1
Q
Situation: One of the vital functions in any healthcare facility includes management of records. The nurse ensures that there is due diligence in these tasks.
- Nurse Ally is assigned to the medical unit. As she is guided in proper documentation, she should use
abbreviations that are:
A. Not used at all because it can be misinterpreted
B. Approved standard list by the hospital
C. Reduced to the minimum in all units
D. Used automatically to save precious time
A
B
2
Q
- An error in the record-keeping was found illegible in handwriting, what is the APPROPRIATE action by the nurse in this situation?
A. Report the lapse to the Quality Assurance Committee
B. Call the physician who made the order
C. Let the resident-on-duty in the nurse’s station interpret it
D. Request the senior nurse to read the order for you
A
B
3
Q
- While writing her progress notes, the nurse commits an error. What is the BEST action she should do
A. Erase whatever is in error using the rubber eraser and sign
B. Put a line across the sentence, make the correction over it, and sign it
C. Delete the erroneous phrase or sentence, make the correction over it, and sign
D. Cross the error many times to ensure it can no longer be read and sign
A
B
4
Q
- Which is NOT correct statement regarding record-keeping?
A. Failure to do it could be evidence to professional misconduct
B. It is optional task to be done when circumstances allow
C. It is a tool in professional practice that helps provide quality care
D. It is part of professional duty of the nurse
A
B
5
Q
- An audit is scheduled later this afternoon, and the quality assurance nurse conducts a regular audit of the medical records. Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting an audit in a health facility?
A. Promote risk management
B. Ensure that the standards are met
C. Identify areas of improvement
D. Identify errors made by health personnel
A
B
6
Q
Situation: Research is vital endeavor nurses must engage into in order to contribute to nursing science
- Which of the following designs is applied when a nurse researcher collects data at more than one point over extended?
A. Longitudinal
B. Time-sequenced
C. Time-related
D. Cross-sectional
A
A
7
Q
- If a research study involves an intervention and binding which research design is being referred to?
A. Descriptive
B. Experimental
C. Phenomenological
D. Non-descriptive
A
B
8
Q
- Which of the following statements is LEAST descriptive qualitative research design?
A. Strives for an understanding of the whole strategy
B. It is flexible and elastic
C. Gather one data from collection strategy
D. Researchers become involved
A
C
9
Q
- In qualitative research, the researchers should be intentional on how they choose their participants who can best meet the objectives of the study. Who of the following fits this description BEST?
A. Persons referred by friends
B. Able to articulate and reflect on the phenomenon that they experience
C.Those readily available thus convenient for the researcher
D. Cooperatives persons in the community
A
C
10
Q
- A “full understanding” in research should be understood by the nurse researcher as
A. Not exploiting information shared by participants
B. The right to decide voluntarily
C. Explaining that the study includes risk and benefits
D. Ensuring that the participants are not placed at risk
A
C
11
Q
Situation: As part of her college requirements, nursing student Shane conducted a qualitative phenomenological study on how the stigma of AIDS affects the clients. She has previously identified 6 participants: 3 teenage boys and 3 teenage girls.
- Which of the following is the BEST method to collect data from the participants?
A. Observation
B. Individual interview
C. Survey and questionnaire
D. Focus group discussion
A
B
12
Q
- In choosing a sampling method, which should be applied?
A. Purposive
B. Stratified
C. Random
D. Network
A
D
13
Q
- In formulating the statements of the study’s findings, which is true?
A. By extracting meaning and themes from significant statements
B. By describing answers of the males and females by percentages
C. By identifying the answers of the males and females by percentages
D. By summarizing the sharings of the participants of both sexes
A
A
14
Q
- Informed consent in the study shall be obtained by the nurse researcher from who?
A. From six participants and their parents
B. From the six participants and available relative
C. From the parents only
D. From the six participants only
A
A
15
Q
- Which of the following is NOT important for the nurse researcher to do when listening to the tape recordings?
A. Take notice of the pauses of the participants.
B. Listen when she feels the motivation for a more productive time
C. Note for the voice tone and voice inflection
D. Do the listening as soon as possible after the interview
A
B
16
Q
Situation: Prior surgery, health education to Randell and his family were planned which includes a program on weight gain aims for a high-protein and high-calorie diet. You, as a nurse, prepare the health education plan.
- Which of the following participants should be present and cooperative in the education program prior to surgery?
A. New staff nurses and nursing assistants of the unit
B. Head nurse and the family
C. Patient, family and significant others
D. Patient, students nurses and interns
A
C
17
Q
- In creating an education plan, which of the following components should the nurse include? Select all that apply.
I. Objectives
II. Content and allotment
III. Teaching and Learning resources
IV. Evaluation Parameters
A. II, III, IV
B. I, III, IV,
C.I, II, III, and IV
D. I, II, and III
A
C
18
Q
- On the day of the teaching, you aim to have a simplified and more understandable implementation of the plan for the intended audience. The nurse decided to present it with the use of which of the following?
A. Colored pictures
B. With a co-worker
C. With a lecturer
D. Printed content in a cartolina
A
D
19
Q
- Before the education plan can be finalized and implemented by the staff nurse, it would be BEST if it is reviewed by who?
A. Chief Nurse
B. Head Nurse
C. Medical Director
D. Nurse Supervisor
A
B
20
Q
- While planning for the implementation process, the nurse should ensure which of the following for a better assimilation of the teachings?
A. Neophyte as a sharer
B. Conducive time and place
C. Lecture to start at 11:00 AM
D. A serious lecturer
A
B
21
Q
Situation: To build rapport, communication is very important in a nurse-patient interaction relationship.
- The nurse should not only listen to the patient but also validate what they have heard. The importance of validation is listed below EXCEPT:
A. Assists in clarifying thoughts
B. Eye contact does not necessarily send same message
C. Most of the patients are cognitively impaired
D. Perception influences the interpretations of a message
A
C
22
Q
- A nurse should understand the elements of communication process to be a more effective communicator. When she initiates interpersonal communication, which of the following is the element involved?
A. Channel
B. Message
C. Sender
D. Referent
A
C
23
Q
- In many cases, nurses encounter patients under distress due to their health conditions. Which of the following is most appropriate to be used?
A. Listening
B. Sharing
C. Empathizing
D. Sympathizing
A
A
24
Q
- As a nurse to establish rapport more effectively, the reasons behind the motivation to enhance their communication skills are the following, except:
A. Generates threat between the nurse and the patient
B. Gets better evaluation rating of care and delivery
C. Decreased incidents of legal problems
D. Brings about change to promote well-being of patients
A
A
25
25. When nurse interacts with patients face-to-face, such as getting information during the assessment phase of the nursing process, the level of communication is which of the following?
A. Intrapersonal
B. Interpersonal
C. Public communication
D. Verbal
B
26
Situation: In record keeping, it is essential that the records are well-recorded and properly stored to serve the organization and the public.
26. Incident Reports IRs shall be collected for the day and due investigations scheduled by the Quality Department. Upon completion the investigation, the IRs___
A. classified by date so they can be easily accessibility
B. must be summarized monthly and stored in secured cabinet
C. can be stored on the tabletop for easy retrieval
D. must be completed and stored on the open cabinet
B
27
27. The patient record (charts) are collected every three nights from the various departments. The night nurse is expected to do the following EXCEPT,
A. Tape or repair torn pages
B. Bind the charts as they are
C. See the completeness of the chart
D. Ensure the correct order
B
28
28. When patient record reaches the Medical Records, the assigned staff will initially do which of the following?
A. Separate the medicolegal charts
B. Bind the chart immediately
C. Check the completeness of the charting of the doctors and nurses
D. Store the charts in their respective shelves
C
29
29. The charts are stored in the Medical Records or storage room for least _years.
A. 3-5 years
B. 1-5 years
C. 5-10 years
D. 1-3 years
C
30
30. How many years are medico-legal charts stored?
A. 8 years
B. 10 years after the case is closed
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
B
31
Situation: Patient falls are included in the numerous complaints received by the Quality Department of the hospital you work for.
31. A 80-year-old patient under your care, Alice, was admitted for recurrent fever. She fell from the bed despite the presence of her watcher. The head nurse has been implementing the fall protocol to b adhered to by the whole unit for several months already. To avoid similar fall incidents, what is the APPROPRIATE thing for the head nurse to do in this regard?
A. Do a root cause analysis
B. Investigate everyone
C. Interview the nurse-on-duty
D. Interview the patient
A
32
32. Upon investigation, the head nurse was informed by the nurse that the lock for the side rails does not work properly at times and might have gotten loose during the fall incident. What is the APPROPRIATE action for the head nurse to do in this regard?
A. Warn everyone that this is not to be tolerated in the future.
B. Punish the nurse-on-duty for failure to report such observation before the incident.
C. Make a memo to the Maintenance Department to check the reported bed and the rest of the beds as well.
D. Penalize all the nurses for not checking and reporting such defect.
C
33
33. The quality improvement officer-in-charge of the units plans to conduct a meeting with the staff.
The MOST important thing to tackle is to
A. Scold those involved
B. Inform them of their lapses
C. Review the protocol
D. Inform them of their punishment
C
34
34. After the fall incident, which of the following should the nurse do as the INITIAL action immediately to mitigate the situation?
A. Have a doctor assess the patient immediately
B. Wait for the head nurse
C. Phone the Head Nurse to report the incident
D. Document the incident right away
A
35
35. After the incident, what lessons can be learned by the nurse from this incident?
A. Never get caught on her omission
B. Deny any errors or omission
C. Safety-first report even trivial but relevant observations
D. Tell the others to cover her up
C
36
Situation: HIV-AIDS health education has been widespread in previous years, yet there are still a number of patients and relatives who have misconceptions about it. Ally, a young mother of 34, has been recently diagnosed with the disease.
36. Ally has heard about the possibility of mother-to-child transmission of HIV-1. She expressed concern and asked the nurse when it could specifically happen. The nurse answers that it can occur in tr following circumstances, EXCEPT which of the following?
A. In utero
B. At the time of delivery
C. During casual contact
D. During breastfeeding
C
37
37. Ally asked you on how to limit further exposure to HIV by using preventive measures. Which of the following is the BEST type or material of male condoms that can decrease transmission of HIV?
A. Lambskin
B. Polyurethane
C. Latex
D. Non-latex
C
38
38. If Patient Ally has a CD4 lymphocyte count of below 200 cells/mm3, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Worrisome result but immediate attention is not necessary.
B. Slightly below normal there is nothing to worry about.
C. She is in Stage 3 HIV-AIDS
D. The results stills fall within normal limits
C
39
39. In discussing the methods of HIV prevention, which of the following is the LEAST realistic to follow?
A. Linkage to a treatment center
B. Total abstinence
C. Behavioral intentions to reduce risk
D. HIV test
B
40
40. Due to the nature of the work, nurses are at risk of HIV exposure. Post-exposure prophylaxis does not include which of the following?
A. Start the medicine within 72 hours of exposure
B. Drugs must be taken for a least a week
C. Drugs must be taken for 28 days
D. Take 2-3 anti-retroviral drugs, as prescribed
B
41
Situation: Jennie, a 24-year-old newly-hired nurse in the OB Ward is now complaining of contact dermatitis due to the use of gloves two days ago.
41. People with delayed hypersensitivity due to LATEX use frequently complain about the following:
A. Papules, vesicles, pruritus
B. Rhinitis, conjunctivitis, blisters
C. Urticaria, laryngeal edema
D. Flushing, bronchospasm
B
42
42. Diagnosis of contact latex allergy is based on history and which of the following?
A. ELISA test
B. Skin patch test
C. Finding the IgE in the serum
D. Latex-specific IgE
D
43
43. Upon researching, you learned that latex allergy can be considered as type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity to plant proteins from latex of rubber. This can manifest in its MOST severe form as which of the following?
A. Blister and other skin lesions
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Asthma
D. Pruritus, erythema, and swelling
B
44
44. Type I IgE-mediates immediate hypersensitivity reaction is promptly managed with this medication:
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Corticosteroids
C. Epinephrine
D. Theophylline
C
45
45. Which of the following is the BEST prevention for contact latex allergy?
A. Resign from a job that needs contact with latex
B. Avoid rubberized items
C. Avoid latex products
D. Apply lotion before gloving
C
46
Situation: Belly is a 55-year-old woman who was brought to the emergency ward due to complaints C+) numbness on the left side of her face and arm, seen as confused during the encounter. The ER doctor made an initial impression of ischemic stroke.
46. After the initial treatment, Conrad, her husband asked how she developed the manifestations of ischemic stroke. Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Extravasation of blood into the brain
B. Vascular occlusion in cerebral blood flow
C. Possible presence of cerebral aneurysm
D. All of the above
B
47
47. In stroke patients, the nurse knows that visual-perceptual disturbance may occur. When Belly manifests hemianopsia, she has which of the following?
A. Inability to understand spoken language
B. Difficulty speaking
C. Blindness in half in the visual field
D. Inability to perform everyday movements and gestures
C
48
48. Which of the following is the INITIAL diagnostic ordered by the physician for stroke?
A. CT Scan
B. MRI
C. 12-lead ECG
D. Carotid UTZ
A
49
49. Once confirmed, the ER nurse anticipates that a thrombolytic agent would be ordered by the physician. Knowing the actions of a thrombolytic, which of the following is commonly WATCHED OUT for by the nurse?
A. Allergies
B. Early onset of infection
C. Bleeding
D. Formation of blood clots
C
50
50. Patient Belly complains of shoulder pain. The nurse is aware that the patient would be prone to have adduction of shoulder, which of the following is the appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Place one pillow in the axilla to keep the arm away from the chest
B. Position the fingers so they are barely flexed
C. Place the pillow under the arm to keep the arm close to the chest
D. Position distal joint higher than proximal joint
A
CLOSE DOOR PART A & B
flashcards
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