NP1 Flashcards by Sharahveille Sombrio

Situation: While on duty in the Barangay Health Center, Nurse Watson observed multiple types of medical waste. Recognizing the potential health hazards and violation of infection control protocols, Nurse Watson, as a competent and responsible nurse, immediately took action.

In patient Rogers’ room, a faulty fluorescent bulb suddenly breaks. It is properly segregated into a colored bin:
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Yellow with black band

Ratio: Faulty Fluorescent bulb is mercury—> a heavy metal

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In the nurse lounge, Nurse Watson sees an empty can of aerosol freshener spray. To preventing any clutter, it is properly segregated into a colored bin:
A. Black
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow with black band

Ratio: aerosol freshener spray— > a pressured container

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While walking home, Nurse Watson notices piles of mixed garbage dumped near a water source. To address the environmental health hazard, which law should he refer to for promoting ecological solid waste management in the community?
A. R.A. 8749
B. R.A. 9003
C. R.A. 9275
D. R. A. 7164

Ratio: R. A. 8745 - clean air act
R. A. 9275- Clean water act.
R. A. 7164- is not included, but it is Philippine nurse act.

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Right after duty, Nurse Watson saw some health care workers by the community river dump dry waste (e.g. plastic, paper, and styrofoam). She realizes this as a violation of:
A. P.D. 900
B. P.D. 849
C. P.D. 489
D. P.D. 984

Ratio: It strengthens R. A 3931 —> population control law. And the other choices are irrelevant.

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Situation: Nurse Jinu, a public health nurse in Barangay Huntrix, conducts a home visit to assess the Sarmiento family. He gathers information about their health conditions and practices, then begins formulating a Family Nursing Care Plan to address their priority health needs.

Nurse Jinu uses the scale for ranking health conditions and problems according to priorities. What criteria refers to the nature and magnitude of future problems that can be minimized if intervention is done on the condition or problem under consideration?
A. Nature of the problem
B. Modifiability of the problem
C. Preventive potential
D. Salience

Ratio: Choices: A. What the problem all about.
B. What fixed by intervention?
D. It is important?

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During the visit, Nurse Jinu notes that one family member is living with a permanent physical disability. How should Nurse Jinu classify the caregiver’s situation?
A. Wellness state
B. Health threat
C. Health deficit
D. Stress point

Ratio: permanent physical disability — existing already
NOTE:
Wellness state → everything is fine; no illness or prom.
• Health threat → risk factors that might cause illness later
• Health deficit → when there is already a problem,
disease, or disability.
• Stress point → life events that create temporary tension.

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Because of a family member’s permanent physical disability, the primary caregiver, who is a family member, expresses feeling exhausted,
overwhelmed, and
increasingly unable to cope with caregiving demands. How should Nurse Jinu classify the caregiver’s situation?
A. Wellness state
B. Health threat
C. Health deficit
D. Stress point

Ratio: Caregiver’s situation— emotional/psychological strain— caregiver burden
NOTES:

Wellness state → everything is fine; no illness or prom.
• Health threat → risk factors that might cause illness later
• Health deficit → when there is already a problem,
disease, or disability.
• Stress point → life events that create temporary tension.

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Situation: Nurse Jimmy is working in a government hospital and is learning about the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers.

Among the following choices, which are not additional compensation for public health workers?
A. Longevity pay
B. Laundry allowance
C. Hazard allowance
D. Housing allowance

Notes:
SEC. 20. Additional Compensation. - Notwithstanding Section 12 of Republic Act No. 6758, public workers shall received the following allowances: hazard allowance, subsistence allowance, longevity pay, laundry allowance and remote assignment allowance.

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Situation: Nurse Jimmy is working in a government hospital and is learning about the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers.

If Nure Jimmy’s services were terminated and is found to be unjust. He will be entitled to:
A.reinstatement without loss of seniority rights and to his back wages with twelve percent (12%) interest.
B. Reinstatement with seniority rights but with back wages plus six percent (6%) interest.
C. Reinstatement with loss of seniority rights and partial back wages with twelve percent (12%) interest.
D. Monetary compensation equivalent to one year of salary and separation benefits in lieu of reinstatement.

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Nurse Jimmy’s wife is planning to work in the same government hospital as he does. Whenever possible, the proper authorities shall take steps to enable them, both of whom are public health workers, to be employed or assigned in the:
A. Same municipality and in the same office.
B. Same municipality, but not in the same office.
C. Same office, but not in the same municipality.
D. Same municipality and in the same office, but with regulations

Notes:
SEC. 7. Married Public Health Workers. - Whenever possible, the proper authorities shall take steps to enable married couples, both of whom are public hewith workers, to be employed or assigned in the same municipality, but not in the same office.

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Situation: Nurse Rumi just received her license and is beginning to work as a registered nurse. She knows that she needs to comply with the Continuing Professional Act of 2016 or Republic Act no. 10912.

The CPD Programs consist of activities that range from structured to nonstructured activities, which have learning processes and outcomes. These include, except:
I. Formal learning
II. Nonformal learning
III. Informal learning
IV. Self-directed learning
V. Online learning activities
VI. Professional work experience

A. IV, V & VI
B. IV & VI
C. only VI
D. None

Ratio: Notes to remember:

REPUBLIC ACT No. 10912
An Act Mandating and Strengthening the Continuing Professional Development Program for All Regulated Professions, Creating Continuing Professional Development Council, and Appropriating Funds Therefor, and for Other Related Purposes

Section 5. Nature of CPD Programs. - The CPD Programs consist of activities that range from structured to nonstructured activities, which have learning processes and outcomes.
These include, but are not limited to, the following:
(a) Formal learning;
(b) Nonformal learning; v
(c) Informal learning;
(d) Self-directed learning;
(e) Online learning activities; and
(f) Professional work experience.

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It refers to educational arrangements such as curricular qualifications and teaching-learning requirements that take place in education and training institutions recognized by relevant national authorities, and which lead to diplomas and qualifications
A. Formal learning
B. Nonformal learning
C. Lifelong learning
D. Prior learning

A
Ratio: “diploma and qualification”
Notes:

A. Formal learning - refers to educational arrangements such as c qualifications and teaching-learning requirements that take place and training institutions recognized by relevant national authorities, and wnich lead to diplomas and qualifications (university based, Nursing in College)
B. Nonformal learning - refers to learning that has been acquired in addition or alternatively to formal learning, which may be structured and made more flexible according to educational and training arrangements; (health seminars, community training)
C. Lifelong learning - refers to learning activities undertaken throughout life for the development of competencies and qualifications of the professional; (online courses + reading of journals)
D. Prior learning - refers to a person’s skills, knowledge and competencies that have been acquired through work experience, training, independent study, volunteer activities and hobbies that may be that may be applied for academic credit. (Ex: midwife — BSN)

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It refers to a person’s skills,
knowledge and
competencies
that have been acquired through work
experience, training, independent study, volunteer activities and hobbies that may be applied for academic credit, as a requirement of a training program or for occupational certification.
A. Formal learning
B. Nonformal learning
C. Lifelong learning
Đ. Prior learning

Notes:

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It refers to learning that has been acquired in addition or alternatively to formal learning, which may be structured and made more flexible according to educational and training arrangements
A. Formal learning
B. Nonformal learning
C. Lifelong learning
D. Prior learning

Notes:
A. Formal learning - refers to educational arrangements such as c qualifications and teaching-learning requirements that take place and training institutions recognized by relevant national authorities, and wnich lead to diplomas and qualifications (university based, Nursing in College)
B. Nonformal learning - refers to learning that has been acquired in addition or alternatively to formal learning, which may be structured and made more flexible according to educational and training arrangements; (health seminars, community training)
C. Lifelong learning - refers to learning activities undertaken throughout life for the development of competencies and qualifications of the professional; (online courses + reading of journals)
D. Prior learning - refers to a person’s skills, knowledge and competencies that have been acquired through work experience, training, independent study, volunteer activities and hobbies that may be that may be applied for academic credit. (Ex: midwife — BSN).

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It refers to learning activities undertaken throughout fife for the development of competencies and qualifications of the professional.
A. Formal learning
B. Nonformal learning
C. Lifelong learning
D. Prior learning

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Situation: Nure Mira, a Public Health nurse, and she needs to explore concepts that are fundamental in treating clients within the community and follow standards that make up Community Health Nursing.

The Field Health Services Information System (FHSIS) is a nationwide facility-based recording and reporting system that provides information to local government units and the Department of Health for planning, managing, and implementing public health programs across the country.
Its objectives include, excepti
A. Ensure data reported are useful, accurate, and are disseminated in a timely manner.
B. Provide data that, together with other sources, supports program monitoring and evaluation.
C. Minimize the burden of reporting and recording at
the service delivery level.
D. Promote innovative data collection developed independently by each facility

Ratio: independently— it should be standardized level data based

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Nurse Mira is assigned to consolidate and submit reports from her rural health unit to support the FHSIS. While reviewing their reporting calendar, she needs to categorize the schedule for submitting reports on Malaria Control Activities. How often should Nurse Mira submit the report. on Malaria Control Activities?
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

Ratio: FSHS started at monthly
Monthly- target client list— immunization, maternal care, mortality report
Quarterly- Programs or Activities reports
Annually - program accomplishments

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Nurse Mira is preparing routine reports for submission.
One of her responsibilities is to monitor and report on deaths occurring in her area. How often should Nurse Mira submit the mortality report?
A. Weekly
B. Monthly
C. Quarterly
D. Annually

Ratio: FSHS started at monthly
Monthly- target client list— immunization, maternal care, mortality report
Quarterly- Programs or Activities reports
Annually - program accomplishments

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Nurse Mira is reviewing the Target/Client List at her rural health unit as part of Implementing the Field Health Services Information System (FHSIS). She explains to a new staff nurse why maintaining the Target/Client List is important. Nurse Mira emphasizes that this list serves several key purposes to support quality health care services and effective program management. Which of the following is not the purpose of maintaining the Target/Client List?

A. To plan and carry out patient care and service delivery
B. To facilitate the monitoring and supervision for services
C. To report services delivered
D. To provide a municipal-level database which can be accessed for further studies

Ratio: Not Municipal level but client level database

Note: FOUR PURPOSES OF TARGET CLIENT LISTS:
1. To plan and carry out patient care and service delivery. (“Target, “eligible”)
2. To facilitate the monitoring and supervision for services.
3. To report services delivered. (Physical record)
4. To provide a clinic-level data base which can be accessed for further studies.(source of information)

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A pregnant woman visits the barangay health center for her first prenatal check-up. Nurse Mira needs to record and track this woman’s prenatal care to ensure proper follow-up and monitoring throughout her pregnancy. Nurse Mira wants to document her as a priority client for maternal services. Which of the following should Nurse Mira use to list the patient’s prenatal visit?
A. Target/Client List
B. Individual Treatment Record
C. Tally Sheet/Report Form
D. Output Reports

Note:
A. Target/Client List — master list for program planning and monitoring
B. Individual Treatment Record — personal tx or health records of pt and tx received
C. Tally Sheet/Report Form — services provided
D. Output Reports — di kasali more on FHSIS

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Situation: Nurse Dexter is assigned to Barangay Dimagiba, a geographically isolated rural
community, for her public health rotation.

Barangay Dimagiba has not been previously assessed, and little is known about the people’s health status. His goal is to gather baseline information on the community’s prevalent illnesses, lifestyle, health beliefs, and
socioeconomic factors. Which type of community diagnosis should he conduct?
A. Problem-oriented community diagnosis
B. Focused population group diagnosis
C. Comprehensive community diagnosis
D. Rapid health assessment

Notes:
A. Problem-oriented community diagnosis — identified health problems
B. Focused population group diagnosis — special groups (elderly , pregnant )
C. Comprehensive community diagnosis — no idea regarding the community
D. Rapid health assessment — emergency or disaster

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Prior to conducting the actual community diagnosis, what should Nurse Lea do first?
A. Conduct a rapid appraisal through a windshield survey
B. Establish a working relationship with community leaders and representatives
C. Plan health programs and interventions
D. Specify the issues to be investigated

Ratio: A. “first glance” assessment

B. Is done after initial appraisal
C. Is done after the diagnosis
D. Is Done after gathering the data

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After deciding to conduct a community diagnosis, Nurse Dexter begins collecting data in the village. To align with the principles of community health nursing, how should he approach the assessment process?
A. Conduct the assessment independently to avoid bias from community opinions.
B. Focus on implementing health programs
immediately before consulting the community.
C. Involve community members actively as partners in the assessment to ensure shared decision-making.
D. Treat the community as subjects of research and gather data without their involvement to maintain objectivity

Ratio: it should be focused. The letter B. Is to broad and to general

Note:
1. People centered
2. Participatory
3. Empowering

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Nurse Dexter is preparing for data collection after a rapid appraisal revealed high, rates of malnutrition in children aged 0-12 years, What is the most appropriate next step to ensure that the community diagnosis is aligned with the objectives?
A. Proceed with interviews using a standard health survey for adults.
B. Review of provincial health reports from the Department of Health.
C. Define the specific population to be studied and design a targeted data collection plan.
D. Ask barangay officials to write a summary of the community’s health profile.

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Nurse Dexter is determining which data collection method he can use to elicit and explore community opinions, attitudes, and practices regarding a specific set of concepts. Which method is most appropriate? A. Focus Group Discussion B. Individual Interview C. Observation D. Records Review

A. Notes: A. Focus Group Discussion — interactive sharing = more data gathered B. Individual Interview —not important, at least it’s in depth studies Ex, personal stories C. Observation — it should be + interview D. Records Review — irrelevant (existing data)

After completing a community diagnosis, Nurse Dexter plans a health program that promotes community involvement and addresses root causes of health issues. Which of the following statements about participatory planning is incorrect? A. It empowers the community to address their own health needs. B. It ensures sustainability when combined with integrated, individual based and comprehensive approaches. C. It promotes people's participation in the development of programs and services D. It aligns with the Primary Health Care approach by treating the community as equal partners

B. Ratio: It should be community based not individual based

Situation: As a newly licensed nurse preparing to work in the community, Nurse Jannah studies laws relevant to her role, including the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers. Among the following staff, which group should NOT be classified under the legal definition of "health workers" according to Section 3 of the law? A. Barangay Health Workers performing immunization and maternal care duties B. A janitor assigned to the rural health unit on a job order contract C. A licensed physician volunteering part-time at a private diagnostic clinic D. A medical technologist with casual employment status in a government hospital

C. Ratio: Private Clinic ay hindi kasama Notes: “health workers” — any position—> government/ public institutions under magna carta. SEC. 3. Definition. - For purposes of this Act, "health workers" shall mean all persons who are engaged in health and health-related work, and all persons employed in all hospitals, sanitaria, health infirmaries, health centers, rural health units, barangay health stations, clinics and other health-related establishments owned and operated by the Government or its political subdivisions with original charters and shall include medical, allied health professional, administrative and support personnel employed regardless of their employment status.

Under the law, when is a nurse entitled to a night-shift differential pay of 10% of their regular wage for each hour of work performed? A. When rendering service any time after their shift ends. B. When rendering service from 6:00 PM to 12:00 midnight. C. When on-call status is assigned during night hours. D. When working between 10:00 PM and 6:00 AM.

D. NOTE: SEC. 18. Night-Shift Differential. - (a) Every public health worker shall be paid night-shift differential of ten percent (10%) of his/her regular wage for each hour of work performed during the night-shifts customarily adopted by hospitals. (b) Every health worker required to work on the period covered after his/her regular schedule shall be entitled to his/her regular wage plus the regular overtime rate and an additional amount of ten percent (10%) of such overtime rate for each hour of work performed between ten (10) o'clock in the evening to six (6) o'clock in the morning.

A public health worker was unjustly dismissed from service. Upon review, the Civil Service Commission ruled in favor of the employee and ordered reinstatement. According to the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers, what rate of legal interest should be applied to back wages from the time compensation was unjustly withheld until reinstatement? A. 6% B. 10% C. 12% D. 15%

C. NOTE: SEC. 8. Security of Tenure. - In case of regular employment of public health workers, their services shall not be terminated except for cause provided by law and after due process: Provided, That if a public health workers is found by the Civil Service Commission to be unjustly dismissed from work, he/she shall be entitled to reinstatement without loss of seniority rights and to his/her back wages with twelve percent (12%) interest computed from the time his/her compensation was withheld from his/her up to time of reinstatement.

Nurse Jannah was required to be on duty within the facility's premises to render continuous service. According to the Magna Carta for Public Health Workers, what benefit is she entitled to for meals while on duty? A. Daily meal allowance equivalent to the local minimum wage B. Full subsistence allowance of three meals per day C. Transportation and food allowance based on hours worked D. Fixed monthly cash incentive regardless of hours rendered

B. NOTE: SEC. 22. Subsistence Allowance. - Public health workers who are required to render service within the premises of hospitals, sanitaria, health infirmaries, main health centers, rural health units and barangay health stations, or clinics, and other health-related establishments in order to make their services available at any and all times, shall be entitled to full subsistence allowance of three (3) meals which may be computed in accordance with prevailing circumstances as determined by the Secretary of Health in consultation with the Management Health Workers' Consultative Councils, as established under Section 33 of this Act: Provided, That representation and travel allowance shall be given to rural health physicians as enjoyed by municipal agriculturists, municipal planning and development officers and budget officers.

A health administrator was found guilty of repeatedly coercing and in accordance with prevailing circumstances as determined by the Secretary of Health. threatening public health workers who attempted to assert their rights under R.A. 7305. Based on Section 39 of the law, which of the following reflects the correct legal implication of this violation? A. The administrator may be subjected to the fine of not less than ₱10,000 and mandatory administrative suspension B. The violator may face both impressment of up to one year or a fine between ₱20,000 and ₱40,000, depending on the courts discretion C. The penalty includes imprisonment of at least two years and permanent disqualification from public service D. The violator is only liable if the coercion cost physical harm to the health worker.

B Note: SEC. 39. Penal Provision. - Any person shall willfully interfere with, restrain or coerce any public health worker in the exercise of his/her rights or shall in any manner any act in violation of any of the provisions of this Act, upon conviction, shall be punished by a fine of not less than Twenty thousand pesos (P20,000.00) but not more than one (1) year or both at the discretion of the court.

Situation: Nurse Zamora, a public health nurse, explains the importance of epidemiology in disease prevention during a community orientation. Which of the following best reflects the primary purpose of epidemiology in public health nursing? A. It focuses mainly on treating patients with communicable diseases in the community. B. It emphasizes the clinical diagnosis of diseases based on observed signs and symptoms. C. It investigates the distribution and determinants of health and disease to guide preventive measures. D. It aims to estimate the number of patients who will recover from illness in hospital settings.

C. Ratio: A. Is not the focus B. More on clinical diagnosis— by the physician D. More on prognosis

These epidemiologic variables are essential for identifying populations at risk and determining potential sources of an outbreak. Which set is part of the epidemiological variables? A. Time, person, place B. Host, agent, environment C. Agent, person, place D. Environment, time, host

A. Ratio: A. Time (trends/timing), Person (char. Of individuals affected) place —> a geographic location of disease B. An epidemiological triad — cause of disease

Which of the following refers to the ongoing systematic collection, analysis, interpretation, and dissemination of health data? A. Epidemiology B. Public Health Surveillance C. Surveillance System D. Epidemics

Nurse Zamora is analyzing the vital health statistics of Barangay Malusog. She notes that the barangay has a population of 10,000, and 240 births were recorded in the past year. Using this data, how will the nurse compute the Crude Birth Rate (CBR)? A. (240 ÷ 10,000) x100 B. (240 ÷ 1,000) × 100 C. (240 ÷ 10,000) × 1,000 D. (240 ÷ 100） × 10,000

Nurse Zamora is preparing a community health report. As part of his presentation, he wants to show the trends in birth and death rates over the last five years. He also plans to highlight the leading causes of illness and illustrate the proportion of the health budget allocated to various programs. Which type of chart or graph should he use to appropriately present each of these data sets? A. Line graph for Illness causes, bar graph for birth/death trends, pie chart for budget distribution B. Bar graph for illness causes, line graph for birth/death trends, pie chart for budget distribution C. Pie chart for illness causes, bar graph for trends, line graph for budget usage D. Area diagram for trends, bar graph for budget, pie chart for illness causes

B. Ratio: Bar graph is used to compare categories. Line graph used in changes over time, Pie chart as a whole

Situation: To complete their CHN requirements, student nurses from St. Dominic's University chose to conduct their immersion in Barangay Naiilang. Student nurse Yumeko is assigned to provide care for the Domingo Family. Before the visit, she reviews the family's health records, prepares her home visit bag and teaching materials, and ensures the family is involved in planning the care to be As Yumeko prepares her PHN bag, she knows what solution to bring to check for the presence of glucose in a urine sample? A. Acetic acid A. Zephiran solution C. Gential violet D. Benedict’s solution

D Note: Acetic acid — to check the protein in urine Zephiran solution — antiseptic solution Gentian violet — anti fungal

Nurse Yumeko checks her public health bag before a home visit. Which of the following items should be included? A. Dry cotton balls only B. Baby's scale C. Disposable syringes with gauge 25 and 26 D. Sphygmomanometer

B. Ratio: Assessing the important of babies weight A. Dry cotton balls only + (wet cotons) C. Disposable syringes with gauge 25 and 26 (it should be 23 and 25) D. Sphygmomanometer (it should be separated)

Yumeko understands that the schedule of home visits depends on the needs of the client. Which of the following is the least likely to affect the frequency of visits? A. The family's physical and psychological needs B. Acceptance and cooperation of the family C. Knowledge of the nurse about the available resources D. health agencies and the number of health personnel already involved in the care of the family

Nurse Yumeko is well-prepared for her first home visit. After assessing the family, she learns that one member is taking maintenance medication for hypertension. She proceeds to check the client's blood pressure. Which of the following guidelines should she follow during this initial visit? A. Take the average of two readings taken at least 5 minutes apart and consider this as the clients blood pressure. B. If the first two readings differ by 5 mmg or more, take a third reading and include it in the average. C. Repeat the procedure using the other arm, and use the arm with the lower BP reading for future measurements. D. Record the first clear tapping sound (Korotkoff Phase I) as the diastolic blood pressure.

Nurse Yumeko notices that the family has a 6-month-old baby. Upon checking the baby's health records, she finds that the immunizations are incomplete. This situation is best classified under which family health typology? A. Wellness condition B. Health threat C. Health deficit D. Foreseeable crisis

Situation: Nurse Zoey is working at the bite treatment center in Barangay Huntrix. She encounters various situations involving different types of animal exposures, wound severities, and vaccination histories, requiring her to apply knowledge, skills, and critical thinking to deliver safe and appropriate care. A concerned parent asks Nurse Zoey which animal is most often responsible for rabies transmission in the Philippines. As a competent nurse, Nurse Zoey educates the parents. Which animal is the most common cause of rabies transmission in the Philippines? A. Cats B. Bats C. Dogs D. Rats

C. Ratio: 85.7% — dogs 12.5% — cats

A 9-year-old boy was treated for a bite from a stray animal. Nurse Zoey then educated the parents on the importance of vaccinating their domestic pets to prevent the transmission of rabies from other animals. She remembered that the government agency responsible in leading a mass dog vaccination is the: A. Department of Health B. Department of Agriculture C. Department of Education D. LGU

B Ratio: particularly the Bureau of Animal Industry

Government agency that provides Post-Exposure Treatment at the minimum expense to individuals bitten by animals suspected of being rabid which will consist of the initial vaccine and immunoglobulin dose. A. Department of Health B. Department of Agriculture C. Department of education. D. LGU

It's their responsibility to ensure that all dogs are properly immunized, registered and issued a corresponding dog tag for every immunized and registered dog. A. Department of Health B. Department of Agriculture C. Department of Education D. LGU

They are responsible for assisting in the Dog mass immunization campaigns in the community. A. Department of Health B. Department of Agriculture C. Department of Education D. LGU

A 12-year-old child was brought to the bite treatment center. On assessment, Nurse Zoey noted that there's a minor abrasion on the forehead without bleeding. This is a category rabies exposure. A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III D. Category IV

A 35-year-old hiker was brought to the bite treatment center. He said that a bat landed on him and scratched his arm. There were no traces of bleeding. Nurse Zoey categories this as: A. Category I B. Category II C. Category III D. Category IV

Situation: Dengue fever continues to pose a major challenge within the Philippine healthcare system, necessitating that nurses maintain a thorough understanding of the disease's pathophysiology, clinical manifestations, and management. The following questions pertain to this issue. According to the Department of Health, which of the following statements best describes the risk of developing severe dengue? Severe dengue commonly occurs during the first infection with any dengue serotype. B. All four dengue serotypes cause severe symptoms upon initial infection. C. The second infection with a different dengue serotype increases the risk of severe dengue. D. Dengue infections are always asymptomatic, regardless of the serotype and times of infection.

C Ratio: 1st infection— non-severe/asymptomatic

Knowing the epidemiology of dengue in the Philippines, how many distinct serotypes of the dengue virus should the healthcare team consider when evaluating the risk for antibody-dependent enhancement? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

B Note: DENV 1 — classic dengue fever DENV 2 — severe, DHF DENV 3– Neuro signs + dengue fever DENV 4 — mild, smaller outbreak

Student Nurse Eric, previously healthy, develops an acute febrile illness lasting approximately six days after his clinical duty. Based on this presentation, how can he be classifled as a person with suspected dengue? A. He has a positive Dengue NS1 antigen test or dengue IgM antibody test. B. He presents with persistent abdominal pain or tenderness, persistent vomiting, and mucosal bleeding. C. He experiences retro-orbital pain, myalgia, flushed skin, and rash (Hermann's sign). D. He has a positive result from viral culture and/or Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

C. Ratio: A. Probable B. Dengue with warning signs D. Confirmed dengue case

After undergoing diagnostic tests, Eris is confirmed to have a dengue infection. Although he has a history of diabetes mellitus (DM), he is tolerating oral fluids well, has no warning signs, is able to urinate every 6 hours, and maintains a stable hematocrit level. Based on the Department of Health's dengue patient classification, under which group should this patient be classified? A. Group A- Patient who may manage at home B. Group B - patient who requires in-hospital management C. Group C- patient with severe Dange requiring emergency treatment. D. Unclassified-farther diagnostic workup is needed

B Ratio: no warning signs but with comorbidities

Nurse Angela, who is assigned to care for Eric, wants to earn more about the Department of Health's Aedes Borne Viral Diseases Prevention and Control Program. To deepen her understanding, she first needs to know the program's mission. Which of the following best states its mission? A. To reduce dengue mortality by at least 50% by 2022 B. Reduced disease burden of Dengue, containment and prevention of transmission of Chikungunya and Zika C. Aedes-borne Viral Disease-free Philippines D. To réduce the burden of dengue disease

B Ratio: Letter C — vision A & D — objective

The current dengue situation warrants a shift from focusing primarily on attempting to contain outbreaks to taking steps to reduce the Impact in communitles. The Program Implemented the Enhanced 4S Strategy In congruent to the global vector response of the WHO. Which of the following is not included in the 4S Strategy? A. Seek early consultation B. Search and destroy breeding sites - C. Self-protection measures D. Say yes to monthly fogging

D Ratio: D. only during outbreaks

Situation: Nurse Junjun is on duty in a health center where a mother of a 2-day-old child came for Hepatitis B immunization. 55. The mother asks Nurse Junjun about the immunization of Hepatitis B to newborn infants. She asks if her child still can receive the vaccination? A. "Yes, your child can still receive the vaccine since mandatory immunization for Hepatitis B can still be given not later than two (2) days after birth." B. "Yes, your child can still receive the vaccine since mandatory immunization for Hepatitis B can still be given not later than seven (7) days after birth." C. "No, your child cannot receive the vaccine since it can only be given within 24 hours after birth." D. "No, your child cannot receive the vaccine since it can only be given within 12 hours after birth.".

After Nurse Junjun explained that her 2-day-old baby could still receive the Hepatitis B vaccine, the mother further asked about the immunization schedule. She wanted to know when the first dose should ideally be given and whether there would be follow-up doses. Which is the most appropriate response of Nurse Junjun? A. "The first dose is ideally given within 24 hours of birth, and there are no further doses needed afterward." B. "The first dose should be given within 24 hours of birth, followed by additional doses at 6, 10, and 14 weeks as part of the routine immunization schedule." C "The first dose is given within 24 hours, with only one booster dose at 14 weeks". D. The Hepatitis B vaccine is only given once and does not require a series."

After Nurse Junjun explained the Hepatitis B vaccination schedule, the mother appeared worried and asked how they would know if her baby was already Infected with Hepatitis B. She wanted to find out whether there was a way to test the child for infection. Nurse Junjuin is correct if he states: A. "Yes, your newborn can be tested now with HBsAb" B. "Yes, your newborn can be tested now with HBSAg" C. "Yes, but testing is usually done between 9-12 months of age" D. "Yes, but testing is usually done at 2 months of age"

C Ratio: because we are avoiding to detect maternal antibodies from Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin Used: (1) HBsAG (2) anti- HBS

Situation: Nurse Maria is evil waiting a six year old boy who presents with red, watery eyes and mugged photophobia. He developed symptoms two days ago in both eyes and has recently experienced a runny nose and slightly swollen preauricular lymph nodes. The mother reports the child frequently robs his eyes and shares towels with his younger sibling. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention in this case? A. Apply a warm compress to promote circulation and alleviate discomfort costed by infection. B. Administer prescribed ophthalmic antibiotics to prevent bacterial superinfection C. Apply a cold compress and reinforce strict hand hygiene to reduce inflammation and prevent transmission. D. Refer immediately to an ophthalmologist due to sign of potential ocular involvement

Nurse Maria is educating a group of students on the transmission of conjunctivitis. Which of the following statements indicates the correct understanding of how conjunctivitis is spread? A. "It is only spread through airborne droplets." B. "It can be transmitted through touching contaminated surfaces and then the eyes." C. "It can only be either caused by bacteria or virus." D. "It can only be spread through blood-to-blood contact."

B Ratio: conjunctivitis is transmitted through direct or indirect contact with secretions of infected eye Letter C: there’s another causes like allergies chemical irritants

While conducting a school health teaching on conjunctivitis, Nurse Maria explains the common causes of the condition. Which of the following statements made by a student indicates a need for further teaching? A. "If someone has conjunctivitis from dander, I should avoid sharing towels with them to prevent getting infected." B. "Conjunctivitis caused by bacteria can spread easily, especially among children." C. "Wearing contact lenses longer than advised can irritate the eyes and cause conjunctivitis." D. "Viruses are a common cause of pink eye and may spread through respiratory infections."

A. Ratio: Dander — dust like particles from pets that can cause allergies but not contagious.

As part of a health education campaign, Nurse Lea emphasizes prevention of conjunctivitis. Which of the following should be included in her teaching? Select all that apply. I. Frequent handwashing II. Sharing towels and cosmetics - III. Avoiding crowded places IV. Disinfecting frequently touched surfaces V. Swimming in poorly chlorinated public pools during outbreaks VI. If soap and water are not available, use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer that contains at least 50% alcohol. A. I, III, V B. I, III, IV, VI C.I, II, III, IV, V D. I, III, VI

Trachoma is a chronic form of conjunctivitis and the leading cause of preventable blindness worldwide. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? A. It is caused by the bacterium Staphylococcus B. It is commonly found in areas with cold and moist climates. C. Its onset in children is typically insidious. D. Its late stage is characterized by red, inflamed eyes, tearing, photophobia, and ocular pain.

Situation: In a barangay health meeting, barangay nealthcare workers are planning to educate the residents about the importance of taking preventive steps against WILD diseases, especially Influenza-like Illnesses (ILIS). Nurse Mara is conducting a health education session in a barangay after several reports of residents experiencing persistent dry coughs, mild fever, and sore throat over the past week. One resident asks, "My cousin was diagnosed with pneumonia, but he still goes to work and looks okay. Is that possible?” Which of the following is the best response by nurse Maria? A. "Yes, that is possible. Some types of pneumonia, such as walking pneumonia have mild symptoms allowing people to continue daily activities." B. "No, all pneumonia cases are severe and require strict bed rest and antibiotics." C. "Yes, but only people with strong immune systems can develop walking pneumonia." D. "No, pneumonia always causes extreme fatigue and breathing difficulty, regardless of the cause."

What is the causative agent of "walking pneumonia"? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae, B. Legionella pneumophila C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae D. Klebsiella pneumoniae

Hand hygiene is one of the effective ways to prevent the spread of WILD diseases. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), how long should proper hand rub take at least? A. 10-20 seconds B. 20-30 seconds C. 30-40 seconds D. 40-60 seconds

B Note: 40-60 seconds is Handwashing

An annual influenza vaccine is recommended for all people 6 months or older, unless contraindicated. A student nurse is reviewing guidelines on influenza vaccination for individuals with egg allergy. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Persons with egg allergy are at increased risk of severe allergic reactions from egg-based influenza vaccines. B. Any influenza vaccine suitable for the individual's age and health can be given, regardless of whether it is egg-based or not. C. No special precautions are needed for egg-allergic individuals aside from standard vaccination safety protocols. D. All vaccines, regardless of allergy history, should be administered where emergency management. of anaphylaxis is available.

Why is it important for individuals to receive the influenza vaccine annually? A. Influenza viruses have a complex life cycle that requires yearly immune response. B. The influenza virus frequently mutates, and annual vaccines are reformulated to match the predicted circulating strains. C. Influenza virus infections require long-term antiviral treatment. D. Annual vaccination helps prevent resistance to commonly used antibiotics.

B Ratio: Antigenic changes In letter D. Antibiotics don’t work on viruses

Which of the following statements about influenza vaccination is FALSE? A. Children 6 months through 8 years of age may require 2 doses of flu vaccine during a single season. x B. The LAIV is recommended for pregnant women C. It takes about 2 weeks after vaccination for protection against influenza to develop. D. The CDC recommends everyone 6 months and older to be vaccinated every flu season.

B. Ratio: LAIV — Live attenuated Influenza vaccine—> teratogens to pregnant

Situation: Nurse Karren is assigned to a rural health unit in Samar where cases of schistosomiasis are frequently reported. She wants to educate the community about the disease. Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is correct? A. Schistosomiasis is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and water. B. The disease is prevalent in cold regions with developed sanitation systems. C. The infectious form of the parasite, called cercariae, comes out of the snail into the water. D. Adult parasites primarily affect the lungs and lymphatic system, causing respiratory failure.

Which of the following clinical manifestations should nurse Carla include when discussing the potential symptoms and complications of chronic schistosomiasis? A. Sudden onset of high fever, liver cirrhosis , anemia. B. Enlargement of abdomen, polyposis, respiratory failure. C. Diarrhea, bloody stool, liver cirrhosis. D. No correct answer

In the Philippines, which Schistosoma species is the most common cause of schistosomiasis, and which species is known to lodge in the urinary trap leading to potential damage? A. S. mansoni; S. japonicum B. S. japonicum; S. haematobium C. S. haematobium; S. mansoni D. S. intercalatum; S. haematobium

B Ratio: in Philippines— Schitosoma Japonicum, Urinary tract— S. Haematobium In letter A, S. mansoni — Intestinal schistosomiasis—> Africa

During health teaching, Nurse Karren emphasizes the importance of using safe water to reduce transmission of the disease. Which of the following practices effectively inactivates Schistosoma cercariae in water? A. Boiling water for 5 minutes B. Adding salt to the water before use C. Letting the water stand for 24 hours before use D. Allowing the water to stand for 48-72 hours

D. Ratio: cercanaes —> die naturally Note: 1. Iodine/ Chlorine 2. Paper filters 3. Letter D

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the prevention and control of schistosomiasis? A. The frequency of mass drug administration is based on the prevalence of infection in school-aged children. B. Praziquantel is the drug of choice and can be used for all forms of schistosomiasis. C. Praziquantel is contraindicated during pregnancy D. Improving sanitation and access to safe water are important parts of schistosomiasis prevention.

Situation: Nurse Alex is attending a national health forum where the DOH Secretary reported a significant rise in HIV cases. Nurse Alex recognizes the urgent need to strengthen HIV education. Which of the following statements best reflects the current HIV situation in the Philippines as emphasized by the DOH Secretary? A. The Philippines has one of the lowest HIV infection rates in the Western Pacific Region. B. HIV infection is most prevalent among individuals aged 40 to 60 years. C. The youngest reported case of HIV infection in the Philippines was a 12-year-old. D. The DOH reports that new HIV cases have remained constant in recent years. among the youth.

To address the growing HIV epidemic, the Philippine government nas strengthened its policies and programs related to prevention, treatment, care, and support services for individuals living with HIV. Which Republic Act provides the legal framework for these initiatives? A. Republic Act 11648 B. Republic Act 10028 C. Republic Act 11166 D. Republic Act 11036

C. Ratio: A. Republic Act 11648 — Rape and sexual Exploitation and abuse B. Republic Act 10028 — Expanded Breastfeeding promotionact of 2009 D. Republic Act 11036 — Mental Health Act

Arter attending the health forum, Nurse Alex is conducting a health education session about HIV transmission. Which of the following statements, if made by a participant, indicates the need for further teaching? A. "HIV can be transmitted through unprotected sexual contact and sharing of infected needles." B. "A mother living with HIV can transmit the virus to her baby during pregnancy and delivery." C. "People living with HIV who are on ART and have an undetectable viral load can still easily transmit the virus." D. "HIV cannot be transmitted through hugging, kissing, or sharing food and water."

C Ratio: if undetectable viral load— Untransmittable

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with HIV to determine if they have progressed to Advanced HIV Disease (AHD). According to the World Health Organization (WHO), which of the following would meet the criteria for AHD? A. CD4 count of 450 cells/mm3 with no clinical symptoms B. WHO Clinical Stage 2 classification with mild weight loss c. A 3-year-old child diagnosed with HIV, regardless of CD count D. An adult client with a CD4 count of 300 cells/mm3 and no opportunistic infections

C. Note: Criteria for AHD —> Stage 3 or 4 clinical conditions A and D. <200

A patient with HIV has been diagnosed with HIV encephalopathy, formerly known as AIDS dementia complex. This condition is marked by progressive cognitive, behavioral, and motor decline. As the assigned nurse, which of the following interventions indicate appropriate assistance for this patient? I. Instruct the patient to perform tasks in Incremental steps. II. Encourage participation In daily activities within the patient's capability. III. Educate the caregiver on how to recognize signs of altered perception or confusion. IV. Use lengthy and complex explanations to help improve cognitive function.- A. I and II B. I, Il and III C. Il and III D. I, II, III, IV

B. Ratio: AIDS dementia complex — confusion/ Hallucinations —> impaired mental cognition

A nurse is assessing an HIV-positive patient who presents with painless, creamy white plaque-like lesions on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and soft palate. The patient reports difficulty swallowing. Which opportunistic fungal infection should the nurse suspect? A. Candidiasis B. Eumycetoma C. Onychomycosis D. Cryptococcosis

A. Ratio: B. Skin and subcutaneous tissue—> foot and hand C. Nails D. Lungs CNS

Nurse Alex is educating a client on Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a CORRECT understanding of PrEP? A. "I only need to take PrEP after sexual contact with an HIV-positive partner." B. "PrEP is only for individuals who already have HIV infection “ C. "I can take PrEP even while on hormone-based birth control “ D. "PrEP can only be given through pills."

C. Ratio: A. Daily or as prescribed B. Negative in HIV D. There is injectable long acting PrEP

A client taking oral PrEP for HIV prevention asks the nurse how long it will take for the medication to reach maximum protection. Which of the following should the nurse include in the response? A. A., "Protection from HIV begins within 24 hours of starting PrEP." "It takes 7 days of daily PrEP use for receptive anal sex and 21 days for vaginal sex and injection drug use “ C. "PrEP reaches full effectiveness only after one month of continuous use." D. "Protection is guaranteed regardless of duration of use”

C. Ratio: A. (-) C. < 1 month D, depending on adherence

There are various medications used for HIV and AIDS, categorized by their mechanism of action. Protease inhibitors act by binding to the catalytic site of the HIV protease, thereby preventing the cleavage of viral polyprotein precursors into mature, functional proteins that are necessary for viral replication. Which of the following is NOT a Protease Inhibitor? A.Abacavir B.Nelfinavir C. Saquinavir D. Tipranavir

A. Note: Protease Inhibitor— immature and harmless (virus) NRTI — the virus cannot replicate

Situation: There is a recent typhoon that happened in Barangay Niugan, Nurse Rawi with his colleagues is conducting a health check-up in an evacuation center after a recent typhoon. One volunteer has been responding daily for the past week. Which of the following is the most appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis for the volunteer with repeated or continuous exposure? A. Doxycycline 200 mg single dose, given within 24 to 72 hours B. Doxycycline 200 mg once weekly until the end of exposure C. Doxycycline 200 mg once daily for 3-5 days D. Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 7 days

Situation: A set of nurses is caring for patients under perioperative nursing. The following questions apply. A 78-year-old female with poorly controlled diabetes and a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is scheduled for a total hip replacement. Which preoperative Intervention Is most appropriate to minimize complications associated with her comorbidities? A. Initiate preoperative beta-blocker therapy B. Administer high-dose steroids for SLE Provide aggressive bowel preparation D. Delay surgery until glycosylated hemoglobin is <7

C. Note: Bowel prep —> decreased of bacterial load on GUT —> prevent infection ( surgical site and prosthetic joints)

Which finding in a preoperative 82 year old patient with emphysema and hypertension, must strongly contraindicates immediate elective surgery? A. BP of 160/88 B. Clubbing of fingers. C. Respiratory rate of 28/min with use of accessory muscle D. Notaria and oligoria in the last 12 hours.

C. Ratio: C. Risk for resp. Failure A & B. Can be managed D. Early renal issues

A 70-year-old patient with coronary artery disease and a recent MI (4 months ago) is undergoing emergency surgery. Which SCIP-recommended intervention is expected ? A. Delay surgery for at least 2 more months B. Preoperative transfusion of autologous blood C. Administration of prophylactic beta-blockers D, Insertion of temporary pacemaker preoperatively

C. Ratio: A. Delay surgery— elective surgery—> delay > at least 6 months D. Temporary pacemaker—> AV block or arrhythmias B. Irrelevant

Which of the following assessments would best indicate Increased risk for poor wound healing in an obese patient? A. BMI >30 B. Decreased serum protein levels C. Hemoglobin > 11 g/dl D. Moderate orthostatic hypotension

B. Ratio: collagen synthesis, para mabilis gumaling

During the pre-op interview, a patient states they previously developed high fever and muscle rigidity under anesthesia. What is the priority action by the nurse? A. Notify the surgeon of a potential shellfish allergy B. Document this as latex sensitivity C. Alert anesthesia for possible malignant hyperthermia. D. Place the patient under fall precautions.

C. Ratio: Malignant hyperthermia —> emergency — should alert the anesthesia. DOC: Dantolene Sodium—> it is a muscle relaxant

In preparing a patient for "bloodless surgery," which intervention is most critical in the weeks leading up to surgery? A. Blood typing and cross-matching B. Discontinuation of anticoagulants C, Administration of epoetin alfa and iron supplements D. Increasing oral protein intake

C. Ratio: “bloodless surgery” — pt don’t received BT. Epoetin alfa —> stimulate RBC production. Iron supplements—> hemoglobin synthesis

A 65-year-old smoker is undergoing general anesthesia. Which respiratory complication is he at highest risk for postoperatively? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Bronchospasm C. Atelectasis D. Tension pneumothorax

C. Ratio: Ateectasis- lung collaps Smoker: smoking should be stop 4-8 wks. Letters: A. DVT/ immobility B. Anaphylaxis D. Chest trauma

Which of the following findings during physical assessment should be reported immediately to the surgical team? A. Edema +1 in lower extremities B. History of arthritis in both knees C. Bilateral crackles at lung bases D. Hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL

C. Ratio : crackles— fluid overload

A 68-year-old patient scheduled for abdominal surgery has a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. Which of the following preoperative actions is most critical? A. Administer potassium wasting diuretics. B. Continue with surgery and monitor ECG. C. Notify anesthesia and postpone surgery. D. Rehydrate the patient with IV fluids containing potassium.

C. Ratio: possible can have arrhythmia — possible can undergo cardiac arrest Potassium normal level: 3.5-5.5

A 75-year-old diabetic patient is scheduled for elective surgery. Fasting glucose is 186 mg/dL. What does this most likely indicate? A. Patient is experiencing acute stress response B. Patient is in diabetic ketoacidosis C. Patient has inadequate insulin dosing preoperatively D. Patient needs urgent insulin drip initiation

A. Ratio: STRESS —> catecholamines/cortisol —>blood sugar B. >250 mg/dL —> ketons C. (-) D. May severe hyperglycemia/ DKA

A 60-year-old patient with a history of liver cirrhosis is found to have an aPTT of 46 seconds. Which of the following best explains this abnormality? A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation B.Anticoagulant overdose C.Vitamin K deficiency D. Impaired liver synthesis of clotting factors

D, Ratio: Prolonged — production of prothrobin (clotting factor II) —> Vit. K dependent = high risk for bleeding Normal aPTT: 30-49 seconds

An elderly patient has a COz level of 19 mEq/L. Which interpretation is most appropriate in the surgical context? A. Patient has metabolic alkalosis B. This is a normal aging change C. There may be diabetic ketoacidosis D. High risk for fluid overload post-op

C. Ratio: Metabolic acidosis Normal level of HCO3: 22-26

A patient has a sodium level of 128 mEq/L preoperatively. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? A.Restrict all oral fluids pre-op B. Administer hypertonic saline rapidly C. Proceed with surgery under spinal anesthesia D. Delay surgery and correct sodium slowly

D. Ratio: mababa, abnormal Hyponatremia —> seizures and cerebral edema Normal sodium level: 135-145 B. (Rapid) X it can cause brain injury

A 64-year-old female has a hemoglobin of 10.6 g/dL and reports fatigue and anorexia. She refuses blood products. What is the best next step? A. Start IV iron sucrose and epoetin alpha B. Cancel the surgery indefinitely C. Proceed with bloodless surgery and normal saline bolus D. Administer packed RBCs anyway with emergency consent

A. Ratio: mababa, abnormal Normal hemoglobin: 12-16

A patient's chloride level is 114 mEq/L. What is the most likely explanation in the preoperative context? A. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion B. Vomiting-related electrolyte loss C. Overuse of IV fluids containing sodium chloride D. Use of potassium-sparing diuretics

C. Ratio: (114) mataas, abnormal —> metabolic acidosis Normal level of chloride: 98-106

A patient on warfarin has an INR of 2.3 prior to elective hernia repair. What is the best nursing action? A. Administer vitamin K IV immediately B. Notify the surgical and anesthesia teams C. Proceed with surgery as INR is therapeutic D. Hold the warfarin dose on the morning of surgery only

B. Ratio: high risk bleeding Taking Anticoagulants (warfarin) INR normal level: 2-3 but not normal if the pt is undergoing surgery it should be <1.2

Which patient requires a special surgical permit in addition to the standard consent form? A. A 48-year-old undergoing coronary artery bypass grait B. A 32-year-old undergoing bilateral tubal ligation C. A 65-year-old undergoing right total knee arthroplasty D. A 78-year-old undergoing - laparoscopic appendectomy

B. Ratio: Sterilization permit —> husband and wife should sign.

NP1 Flashcards

(100 cards)