Nvv’

Question 1

• Identifies the presence of proteins
• Uses 1% NaOH and a solution of Copper (II) sulfate
• Positive Result: Violet color

Answer 1

Biuret Test

Question 2

• Used to detect the presence of amines
• Positive Result: Purple (Ruehlmanns’ Purple) = Amino Acids with a free amin group, Yellow = Imino Acids (Proline & Hydroxyproline)

Answer 2

Ninhydrin Test

Question 3

• For Tyrosine, Tryptophan
• Uses conc. HNO3 and 40% NaOH
• Positive Result: Yellow Color

Answer 3

Xanthoproteic Test

Question 4

• Specific for Tyrosine
• Uses Mercury dissolved in conc. HNO3
• Positive Result: Yellow Coloration

Answer 4

Millon’s test

Question 5

• Specific for Tyrosine (Indole group)
• Uses Glyoxylic Acid in Glacial Acid and Sulfuric Acid
• Positive Result: Purple Color on the surface

Answer 5

Hopkin’s – Cole Test

Question 6

• Specific for Cysteine
• Used in alkaline solution
• Positive Result: Red Colorati

Answer 6

Nitroprusside Test

Question 7

• Specific for Arginine (guanido group)
• Uses NaOH, α-naphthol, and Bromine solution

Answer 7

Sakaguchi Test

Question 8

TYPES OF COLLAGEN

▪️ Found in skin and bones

Answer 8

Type l

Question 9

TYPES OF COLLAGEN

▪️ Found in the Cartilage

Answer 9

Type ll

Question 10

TYPES OF COLLAGEN

▪️ Found in the arterial walls

Answer 10

Type lll

Question 11

TYPES OF COLLAGEN

▪️ Found in the basal lamina

Answer 11

Type IV

Question 12

TYPES OF COLLAGEN

▪️ Found in the hair and placenta

Answer 12

Type IV

Question 13

is a disorder in the synthesis of Type I collagen characterized by a distinctive blue sclera and predisposed multiple childhood fracture

Answer 13

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

Question 14

A group of connective tissue disorders that are generally characterized by hyperextensible skin, joint Ehlers – Danlos Syndrome hypermobility, and defects in large blood vessels

Answer 14

Ehlers – Danlos Syndrome

Question 15

• A polypeptide hormone produced by the beta – cells of the
pancreas
• Synthesis of Preproinsulin in the rough ER → Proinsulin is cleaved in the secretory granules → C – peptide is released Insulin → the remaining molecule forms

Answer 15

Insulin

Question 16

optimal pH is 2

Answer 16

Pepsin

Question 17

• Catalyzes REDOX reactions
• Also called as dehydrogenases or reductases

Answer 17

Oxidoreductase

Question 18

• Catalyzes reactions involving the transfer of different groups from the substrate to another
• Amino Transferases, Methyl transferases

Answer 18

Transferases

Question 19

• Catalyzes the substrate bond cleavage by adding water
• Amylase, Saccharase

Answer 19

Hydrolase

Question 20

• Catalyzes the substrate bond cleavage by adding water
• Amylase, Saccharase

Answer 20

Lyases

Question 21

• Catalyzes structural rearrangements
• Triose isomerase

Answer 21

Isomerases

Question 22

• Also called as synthetases
• Catalyzes the addition of 2 molecules using ATP as energy source
• DNA – Ligase

Answer 22

Ligases

Question 23

• An inhibitor that is structurally related to the substrate binds to the active center preventing the formation of the enzyme – substrate complex

Answer 23

Competitive

Question 24

• An inhibitor binds to the enzymes or enzyme – substrate complex which leaves the active center free and may induce conformational hinders the formation of enzyme – substrate complex.

Answer 24

Noncompetitive

Question 25

• An inactivator bonds covalently to the enzyme and inactivate it

Answer 25

Irreversible

Question 26

These are enzymes that may differ in amino sequences and physical properties but catalyze the same reaction.

Answer 26

Isoenzymes

Question 27

Also known as isozymes

Answer 27

Isoenzymes

Question 28

• Contains nucleosides that is made up of a nitrogenous base, deoxyribose, and phosphate • The nitrogenous bases are classified into Purine and Pyrimidines

Answer 28

DNA Structure

Question 29

• Proposed by Watsons and Crick in 1953

Answer 29

DNA Double Helix

Question 30

via 2 hydrogen bonds (major groove)

Answer 30

Adenine & Thymine

Question 31

via 3 hydrogen bonds (minor groove)

Answer 31

Guanine & Cytosine

Question 32

DNA DOUBLE HELIX CONFORMATIONS: ▪️Right-handed

Answer 32

B form

Question 33

DNA DOUBLE HELIX CONFORMATIONS: ▪️Left-handed

Answer 33

Z form

Question 34

DNA DOUBLE HELIX CONFORMATIONS: ▪️dehydrated and compact; Right-handed

Answer 34

A form

Question 35

Separation of the DNA strands due to heat or alkali exposure without breaking the phosphodiester bond

Answer 35

Denaturation

Question 36

Upon heating, DNA strands separate the base pairs reform once the temperature is slowly decreased

Answer 36

Renaturation

Question 37

A single strand of DNA or RNA pairs with a complementary base sequence on another strand of DNA or RNA

Answer 37

Hybridization

Question 38

These are small of DNA small, basic proteins rich in Arg and Lys; not present in prokaryotes

Answer 38

His tones

Question 39

Eukaryotic chromatins consist of a DNA complexed with

Answer 39

Histones

Question 39

• Contains a cap consisting of a methylated guanine triphosphate attached to the hydroxyl group on the ribose at the 5’ end • The poly(A) tail contains up to 200 Adenine nucleotides

Answer 39

Messenger (mRNA)

Question 40

• Aids in the formation of ribosomes • Prokaryotic • Eukaryotic

Answer 40

Ribosomal (rRNA)

Question 41

70s (Large subunit = 50s; Small subunit = 30s)

Answer 41

Prokaryotic

Question 42

80s (Large subunit = 60s; Small subunit = 40s)

Answer 42

Eukaryotic

Question 43

Has a characteristic cloverleaf structure

Answer 43

Transfer (tRNA)

Question 44

• Replication begins at a specific origin and simultaneously moves out in both directions • Prokaryotes have one site of origin while eukaryotes can have multiple sites of origin

Answer 44

Bidirectional

Question 45

• The resulting daughter DNA contains one intact parenteral strand and newly synthesized complementary strand.

Answer 45

Semiconservative

Question 46

• Is the major control point in gene expression and protein production • Catalyzed by DNA – dependent DNA polymerase • No primer is needed • Uses one strand of DNA as template

Answer 46

RNA TRANSCRIPTION

Question 47

• Can initiate synthesis of new chains without primer • Copies the DNA template in a 3’ – 5’ direction and resulting RNA elongates in a 5’ – 3’ direction

Answer 47

RNA Polymerase

Question 48

RNA polymerase precursors

Answer 48

Ribonucleoside Triphosphate (ATP, UTP, GTP, and CTP)

Question 49

inhibits the beta subunit of bacterial dependent RNA Polymerase

Answer 49

Rifampin

Question 49

binds to DNA and inhibits the elongation or RNA Transcription by RNA Polymerase

Answer 49

Actinomycin

Question 50

is directed by the sigma factor to bind to the promoter

Answer 50

RNA polymerase

Question 51

catalyzes the elongation of mRNA by about 4 more units

Answer 51

RNA Polymerase holoenzyme

Question 52

initiates the mRNA synthesis with a purine ribonucleoside triphosphate

Answer 52

RNA Polymerase

Question 53

(Rho – independent Transcription Termination) • Controlled by specific sequences called termination sites wherein the sequences form a hairpin loop structure that allows the RNA Polymerase to detach from the DNA template strand

Answer 53

Intrinsic

Question 54

Rho – dependent Transcription Termination • Involves the Rho – Protein • The rho –protein binds to the RNA and chases the polymerase until it reaches the termination site to facilitate the dissociation of the RNA Polymerase from the DNA Template Strand.

Answer 54

Extrinsic

Question 54

• Found in the nucleolus and synthesizes the precursors of ribosomal RN

Answer 54

RNA Polymerase (Promoters)

Question 55

• Found in the nucleoplasm and synthesizes mRNA precursors

Answer 55

RNA Polymerase ll

Question 56

(a toxin from the mushroom Amanita phalloides) binds and inhibits RNA Polymerase II which halts mRNA synthesizes resulting to severe GIT symptoms, liver toxicity, and death.

Answer 56

α-Amaniti α-Amanitin

Question 57

• Found in the nucleoplasm and synthesizes the tRNA precursors

Answer 57

RNA Polymerase III