Uptime** refer to?
The amount of time the network is functioning normally ## Footnote Expressed as a ratio of uptime to downtime.
66
What does **99.999% uptime** translate to in terms of downtime?
Just over five minutes per year ## Footnote This is an ambitious goal for many providers.
67
What is **Planned Downtime**?
Anticipated and usually scheduled downtime ## Footnote Allows providers to give advanced warning to clients.
68
What is **Unplanned Downtime**?
Unexpected downtime due to failures or issues ## Footnote Requires reactive measures to address the situation.
69
What are some causes of **Unplanned Downtime**?
Causes of unplanned downtime: * Human error * Natural disasters * Hardware failures * Misconfigurations * Server vulnerabilities ## Footnote These factors necessitate redundancy and fault tolerance.
70
What is the purpose of **Organizational Planning and Procedures**?
Purpose is to effectively manage change and minimize unexpected downtime ## Footnote Changes require management processes to ensure smooth transitions.
71
Define the difference between an **upgrade** and an **update**.
* **Update**: Minor fixes or patches * **Upgrade**: Fully decommissioning an old version and deploying a new one ## Footnote Upgrades involve more extensive changes than updates.
72
Why is **documentation** important in Change Management?
It helps everyone be aware of the process and prepares them for changes ## Footnote Clear documentation can prevent confusion during transitions.
73
What should documentation include regarding changes?
* Who is implementing changes * When changes are happening * Why changes are being made ## Footnote Justification helps reduce resistance from users.
74
What is an **Incident Response Plan**?
A structured approach that organizations use to detect, respond to, and recover from cybersecurity incidents such as data breaches, malware infections, or unauthorized access ## Footnote It helps manage problems that arise during changes.
75
What is the difference between **Disaster Recovery** and **Business Continuity**?
* **D**isaster **R**ecovery: Resuming operations ***after*** an event * **B**usiness **C**ontinuity: Maintaining services ***during*** an event ## Footnote Both concepts aim to manage risks but focus on different aspects.
76
What are key components of a **Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Plan**?
* Regular testing * Employee training * Crisis communication * Stakeholder involvement ## Footnote These components ensure preparedness for incidents.
77
What are the different **types of network documentation?**
* Site surveys * Wiring diagrams * Baseline configurations * Logical network diagrams * Physical network diagrams * Audit and assessment reports ## Footnote These documents help maintain an organized and secure networking environment.
78
What does a **Physical Network Diagram** map out?
Location and structure of wired and wireless networks, including devices and physical security ## Footnote It includes routers, switches, security cameras, and door-locking mechanisms.
79
What is the purpose of a **Logical Network Design**?
To plan and outline the high-level structure and **configuration of a network**, specifying elements such as network topology, protocols, addressing schemes ## Footnote It may include configurations like multiple VLANs within a single physical network.
80
What is a **Wiring Diagram** used for?
Indicates how devices are wired together and which connectors are used ## Footnote It can refer to both internal wiring of a single device and complex systems involving multiple components.
81
What is a **Baseline** configuration in network operations?
A ***benchmark*** that defines the **normal performance** and behavior of a network under typical operating conditions ## Footnote It is useful for troubleshooting and planning changes.
82
What is the purpose of a **Site Survey Report**?
To visualize coverage and data rates for a wireless network ## Footnote It helps identify weak spots and is conducted with tools like spectrum analyzers.
83
What is an **Authoritative DNS zone** type?
**Authoritative DNS zone** a DNS zone hosted on a server that holds the **original, writable copy** of DNS records. ## Footnote This server is the source of truth for the domain
84
What is a **Non-authoritative DNS zone** type?
**Non-authoritative DNS zone** a DNS server that *does not own* the original zone file but can respond to queries using **cached data** or by forwarding requests. ## Footnote Acts as a middleman—useful for performance but not for record management.
85
What are **primary** and **secondary** DNS zone types?
**Primary** DNS zone: the *authoritative, writable copy* of a DNS zone; hosted on a DNS server that can modify zone data **Secondary** DNS zone: a *read-only copy* of the primary zone; hosted on a different DNS server that pulls updates from the primary
86
What is **Recursive** DNS?
**Recursive DNS** performs full lookups on behalf of clients. Recursive DNS server receives a query from a client and takes full responsibility for resolving it ## Footnote It’s a behavior, not a zone file like forward or reverse zones
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