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NS Test Flashcards

(102 cards)

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1
Q

What are common causes of lower back pain?

A

Idiopathic; repetitive stress, sedentary or postural work environments

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2
Q

What are treatments for lower back pain?

A

NSAIDs, muscle relaxants, narcotics, massages, chiropractor

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3
Q

What is degenerative joint disease caused by?

A

Continuous vertical compression of the spine (axial loading)

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4
Q

What is spondylosis?

A

Wear-and-tear arthritis of the spine, leading to stiffness

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5
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

A

One vertebra slips forward over the one below, usually in lumbar region

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6
Q

What is spinal stenosis?

A

Narrowing of spine spaces, compressing nerves or spinal cord

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7
Q

What causes herniated intervertebral disc?

A

Torn ligament and posterior capsule allowing nucleus pulposus to compress nerves

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8
Q

Where does herniated disc usually occur?

A

Lower lumbar region: L4-L5, L5-S1

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9
Q

What condition can herniated discs cause?

A

Sciatica

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10
Q

What causes ischemic strokes?

A

Thrombus, embolus, or hypoperfusion

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11
Q

Name types of ischemic strokes.

A

TIA, thrombotic, embolic, lacunar, hypoperfusion

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12
Q

What are symptoms of carotid artery occlusion?

A

Dysphasia, contralateral motor and sensory deficits

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13
Q

What are symptoms of middle cerebral artery occlusion?

A

Conjugate ipsilateral eye deviation, contralateral sensory deficits

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14
Q

What are symptoms of vertebrobasilar occlusion?

A

Dizziness, ataxia, quadriplegia, coma

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15
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Temporary neurologic dysfunction lasting <1 hour due to cerebral ischemia

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16
Q

What are symptoms of TIA?

A

Weakness, numbness, confusion, balance loss, severe headache

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17
Q

What causes thrombotic stroke?

A

Arterial occlusions from thrombi due to coagulation or low cerebral perfusion

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18
Q

What conditions increase thrombotic stroke risk?

A

Dehydration, hypotension, malignant hypertension

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19
Q

What causes embolic stroke?

A

Fragments of thrombus from outside brain (fat, air, tumor, etc.)

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20
Q

Where do embolic strokes usually occur?

A

Branches of the middle cerebral artery

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21
Q

What causes lacunar stroke?

A

Occlusion of deep perforating artery affecting subcortical areas

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22
Q

Symptoms of lacunar stroke?

A

Pure motor or sensory deficits

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23
Q

What causes hypoperfusion stroke?

A

Cardiac failure, PE, or bleeding reducing brain perfusion

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24
Q

Symptoms of hypoperfusion stroke?

A

Bilateral and diffuse neurological symptoms

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25
How does hemorrhagic stroke present?
Severe headache, rapid decline, possible seizures and coma
26
How does ischemic stroke present?
Sudden deficits, usually no headache, more gradual
27
Where do intracranial aneurysms usually occur?
Anterior circulation near Circle of Willis
28
Types of aneurysms?
Saccular (berry) and fusiform (giant)
29
What causes anoxic brain injury?
Stroke, cardiac arrest, strangulation, anemia, hypotension, smoke inhalation, shock
30
When does irreversible brain damage occur in anoxia?
After ~4 minutes
31
What causes subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Ruptured aneurysm
32
What causes epidural hemorrhage?
Trauma → rupture of middle meningeal artery
33
CT appearance of subarachnoid vs. epidural hemorrhage?
Subarachnoid: blood in sulci/cisterns; Epidural: lens-shaped (biconvex) bleed
34
Symptoms of subarachnoid hemorrhage?
Thunderclap headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, ↓LOC
35
Symptoms of epidural hemorrhage?
Lucid interval, blown pupil, rapid coma
36
What are symptoms of meningitis?
Stiff neck, thunderclap headache, vomiting, photophobia
37
Treatment for bacterial meningitis?
Immediate IV antibiotics
38
What causes encephalitis?
Viral (e.g., HSV-1, mosquito-borne)
39
Treatment for encephalitis?
Acyclovir, steroids
40
What causes brain abscess?
IV drug use or immunocompromised status
41
Treatment for brain/spinal abscess?
Antibiotics and aspiration
42
What causes Tourette syndrome?
Dopamine imbalance
43
Signs of Huntington’s disease?
Relatively rare, hereditary, degenerative hyperkinetic movement disorder diffusely involving the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex  Onset: 25-45 years of age  Due to: defect of chromosome 4 specifically with the huntingtin (htt) protein
44
Symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?
Resting tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability
45
What is Bell’s palsy?
CN VII palsy causing sudden unilateral facial weakness  Most common peripheral paralysis of cranial nerve VII  Partial or complete weakness of one half of the face  Spontaneous recovery
46
What does ALS affect?
Both upper and lower motor neurons
47
What is strabismus?
Eye deviation
48
What is nystagmus?
Rhythmic eye motion
49
What is amblyopia?
Lazy eye
50
What is diplopia?
Double vision
51
What causes glaucoma?
Increased intraocular pressure → optic nerve damage
52
What is myopia?
Nearsightedness
53
What is hyperopia?
Farsightedness
54
What is astigmatism?
Irregular cornea
55
What is ptosis?
Drooping eyelid
56
Most common cause of seizures in children?
Febrile seizures
57
What causes Reye syndrome?
Liver failure + encephalopathy after ASA + viral illness
58
Key signs of fetal alcohol syndrome?
Irritability, aggression, impulse control issues
59
What is an absence seizure?
Brief lapse in awareness, mostly in children
60
What is a myoclonic seizure?
Sudden muscle jerks, often in clusters
61
What is an atonic seizure?
Sudden loss of muscle tone, risk of injury
62
What is a focal aware seizure?
Conscious, localized symptoms (e.g., twitching, sensory auras)
63
What is a focal impaired awareness seizure?
Altered consciousness, automatisms, postictal confusion
64
What is status epilepticus?
Seizure >5 minutes or multiple seizures without regaining consciousness
65
Why is status epilepticus lethal?
Brain hypoxia, excitotoxicity, ↑ICP, metabolic derangements, autonomic instability, respiratory compromise
66
Why is status epilepticus CTAS 1?
Immediate threat to life, airway, breathing, or circulation—needs urgent resuscitation
67
What is the first symptom of Alzheimer disease?
Memory loss; impaired learning
68
What is the mental status in Alzheimer disease?
Episodic memory loss
69
What are neurobehavioral features in Alzheimer disease?
Initially normal, progressive cognitive impairment
70
What is the neurologic exam result in Alzheimer disease?
Initially normal
71
What is the first symptom of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Dementia, mood, anxiety, movement disorders
72
What is the mental status in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Variable; frontal/executive, cortical, memory affected
73
What are neurobehavioral features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Depression, anxiety
74
What is the neurologic exam result in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Myoclonus, rigidity, parkinsonism
75
What is the first symptom of dementia with Lewy bodies?
Visual hallucinations; delusions that family/friends are someone else; REM sleep disorder; delirium; parkinsonism
76
What is the mental status in dementia with Lewy bodies?
Drawing and frontal/executive; memory; delirium
77
What are neurobehavioral features of dementia with Lewy bodies?
Visual hallucinations, depression, sleep disorder, delusions
78
What is the neurologic exam result in dementia with Lewy bodies?
Parkinsonism
79
What is the first symptom of frontotemporal dementia?
Apathy; poor judgment/reasoning; speech/language issues
80
What is the mental status in frontotemporal dementia?
Frontal/executive; language; memory spared
81
What are neurobehavioral features of frontotemporal dementia?
Apathy, decline in personal/social conduct, euphoria, depression
82
What is the neurologic exam result in frontotemporal dementia?
PSP/CBD overlap: vertical gaze palsy, axial rigidity, dystonia, alien hand
83
What is the first symptom of vascular dementia?
Often but not always sudden onset; usually within 3 months of a stroke; apathy, falls, focal weakness
84
What is the mental status in vascular dementia?
Frontal/executive, cognitive slowing; memory can be intact
85
What are neurobehavioral features of vascular dementia?
Apathy, delusions, anxiety
86
What is the neurologic exam result in vascular dementia?
Usually motor slowing; can be normal
87
What is the most common cause of seizures in children?
Fever (febrile seizures)
88
What is the definition of epilepsy?
A seizure disorder causing recurrent seizures without a correctable cause
89
What are common causes of seizures?
Space-occupying lesions, scar tissue, metabolic disorders (hypoglycemia, acidosis, electrolyte imbalance), drug/alcohol OD or withdrawal, toxins, pyrexia, congenital causes, idiopathic, epilepsy, status epilepticus
90
What is the preictal phase of a seizure?
The period before a seizure, including prodrome (mood changes, fatigue) and aura (warning symptoms like smell or feeling)
91
What is the ictal phase of a seizure?
The active seizure phase, includes tonic (stiffening) and clonic (jerking) components
92
What is the postictal phase?
The recovery period after a seizure, often includes confusion, fatigue, headache, or amnesia
93
What are automatisms in seizures?
Repetitive, involuntary movements during a seizure, like lip-smacking or blinking
94
What is a Grand Mal seizure?
A generalized tonic-clonic seizure with loss of consciousness and full-body convulsions
95
What is a Petit Mal seizure?
Another term for absence seizure, typically in children, characterized by brief lapses in awareness without convulsions
96
What is a simple partial seizure?
A focal seizure without loss of consciousness; may involve localized twitching or sensory symptoms
97
What is a complex partial seizure?
A focal seizure with impaired consciousness; patient may display automatisms and confusion
98
What is status epilepticus?
A seizure lasting more than 5 minutes, or multiple seizures without full recovery between them, or one seizure >30 minutes (older definition)
99
Why is status epilepticus classified as CTAS 1?
It's life-threatening and requires immediate resuscitation due to risks of airway compromise, hypoxia, brain injury, and death
100
What medications are used for epilepsy?
Anti-epileptic drugs such as Phenytoin, Gabapentin, Carbamazepine, Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam
101
What are psychogenic non-epileptic seizures (PNES)?
Seizures that mimic epileptic seizures but are caused by psychological factors, not abnormal brain activity
102
How are PNES different from epileptic seizures?
No postictal confusion, pelvic thrusting, side-to-side head shaking, resistance to eye opening, and may stop when distracted
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