A physical therapist is preparing to evaluate a patient with a confirmed diagnosis of disseminated Varicella zoster. The facility’s specialized suite is currently occupied. To adhere to the required transmission-based precautions, which of the following is the MOST appropriate environmental and PPE protocol?
A. Place the patient in a private room with the door open; the therapist must wear a surgical mask.
B. Place the patient in a room with a patient having a similar infection; the therapist must wear an N95 respirator.
C. Place the patient in a private room with monitored positive air pressure; the therapist must wear a gown and gloves.
D. Place the patient in a room at least 3 feet away from a patient with a different infection; the therapist must wear a surgical mask
B. Place the patient in a room with a patient having a similar infection; the therapist must wear an N95 respirator.
- This is an Airborn Precaution
- These include a private room with monitored negative air pressure (making C incorrect as it says positive). If a private room is unavailable, patients with the same infection should be placed together (cohorting). PPE requires an N95 respirator or higher for those entering the room
- All Airborn precautions: Measles, Varicella (Chickpox), Tuberculosis, SARS
During a treatment session in a semi-private room, a therapist is working with a patient who has a Group A Streptococcal infection. There is no private room available. Which of the following spatial and barrier requirements is REQUIRED to prevent transmission to the roommate?
A. Ensure a physical separation of at least 3 feet and keep the door to the hallway closed at all times.
B. Ensure a physical separation of at least 3 feet and keep the privacy curtain drawn between the beds.
C. Ensure a physical separation of at least 6 feet and keep the door to the hallway closed at all times.
D. Ensure a physical separation of at least 6 feet and keep the privacy curtain drawn between the beds
B. Ensure a physical separation of at least 3 feet and keep the privacy curtain drawn between the beds.
Streptococcal infections (Group A) fall under Droplet Precautions.
- These infectious agents do not remain suspended in the air and typically travel 3-6 feet or less. If a private room is unavailable, patients must be physically separated by at least 3 feet, and the privacy curtain must be drawn. Unlike airborne precautions, the door may remain open
A patient with MRSA is scheduled for a physical therapy session in the gym. To minimize the risk of transmission via indirect contact, what is the MOST critical action the therapist should take during transport and the session?
A. Ensure the patient wears a surgical mask at all times during transport to the gym.
B. Ensure the patient is transported in a wheelchair with all colonized areas of the body covered.
C. Don a gown and gloves only if the therapist anticipates contact with the patient’s bodily fluids.
D. Keep the gym door closed and ensure the therapist wears an N95 respirator during the session.
B. Ensure the patient is transported in a wheelchair with all colonized areas of the body covered.
MRSA requires Contact Precautions, which address both direct (skin-to-skin) and indirect (contaminated objects) transmission.
- Transport should be limited to essential purposes and infected or colonized areas of the patient’s body should be covered. A mask (A) is for droplet/airborne, and N95 (D) is for airborne
A therapist has finished a session with a patient who has Clostridium difficile. The therapist wore a gown and gloves throughout the session. Which of the following describes the correct protocol for exiting the environment?
A. Remove the gown and gloves inside the room and perform hand hygiene after leaving the room.
B. Remove the gown and gloves after exiting the room to avoid re-contaminating the patient’s door handle.
C. Remove the gown and gloves prior to leaving the room and perform proper hand hygiene.
D. Keep the gown and gloves on until reaching the designated biohazard disposal area in the hallway
C. Remove the gown and gloves prior to leaving the room and perform proper hand hygiene.
For Contact Precautions (which includes C. diff), the therapist must “take gloves/gown off prior to leaving the room and perform proper hand hygiene.” This prevents the spread of infectious agents to the external environment or other patients
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a high fever, stiff neck, and photosensitivity. The medical team is ruling out Neisseria meningitidis. While the diagnosis is pending, the physical therapist must enter the room for a functional screen. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate PPE protocol?
A. Don a surgical mask upon entry and maintain a distance of at least 3 feet when possible.
B. Don an N95 respirator before entering and ensure the room has negative pressure.
C. Don a gown and gloves only, as the primary risk is skin-to-skin contact.
D. No PPE is required unless the therapist is within 1 foot of the patient’s face
A. Don a surgical mask upon entry and maintain a distance of at least 3 feet when possible.
Neisseria meningitidis is a classic example of a condition requiring Droplet Precautions. For droplet precautions, the therapist should “don a mask upon entry” and specifically “wear a mask when within 3-6 feet of the patient.”
A physical therapist is treating a patient with Tuberculosis in a private room. An urgent situation requires the patient to be moved to the radiology department. Which of the following describes the correct procedure for transport?
A. The therapist wears an N95 respirator; the patient does not need a mask.
B. The therapist wears a surgical mask; the patient must wear an N95 respirator.
C. The patient wears a surgical mask; therapist wears N95
D. The patient must be transported in a specialized negative-pressure transport isolette
C. The patient wears a surgical mask; therapist wears N95
For Airborne Precautions (like Tuberculosis), the protocol for transport is to “limit the patient’s transport… for only essential purposes” and the “patient should wear a mask during transport.” Note: Patients usually wear surgical masks to filter exhaled droplets, while providers wear N95s to filter inhaled particles
A patient presents with a significant wound infection and stool incontinence due to Norovirus. When providing bed mobility training, what is the MOST appropriate sequence for the therapist regarding PPE?
A. Don gloves upon entry; don a gown because substantial close contact is anticipated.
B. Don a mask and gloves upon entry; a gown is only required if splashing is expected.
C. Don a gown and gloves only after the patient begins to move and contact is made.
D. Don an N95 respirator and gloves, as Norovirus can become aerosolized during linen changes
A. Don gloves upon entry; don a gown because substantial close contact is anticipated.
Norovirus and wound infections fall under Contact Precautions.
Contact Precaution Steps:
- Don gloves upon entry into the room; change gloves after direct contact with infectious material
- Wear a gown if there will be substantial close contact with the patient or contaminated objects
- Take gloves/gown off prior to leaving the room and perform proper hand hygiene
Which of the following scenarios describes the indirect contact method of transmission as defined by the safety guidelines?
A. A therapist develops a skin rash after performing manual therapy on a patient with Scabies.
B. A therapist touches a goniometer that was used on a patient with MRSA without being disinfected.
C. A therapist inhales evaporated droplets while standing 10 feet away from a patient with Measles.
D. A therapist is sprayed with respiratory secretions when a patient with Mumps sneezes
B. A therapist touches a goniometer that was used on a patient with MRSA without being disinfected.
Indirect Contact is defined as “a contaminated intermediate object, usually within the patient’s environment.” Using a contaminated goniometer is the perfect example. Option A is direct contact; Option C is airborne; Option D is droplet.
A therapist is treating a patient with Pertussis. A private room is unavailable. A second patient is admitted to the unit. According to the guidelines, which patient would be the MOST appropriate roommate for the patient with Pertussis?
A. A patient with a fractured hip and no infectious symptoms.
B. A patient with a confirmed diagnosis of Influenza.
C. A patient with a confirmed diagnosis of Pertussis.
D. A patient with a confirmed diagnosis of Tuberculosis
C. A patient with a confirmed diagnosis of Pertussis.
For Droplet Precautions (like Pertussis), if a private room is not an option, the guideline is to “place together patients who are presumed to have the same infection.” You cannot cohort two different infections (like Pertussis and Influenza) together.
A physical therapist is treating a patient with Diphtheria. The patient is currently in a private room. Which of the following is the MOST accurate protocol regarding the room’s environment and the therapist’s PPE for this droplet precaution?
A. The door must remain closed at all times; the therapist must wear an N95 respirator.
B. The door must remain closed at all times; the therapist only needs a gown and gloves.
C. The door may remain open; the therapist only needs a mask if standing within 10 feet.
D. The door may remain open; the therapist must don a mask upon entry to the room.
D. The door may remain open; the therapist must don a mask upon entry to the room.
for droplet precautions, the door may remain open and the therapist should don a mask upon entry
A patient is diagnosed with Scabies and requires gait training. During the session, the therapist’s gloves become visibly soiled with infectious material. What is the CORRECT immediate action based on the contact precaution guidelines?
A. Continue the session until finished to minimize the number of glove changes.
B. Leave the room immediately to perform hand hygiene at the hallway sink.
C. Change gloves immediately after the direct contact and before continuing the session.
D. Double-glove before the start of the session to avoid having to change them
C. Change gloves immediately after the direct contact and before continuing the session.
For Contact Precautions (which includes Scabies), the therapist should “change gloves after direct contact with infectious material.”
A physical therapist asks a patient several questions prior to administering cervical mechanical traction. During the questioning, the patient indicates they are wearing dentures and that the dentures are securely in place. What is the MOST appropriate therapist action?
A. Initiate traction using normal treatment parameters with the dentures in place
B. Initiate traction using normal treatment parameters after removing the dentures
C. Initiate traction using fifty percent of the normal recommended force with the dentures in place
D. Avoid using traction since the intervention is contraindicated for the patient
A. Initiate traction using normal treatment parameters with the dentures in place
A patient who wears dentures should be instructed to keep the dentures in place during cervical traction. If the dentures are removed, the alignment of the TMJ may be altered, causing problems if pressure is applied through the mandible. (PT365 - 10/14/25)
An athlete experiences a knee injury during a game of soccer. Using benefits provided by thier employer, the patient sees a doctor and starts going to physical therapy for their injury. Which of the following is a third-party payer that would MOST likely cover the services rendered in this situation?
A. Worker’s compensation
B. Medicate
C. Managed healthcare
D. Private health insurance
D. Private health insurance
Private health insurance is a third-party payer for health care services that is administered by employers, fee-for-service indemnity plans, or commercial insurance carriers.
- Medicade is a third-party-payer for health care servicese that is administered by both the state and federal governments
- In Managed healthcare systems, such as HMOs or PPOs, third party payers direct patients to certain providers and monitor which service they receive
- Workers’ Compensation is a third-party-payer for health care services that is administered by self-insured employers, priviate insures, or various state agencies. Worker’s comp. provides health care service for individuals who are injured while working at their place of employment.
(Pocket Prep.)
A physical therapist sets the parameters of an iontophoresis unit in preparation for treatment on a patient diagnosed with lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following treatment parameters would represent the highest iontophoresis dose?
A. Current amplitude of 1.0 milliamps; duration of 20 minutes
B. Current amplitude of 2.0 milliamps; duration of 10 minutes
C. Current amplitude of 3.0 milliamps; duration of 20 mintues
D. Current amplitude of 4.0 milliamps; duration of 10 minutes
C. Current amplitude of 3.0 milliamps; duration of 20 mintues
The amount of electricity used when performing iontophoresis is measured in millamp-minutes (mA-min). This value is often termed “dosage” and is determined by multiplying current amplitude and time. A typical dosage for each treatment is 40-80 mA-min
- So for C, a current amplitude of 3.0 milliamps delivered for 20 min would result in a dosage of 60 mA-min, while option D will only provide a dosage of 40 mA-min.
(PT365 - 12/6/25)
A physical therapist evaluates a patient who is six months pregnant and reports right knee pain. The therapist would like to refer the patient for further diagnostic imaging before starting treatment, but is concerned for the risk of radiation exposure to the developing fetus. Which of the following imaging techniques would have the GREATEST risk of radiation exposure?
A. X-ray
B. Fluoroscopy
C. MRI
D. Ultrasound
B. Fluoroscopy
Fluoroscopy is designed to show motion within the body with the use of x-ray imaging and injections of a contrast dye. The technique permits objects placed between a fluorescent screen and a roentgen tube to become visable. Instead of a single x-ray image being taken, the x-ray beam is passed through the body continuously to allow for the visualization of movement. Because the x-ray beam is continuous, the level of radiation exposure is much higher than the other presented options.
(PT365 - 12/31/25)
A physical therapist is considering the use of electrical stimulation on a chronic wound. Which of the following sets of parameters is the MOST appropriate?
A. Monophasic, direct current
B. Biphasic, direct current
C. Monophasic, alternating current
D. Biphasic, alternating current
A. Monophasic, direct current
High-voltage pulsed current (HVPC) electrical stim has been shown to enhance healing in numerous types of wounds including chronic ulcers, burns, and donor and graft sites.
- HVPC utilizes monophasic direct current in order to enhance healing of chronic wounds. Monophasic current is a type of pulsative current that produces is characterizes by a consistent flow of electrons from the anode (i.e., postivie electrode) to the cathode (i.e., negative electrode)
(PT365 - 1/1/26)
A physical therapist completes documentation after administering an ultrasound treatment. Which of the following treatment parameters would be the LEAST important to document?
A. Patient position
B. Treatament time
C. Intensity
D. Duty cycle
A. Patient position
The following items are typically documented when using ultrasound: area of the body treated, duration, frequency, intensity, duty cycle, and patient response to treatment
- Patient position is primarily determined based on accessibility to the body surface being treated and patient comfort. Although this is an important item to consider when using ultrasound, it is not as critical as the specific parameters of the ultrasound treatment
(PT365 - 1/12/26)
A patient sustains a deep laceration on the anterior suface of the forearm. The physical therapist attempts to stop the bleeding by applying direct pressure over the wound, but is unsuccessful. The MOST appropriate action is for the therapist to attempt to apply compression over the pressure point of which of the following arteries?
A. Brachial
B. Femoral
C. Radial
D. Ulnar
A. Brachial
When direct pressure and elevation fail to stop severe bleeding from an open wound, physical therapy may attempt to use the pressure point of a major artery. This technique is located on an upper or lower extremity.
- The brachial artery can be compressed against the medial aspect of the humerus in an attempt to control the bleeding. The pressure point is located on the inside of the arm in the groove between the triceps and biceps, approximately midway between the axilla and the elbow. The brachial artery’s location, proximal to the forearm, makes it possible to control bleeding
(PT365 - 1/16/25)
A patient suffers a laceration injury to their forearm while exercising in the therapy gym. The physical therapist is having trouble stopping the flow of blood from the wound. Which of the following actions should be the LAST resort when treating the laceration?
A. Apply pressure directly over the wound
B. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the site of the injury
C. Elevate the arm above the level of the heart
D. Apply pressure to the brachial artery
B. Apply a tourniquet proximal to the site of the injury
Though using a tourniquet can help control bleeding, it may create tissue damage (i.e., necrosis) that is unnecessary, and therefore it is generally only used in cases of severe bleeding. The present scenario is not life-threatening and does not require the use of a tourniquet. (PT365 - 1/20/26)
A physical therapist directs a physical therapist assissant to measure the seat depth for a patient as part of the assessment for appropriate fit of a wheelchair. How many inches should the therapist subtract from the standard measurement taken for wheelchair depth?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
B. 2
Seat depth is determined by measuring from the patient’s posterior buttock, along the lateral thigh to the popliteal fold, then subtracting approximately 2 inches to avoid pressure from the front edge of the seat against the popliteal space. Normal seat depth in an adult wheelchair is 16 inches
- Two inches of space between the front edge of the seat is the recommended amount of space. This distance corresponds to the width of 3 or 4 fingers
(PT365 - 2/2/26)
A patient begins to cry in the middle of a treatment session. The physical therapist attempts to comfort the patient, however, eventually has to discontinue treatment. What section of the SOAP note would be the MOST appropriate to document the incident?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
C. Assessment
Inability to continue treatment due to a patient’s emotional state should be documented in the assessment section note. This type of entry serves to justify the decision to terminate treatment
- The assessment section allows the PT to express their opinion. Short and long term goals are often expressed in this section as well as changes in the treatment program.
(PT365 - 2/3/25)
When selecting an assistive device for a patient with a lower extremity injury, which of the following patient characteristics should be the LEAST critical for the physical therapist to consider?
A. Cognitive ability
B. Height and weight
C. Upper and lower extremity strenght
D. Level of coordination
B. Height and weight
The majority of AD’s are appropriate for patients of varying weight and can be readily adjusted (e.g., raised or lowered) to accommodate for different heights. As a result, these variables would be the least critical when selecting an AD.
(PT365 - 2/9/26)
A physical therapist contemplates the necessary amount of force to overcome friction when performing mechanical lumbar traction using a non-split traction table on a 150-pound patient. What percentage of the patient’s body weight would be MOST representative of this value?
A. 5%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 50%
C. 25%
Friction refers to the force that arises to oppose motion. A significant amount to the overall traction force is necessary to overcome friction between the patient’s body and the surface of the traction table
- A force of 25% of the patient’s body weight would be consistent with the amount of force necessary to overcome the force of friction. This would correspond to 37.5 for a patient weighing 150lbs. This value can be estimated by multiplying the percentage of the body weight below L3 (i.e., 50%) and the coefficient of friction (0.5). The coefficient of friction refers to the constant frictional forces when applying traction between surfaces. The coefficient of friction of the human body on a mattress is 0.5. The result is 25%, meaning that a force of 25% would be necessary to overcome the force of friction. The use of a split traction table can significantly decrease the effects of friction
(PT365 - 2/10/26)
A patient uses a self-administered assessment tool as a method to record daily progress. What type of reliebility would be the MOST essential using this tool?
A. Reliability of parallel forms
B. Internal consistency
C. Intratester
D. Intertester
C. Intratester
Since the assessment tool is used to record daily progress, it will be administered repeated. If changes in the score are to be attributed to real progress made in physical therapy, and not to inconsistency or unreliable measurement, the tool should be evaluated for reliability.
- Intratester reliability refers to the extent to which scores on the tool obtained by the same tester are consistent. The tool should have intratester reliability so that any changes recorded can be attributed to progress in therapy and not to unreliable measurement.
- Intertester reliability refers to the extent of agreement of the scores recorded by two or more individuals. Interrated reliability addresses the consistency of a rating system
(PT365 - 2/11/26)
