Year 4 > O&G > Flashcards

O&G Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe how to calculate estimated delivery date?

A

280 days (40 weeks) from the 1st day of the LMP

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2
Q 
Describe the hormone levels of
- oestrogen
- progesterone
- beta-hCG
in early pregnancy
A

After ovulation and fertilisation, oestrogen and progesterone continue to gradually rise, but bHCG peaks around week 12 of pregnancy and then plateaus

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3
Q

Define miscarriage (early and late)

A

Miscarriage = spontaneous termination of pregnancy <24 weeks gestation

  • early = <12 weeks
  • late = 12-24 weeks
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4
Q

Define stillbirth

A

Any foetus born dead >24 weeks gestation

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5
Q

Define livebirth

A

Any foetus born at any gestation showing any signs of life after delivery

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6
Q

Define the following types of miscarriage:

  1. Threatened
  2. Inevitable
  3. Incomplete miscarriage
  4. Complete miscarriage
  5. Missed (silent)
  6. Septic
  7. Recurrent
  8. Anembryonic
A
  1. Threatened = vaginal bleeding, closed cervix, alive foetus with continuing intrauterine pregnancy
  2. Inevitable = vaginal bleeding and open cervix, non-continuing intrauterine pregnancy
  3. Incomplete miscarriage = retained POC in the uterus after miscarriage
  4. Complete miscarriage = all pregnancy tissue expelled after miscarriage and uterus now empty
  5. Missed (silent) = foetus no longer alive but no symptoms have occurred
  6. Septic = miscarriage complicated by intrauterine infection
  7. Recurrent = 3 or more consecutive miscarriages (before 24 weeks) with the same biological father
  8. Anembryonic = Gestational sac is present, but contains no embryo
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7
Q

What is the rate of miscarriage?

A

1/5 pregnancies

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8
Q

Describe how a miscarriage may present

A
  • pelvic pain
  • vaginal bleeding (from brown spotting to heavy +/- tissue)
  • asymptomatic
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9
Q

Describe how to investigate a miscarriage

A

Hx - quantify pain, bleeding, LMP…
Ex - are they haemodynamically stable?, is the cervix open or closed?
USS TV - look for 3 things…

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10
Q

Describe how USS is used as the gold standard method of investigating miscarriages

A

Look for 3 things:

  • mean gestational sac diameter
  • fetal pole and crown-rump length
  • fetal heartbeat

Heartbeat should be expected when CRL is >7mm (-> if there is no heartbeat, check 1 week later on scan before confirming non-viable pregnancy)

Fetal pole is expected once mean gestational sac diameter is >25mm (-> if the sac diameter is >25mm with no fetal pole, repeat scan one week later before confirming an anembryonic pregnancy)

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11
Q

List differentials of a miscarriage

A

Ectopic pregnancy

Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

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12
Q

Describe the management flowchart of miscarriage

A

<6 weeks gestation = expectant management
>6 weeks gestation = refer to early pregnancy assessment service, USS to rule out ectopic, then one of three management options (expectant, medical, surgical)

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13
Q

Describe the 3 management options of miscarriage

A
  1. Expectant - spontaneous passage with follow up scans 7-10 days later. Further referral if continued pain or bleeding.
  2. Medical - Mifepristone (an anti-progesterone drug) to prime and then 24-48hrs later… Misoprostol (a prostaglandin analogue - binds to prostaglandin receptors and activates them) which softens the cervix and stimulates uterine contraction, given orally or as a vaginal suppository, dose depending on gestation) can then do at home
    - 70% success
    - S/Ex: GI upset and pain, heavy bleeding, diarrhoea and vomiting -> provide anti-emetics
  3. Surgical - for unacceptable pain/bleeding or retained POC on scan
    - Can be MVA (manual vacuum aspiration = LOCAL ANAES.) or EVA (electric vacuum aspiration = GENERAL ANAES.) -> both >98% success
    - Requires cervical priming (usually misoprostol is given to soften the cervix)
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14
Q

Define an ectopic pregnancy

A

When a pregnancy is implanted outside of the uterus (most commonly in fallopian tube but can occur at entrance to fallopian tube/ovary/cervix/abdomen)

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15
Q

List RFx for ectopic pregnancies

A

Previous ectopic
Endometriosis
Pelvic infection particularly chlamydia/PID (causes scarring)
Previous STI - causes scarring
Pelvic surgery – including C-sec, sterilisation, appendicectomy
Contraception – progesterone only pill, IUD (contains copper)/IUS (contains progesterone)
Assisted conception techniques
Cigarette smoking
Age 40+

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16
Q

What is the incidence of ectopic pregnancies?

A

1/200 women

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17
Q

Describe how an ectopic pregnancy may present

A

Should be a differential for any sexually active woman who presents with pain, irregular bleeding and/or amenorrhea!!!

  • Missed period
  • Constant lower abdominal pain in the right or left iliac fossa
  • Vaginal bleeding
  • Lower abdominal or pelvic tenderness
  • Cervical motion tenderness (pain when moving the cervix during a bimanual examination)
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18
Q

How are ectopic pregnancies investigated?

A

Are they haemodynamically stable? (if not this could be an emergency)

Hx - possibility of pregnancy, unprotected sex, missed periods

Examination (bimanual)

USS - Transvaginal
□ May see an empty uterus
□ May see a gestational sac containing a yolk sac or fetal pole may be seen in the fallopian tube (or may see an empty gestational sac)
□ A mass moving separately to the ovary represents a tubal ectopic pregnancy
□ A mass moving with the ovary represents the corpus luteum

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19
Q

Describe pregnancy of unknown location and how a blood marker can be tracked to help with diagnosis

A

PUL = when woman has +ve pregnancy test but there is no evidence of pregnancy on USS scan
An ectopic cannot be excluded in this case, so the hormone hCG is measured (two readings taken 48hrs apart)

Normally the developing syncytiotrophoblast will produce this hormone.
- In an intrauterine pregnancy, hCG will double every 48hrs

If >63% increase in hCG after 48hrs - intrauterine pregnancy (repeat USS 1-2 weeks later)
If <63% increase in hCG after 48hrs - ectopic
Fall of <50% = miscarriage (repeat urine pregnancy test 2 weeks later to confirm pregnancy has ended)

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20
Q

At what hCG hormone level should a pregnancy be visible on USS?

A

> 1500 IU/L

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21
Q

Describe the management of ectopic pregnancy

A

All ectopics need to be terminated as they are not viable pregnancies!
3 options depending on clinical situation and the location of the ectopic

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22
Q

Describe expectant management of ectopic pregnancies and the criteria

A

Criteria:

  • Follow up needs to be possible to ensure successful termination
  • The ectopic needs to be unruptured
  • Adnexal mass < 35mm
  • No visible heartbeat
  • No significant pain
  • HCG level < 1500 IU / l
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23
Q

Describe medical management of ectopic pregnancies and the criteria

A

Methotrexate, can only be used if the following criteria are met:

  • HCG level must be < 5000 IU / l
  • Confirmed absence of intrauterine pregnancy on ultrasound
  • Able to return for follow up
  • No medical contraindications (e.g. anaemia, renal, hepatic impairment, UC, peptic ulcer)
  • Pain free
  • Unruptured ectopic
  • <35mm
  • No fetal heartbeat visible

Method:

  • Antifolate medication (injection) -> stops DNA synthesis
  • No new pregnancy until 3 months after HCG<5 (time required to replenish folic acid) methotrexate is teratogenic
  • Must use a reliable form of contraception for 3 months after as any future pregnancy could be harmed by remaining folate antagonist in the system! (omen advised not to get pregnant in these 3 months)
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24
Q

Describe surgical management of ectopic pregnancies and the criteria

A

Criteria:

  • If ruptured
  • Pain
  • Adnexal mass > 35mm
  • Visible heartbeat
  • HCG levels > 5000 IU / l

Methods:

  • Laparoscopic salpingectomy - removal of tube (where contralateral tube looks healthy no need to remove)
  • Laparoscopic salpingotomy - opening of affected tube and removal of POC
  • Requires HCG follow up
  • 1 in 5 require further management as pregnancy may not be removed (may need methotrexate or salpingectomy)

Anti-rhesus D is given to women who are rhesus negative and requiring surgical management of their ectopic

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25
What are the side effects of methotrexate
S/Ex of methotrexate: - Vaginal bleeding - Nausea and vomiting - Abdominal pain - Stomatitis (inflammation of the mouth)
26
Describe the need for rhesus immunisation
RH- mother and RH+ father Mother carried first RH+ child RH + antigens from developing fetus can enter mothers blood stream during delivery Mother then makes anti-RH antibodies If a second baby then grows in the mother who is RH+, her pre-made antibodies will cross the placenta and damage this second fetus' RBC's
27
List the criteria which may mean a mother needs to receive anti-Rhesus D immunisation
- Anti-D is required if mother is Rh negative - After management of ectopic pregnancy - Therapeutic termination of pregnancy - <12w vaginal bleed which is heavy, repeated or associated with severe pain - <12w medical or surgical management of miscarriage Any potentially sensitising event >12w
28
Describe haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), and how it may present antenatally and postnatally
When maternal RH antibodies cross the placenta and attack the developing foetus who is RH+ve As these antibodies destroy the fetus' RBC's, chemicals are released (particularly bilirubin) This causes jaundice -> kernicterus, and a haemolytic anaemia Jaundice + haemolytic anaemia = HDN Antenatal signs -> polyhydramnios, thickened placenta Post-natal signs -> jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, kernicterus
29
Give a basic recap of fertilisation and embryo formation:
- Fertilised egg = zygote - 16 cell divisions = morula - Morula is surrounded by glycoprotein coat called zona pellucida (prevents tubal implantation on way to uterus) - Morula becomes blastocyte - > Cells of the inner mass are now called the embryoblast -> gives rise to embryo and embryonic tissues - > Cells of the outer mass are collectively called the TROPHOBLAST -> gives rise to placenta
30
What is gestational trophoblastic disease?
A group of conditions characterised by abnormal proliferation of trophoblastic tissue with production of HCG - affects 1/700 livebirths in the UK - has premalignant and malignant forms
31
What are the risk factors for GTD?
- Extremes of maternal age (<20 or >40) - Previous molar pregnancy - Ethnicity (higher incidence in Asia and USA)
32
Describe the two 'premalignant' forms of GTD
1. Partial hydatidiform mole - triploid (2 sperms and 1 egg) 2. Complete hydatidiform mole - diploid (46 chromosomes all from father e.g. 2 sperms, and empty ovum)
33
Describe the 'malignant' forms of GTD
1. Invasive mole 2. Choriocarcinoma 3. PSTT - placental site trophoblastic tumour
34
What are the clinical features of GTD?
- PV bleeding - Enlarged uterus - Hyperemesis gravidarium - Hyperthyroidism - Early onset pre-eclampsia
35
How is GTD diagnosed and treated?
- US features ‘snowstorm appearance’ - Histology – ideally following suction curettage - > BHG tracking and registration with specialist centres (Dundee) for follow up and co-ordination of care
36
Describe N&V in pregnancy
Most common in 1st trimester (affects >50% women in 1st trimester) Very severe in some cases with high hCG - Multiple pregnancy - Molar pregnancy 90% settle by 16w Cause is unknown but may be associated with serum hCG levels (similar subunit to TSH)
37
What is hyperemesis gravidarium?
Persisitent vomiting in pregnancy causing weight loss (more than 5% of body mass) and ketosis Hyperemesis affects 1% of pregnancy women associated with increased bHCG (i.e. twins)
38
What are the effects of hyperemesis gravidarium on mum and baby?
Mum: - Wernices (thiamine deficiency) - Central pontine myelinolysis (rapid correction of hyponatraemia) - Maternal death (rare) Baby: - Higher incidence of intrauterine growth restriction - Significantly smaller at birth
39
How is hyperemesis gravidarium investigated?
Investigate if unable to keep food or fluids down, so check weight, hydration, electrolytes, BP - Urine – ketones, other causes (e.g. UTI causing vomiting) - Serum – renal, liver and thyroid function, transaminases may be abnormal and albumin low - US scan – multiple pregnancy, molar pregnancy?
40
How is hyperemesis gravidarium managed?
Admit if unable to keep anything down despite oral antiemetics – rehydration and correction of metabolic disturbances - Oral intake advice/ dietician - IV fluids (avoid dextrose as glucose can exacerbate Wernickes) tailor to correct electrolyte imbalance - Regular antiemetics – cyclizine, ondansetron - Thromboprophylaxsis - Vitamin replacement e.g. K, thiamine, folic acid - Total parenteral nutrition (extreme) - Psychological support - Assessment of fetal growth
41
Define gravidy
Total no. pregnancies, including misscarriages or stillbirths, and the current pregnancy
42
Define parity
The number of potentially viable pregnancies beyond 24 weeks that have been delivered, NOT including the current pregnancy, AND including still and livebirths
43
What does para 3 mean?
Three term deliveries
44
What does para 2 + 1 mean?
Two term pregnancies, and a miscarriage at 20 weeks
45
What does multiparous mean?
Has delivered live/potentially viable babies >24 weeks gestation
46
What does nulliparous mean?
Never delivered a live or potentially viable baby >24 weeks gestation
47
Describe how to term a woman who is currently pregnant (16 weeks) and has had two miscarriages in the past
Gravidum 3, parity 0 + 2
48
Define infertility
Also called subfertility = inability of a couple to achieve a clinical pregnancy after 12 months of regular sexual intercourse ``` Primary = no previous pregnancy Secondary = at least 1 previous pregnancy ```
49
List some factors affecting fertility
Age Timing of intercourse (sperm lives 72hrs inside female and needs to be there before ovulation) Body weight
50
How is infertility investigated?
``` History - previous pregnancies - ask about female cycles, previous STD's, smears - sexual habits Examination - look at ovaries with USS - sperm testing Primary care - BMI, STI screening, semen analysis, hormone testing Secondary care - Pelvic USS - Hysterosalpingogram (check tubes using x-ray + dye) - Laparoscopy + dye ```
51
What is the cut off parameters for suitable semen?
- concentration > 15 million/ml - total motility >40% - normal forms >4% - volume >1.5mls
52
What are the management options for infertility?
- ovulation induction - egg retrieval - intra-uterine insemination - IVF - ICSI (intracytoplasmic sperm infection)
53
What is ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?
- serious complication of fertility treatment (esp. IVF) - ovaries over-respond to gonadotrophin injections - vasoactive hormones and chemicals released systemically from the ovaries - fluid accumulates in 3rd spaces causing abdominal swelling, N&V, abdo pain, thirst, dehydration (intravascular depletion) - patient can become prothrombotic and develop a DVT/PE - affects 1/3rd of women having IVF - managed conservatively
54
What is the main differential for a 40yr old woman presenting with weight loss and bloating with no obvious cause?
Ovarian cancer? -> SEND FOR SCAN
55
What is the most common pathological type of ovarian cancer?
EPITHELIAL (90%) 'Serous' epithelial is the most common type Serous tumours can be high or low grade - high grade, resemble fallopian tube mucosa, has P53 mutations, often need BSO (to remove both ovaries and tubes) - low grade arise from ovarian surface epithelium
56
List some germ cell ovarian tumours
Teratoma (dermoid) = contain hair/teeth/cartilage, common 20-30 years
57
How can ovarian cancer spread?
- direct (transcoelemic) - exfoliation into peritoneal cavity - lymphatic
58
List RFx for ovarian cancer
- smoking - low parity - old age - FHx - HRT - obesity - early menopause/late menarche - genetics (BRCA 1/2)
59
Describe how the BRCA genes increase your risk of ovarian cancer
They are TSG's which normally hault the cell cycle if there are faults - However when mutated, they allow abnormal cells to continue cycling, leading to cancer development
60
Other than BRCA, what other gene mutation can increase your risk of ovarian/colon/endometrial cancers?
Lynch (HNPCC) cancer
61
List protective factors against ovarian cancer
Not smoking COCP Multiparity Breast feeding
62
How may an ovarian cancer present?
``` B symptoms Vague Bloating Loss of appetite GI upset Painful intercourse Pleural effusion/ascites (Meig's syndrome) ```
63
What is Meig's syndrome
Triad: Ovarian fibroma (a type of benign ovarian tumour) Pleural effusion Ascites
64
How is ovarian cancer investigated?
Bloods (FBC, LFT, U&E, tumour markers) - CA125 (non-specific), CEA, LDH, b-HCG, AFP USS (TV) CXR (look for pleural effusion or metastasis) CT (to determine initial treatment) Calculate RMI = USS findings x menopausal status x ca125 level - RMI > 250 = high risk of cancer - RMI < 250 = low risk of cancer
65
Describe the difference between staging and grading
Staging = the gross size of the tumour and how it has spread through the body Grading = microscopically, how differentiated the cells are (higher grade = less differentiated)
66
Describe roughly the FIGO staging for ovarian cancer
Stage 1 = limited to ovaries (Tx = surg) Stage 2 = peritoneal deposits in pelvis (Tx = surg them chemo) Stage 3 = peritoneal deposits outside pelvic (Tx = surg them chemo) Stage 4 = distant mets (Tx = palliative surg)
67
Describe the major treatment options for ovarian cancer
1. Surgery 2. Chemo/radio/hormonal (neoadjuvant or adjuvant) 3. Palliative
68
What is the most common type of endometrial cancer
~80% = adenocarcinoma There are 2 types of adenocarcinoma - type 1 = oestrogen dependent - type 2 = non-oestrogen dependent
69
What is endometrial hyperplasia?
- Pre-cancerous thickening of the endometrium - diagnosed on USS as thickening <4mm - can be - > hyperplasia without atypia - > atypical hyperplasia
70
How is endometrial hyperplasia treated?
Progesterone encourages regression! - mirena coil - oral progesterones
71
List risk factors for endometrial cancer
(UNOPPOSED OESTROGEN) - obesity - early menarche/late menopause - PCOS - diabetes - tamoxifen - oestrogen only HRT - HNPCC (breast/colon cancer)
72
List protective factors for endometrial cancer
- COCP - copper IUD - SMOKING! (smokers metabolise oestrogen differently)
73
How may endometrial cancer present?
- any abnormal bleeding e.g. PMB, PCB, IMB - vaginal discharge - altered menstrual pattern - anaemia
74
List differentials of PMB based on anatomy
- ovarian cancer - uterine fibroids - cervical changes - atrophic vaginal changes - haematuria - vulvitis, vulval malignancy
75
How is endometrial cancer investigated?
- Bloods 1 - TV USS (measure endometrial thickness) 2 - Pipelle biopsy 3 - Hysteroscopy and biopsy
76
Describe the FIGO staging of endometrial cancer
- Stage 1 = tumour confined to uterus - Stage 2 = cervical stroma invasion (not beyond uterus) - Stage 3 = tumour outside uterus - Stage 4 = invasion of bladder/bowel mucosa
77
Describe how endometrial cancer is treated
Surgical Adjuvant treatment (chemo/radio/hormonal) Palliative
78
# Define the following procedures: 1. Hysterectomy 2. Subtotal hysterectomy 3. Radical hysterectomy 4. BSO
1. Hysterectomy = removing uterus and cervix 2. Subtotal hysterectomy = removing uterus, leaves cervix 3. Radical hysterectomy = uterus, cervix and vaginal cuff removed 4. BSO = removing ovaries and tubes
79
Describe the lining of the cervix
- > squamous epithelium of outer cervix (continuous with vagina) - > then transformation zone - > then inner surface of cervix is lined with columnar epithelium
80
What is the 1. ectovervix 2. endocervix lined with?
1. Ectocervix - outer surface, squamous lining | 2. Endocervix = inner surface = columnar, glandular cells
81
What is a cervical ectropion?
Extension of the endocervical columnar epithelium downwards, which bleeds easily Common in pregnancy due to increased oestrogen Can be cauterised with silver nitrate sticks if necessary
82
Describe CIN
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia - precancerous changes - CIN grading looks at the level of DYSPLASIA in the cervix cells ``` CIN1 = mild dysplasia, affects 1/3rd thickness of the epithelial layer (return to normal without treatment) CIN2 = moderate dysplasia, affects 2/3rd thickness of the epithelial layer (likely to progress to cancer without treatment) CIN3 = severe dysplasia (likely to progress to cancer if left untreated, sometimes called cervical carcinoma in situ) ```
83
Describe the most common type of endometrial cancer
``` 80% = squamous cell carcinoma 20% = adenocarcinoma ```
84
Describe the HPV vaccine
- Ideally given to girls and boys before they become sexually active, with the intention of preventing them contracting and spreading HPV once they are sexually active - 80% of general population will be infected with the virus at some point in their life - Nearly 99.7% of cervical cancers are caused by HPV = HPV IS THE BIGGEST RFx - Vaccine - 2 injections (6-12 months apart) - Currently 'GARDISAL' vaccine – covers for HPV 6, 11, 16, 18 - 6 and 11 = genital warts - 16 and 18 are the high risk strains associated with cervical cancer
85
List RFx for cervical cancer
- HPV - think of factors which increase exposure! - smoking - early 1st sexual intercourse - COCP (because then not using condoms??) - FHx - multiple sexual partners - immunosuppression
86
Describe clinical features of cervical cancer
``` Post-coital bleeding Intermenstrual bleeding Post-menopausal bleeding vaginal discharge asymptomatic (found on smear) ```
87
List some differentials of cervical cancer
E.g. causes of IMB and PCB - cervical ectropion - cervical polyp - fibroids - endometrial hyperplasia - endometrial malignancy - hormonal breakthrough bleeding
88
How is cervical cancer investigated?
- Bloods - Speculum and smear (DO NOT SMEAR IF CERVIX APPEARS ABNORMAL as smears are for screening only!) - Colposcopy (carried out following an abnormal smear)
89
Describe the purpose of colposcopy
Can be used to diagnose CIN (remember smear tests show cell dyskaryosis = abnornal nucleus) Can use - acetic acid (causes abnormal cells to appear white as they have a higher nuclear:cyto ratio e.g. cancerous/CIN cells) - Iodine (stains healthy cells a brown colour and abnormal cells will not stain) - a punch or loop biopsy can also be carried out - a Cone biopsy can be carried out to treat CIN
90
Describe the FIGO staging of cervical cancer
Stage 1 = limited to the cervix Stage 2 = involves upper 2/3rds vagina Stage 3 = involves lower 1/3rd vagina Stage 4 = tumour has spread to other organs
91
Describe cervical screening, and possible smear results
- aims to detect and treat abnormal changes in a woman’s cervix that may develop into cervical cancer - 3yrly 25-49 - 5yrly 50-64 Smear results: - sample tested for HPV first (if HPV negative then not examined!) Inadequate sample - repeat in 3/12 HPV -ve = return to normal screening programme HPV +ve, normal cytology = repeat in 1 year HPV +ve, abnormal cells -> colposcopy! - Cells are either normal or the cells can be: - cancerous, or precancerous (low or high grade), and also borderline smear (i.e. they are abnormal but not sure if associated with precancer or not), can also be glandular abnormality (meaning the abnormal cells are arising from the glandular epithelium – i.e. arising from the endocervix)
92
What is lichen sclerosis?
- Most common of vulval dystrophies - Usually presents in postmenopausal women but can affect any age - Thought to be an immune reaction - an autoimmune condition - Affected skin usually can be a figure of 8 pattern around the vulva and perianal area. - Skin is thin, shiny and can be white (leukoplakia) or red (due to inflammation) - Uncontrollable scratching an pruritis (worse at night) - Anatomical changes include shrinkage or loss of labia minora, shrinkage of introitus (opening of vagina), labial fusion due to adhesions - Diagnosis histologically made from vulval biopsy but typical appearance can be treated. - Treatment goal is to treat the itch and soreness - Simple emollient Rx may relieve mild symptoms - If severe – may need course of potent topical steroid - Tapering regime of every day for one month, alternate days for one month, then 2x weekly for one month. Complications: - Unusual but include permanent anatomical change (labial fusion may persist) - Can cause dyspareunia, and if fusion is in the midline then may cause issues with micturition requiring separation of the labia. - Risk of malignancy – these ladies need to remain under annual review by GP to rule out conversion to VIN/vulval cancer
93
What is VIN and how may it present
Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (premalignant condition of the vulva) VIN 1 = low grade disease VIN 2/3 = high grade disease - Pruritis (2/3 of cases) - Pain - Ulceration - Leukoplakia or red - Lump/wart (popular, polypoid, verruciform) - 20% asymptomatic
94
What is the most common type of cancer affecting the vulva?
90% are squamous cell carcinomas
95
Describe the FIGO staging of vulval cancer
Stage 1 = confined to vulva Stage 2 = involves lower vagina, urethra, anus Stage 3 = spread to lymph nodes Stage 4 = spread to upper vagina, upper urethra, bladder or anus
96
What type of swab is used to test for chlamydia/gonorrhoea?
Endocervical (smear) swab
97
What type of swab is used to test for bacteria vaginosis, candida, group B strep and trichomonas?
High vaginal swab (taken from the posterior fornix)
98
What is the function of LH
Acts on and supports the theca cells, causing them to release androgens, oestrogen precursors and progesterone
99
What is the function of FSH
Acts on the granulosa cells causing them to release oestrogen and progesterone
100
What is the function of oestrogen in the proliferative phase?
Causes uterine lining to thicken
101
Define menopause
Period where menstruation has finished, refers specifically to the LMP but can only be diagnosed retrospectively after 1 year of absent cycles in women >45yrs NICE recommend using FSH level to diagnose menopause in women <40 with suspected premature menopause, or in women 40-45 with menopausal symptoms/change in their menstrual cycle
102
Describe the hormonal changes in the menopause
Hypothalamic-pituitary hyperactivity: high FSH and LH Low/absent progesterone Initially unopposed oestrogen, then low oestrogen Low inhibin
103
List side effects of the menopause
Vasomotor symptoms - hot flushes, night sweats Urogenital tract atrophy - atrophic vaginitis, recurrent UTI's, weaker pelvic floor and uterovaginal prolapse Psychological - insomnia, depression, poor concentration, irritable, los of libido Bones - osteoporosis Cardiovascular/stroke - IHD & stroke incidence increases
104
How is the menopause treated?
General measures - Good diet, exercise and weight control - Treat any medical condition e.g. Hypertension or diabetes - Psychological support if appropriate - HRT -> various preparations available
105
Why must HRT contain oestrogen and progesterone if the patient has a uterus? List the three adverse effects of HRT
As unopposed oestrogen therapy increases the risk of endometrial cancer 1. Breast cancer risk (increased with o+p therapies, but risk removed when HRT stops, no increased risk with oestrogen only preparations) 2. VTE clot risk: higher with oral preparations than transdermal 3. Stroke risk: higher with oral options, not transdermal
106
What preparations of HRT are available? What are the benefits of HRT?
Preparations - oral - transdermal - implants - gels/creams Benefits - lowers LDL (so improved LDL:HDL ratio) - reduced vasomotor symptoms - improves bone mineralisation and reduces # risk
107
What is the perimenopause? Define climacteric Define POI (premature ovarian insufficiency)
- May last for several years - Average age of menopause in UK = 51yrs - Variable estradiol production by granulosa cells - Peripheral androgen conversion to estrone in peripheral tissues becomes the main source of oestrogen - Rise in gonadotrophin production - If you are investigating a patient for irregular periods and you are trying to determine if it is perimenopausal or another pathology, low AMH (anti-müllerian hormone) is diagnostic for little/no follicles therefore suggests perimenopause Climacteric = stage in life where woman gradually loses her cyclical ovarian activity as follicle numbers reduce POI = where ovaries stop functioning normally <40yrs
108
Define heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia)
= menstrual bleeding that has an adverse impact on a woman's QOL (is the commonest cause of IDA in the affluent world)
109
List causes of HBM
1. Uterine pathology e.g. fibroids, polyps 2. Absence of uterine pathology e.g. anovulatory, ovulatory 3. Medical issue e.g. thyroid disorders, clotting disorders
110
What is adenomyosis
* Adenomyosis = a condition in which the inner lining of the uterus (the endometrium) breaks through the muscle wall of the uterus (into the myometrium - rather than out the way like endometriosus!) * Can cause menstrual cramps, pressure in the lower abdomen, and bloating before menstrual periods and can result in heavy periods
111
Which ethnicity is a RFx for uterine fibroids?
Afro-carribean
112
Describe the management of heavy menstrual bleeding
1. Exclude any underlying pathology 2. If patient needs contraception: - mirena coil - COCP - oral/depo progesterone 3. If patient does not need contraception - tranexamic acid (lightens bleeding) - mefenamic acid (lightens bleeding and reduced pain) 4. Surgical options (if medical treatment fails) - endometrial ablation - hysterectomy
113
Define amenorrhoea
Absence of menstruation (one or more missed periods)
114
Define primary and secondary amenorrhoea
Primary = failure to menstruate by 16yrs (+/- secondary sec characteristics) Secondary = defined as established menses stop for >6m in the absence of pregnancy in a woman who has previously had normal menstruation
115
Why can stress cause secondary amenorrhoea?
Stress (emotional, exams etc.) inhibits GnRH release and body goes into a pre-pubertal state
116
List 4 causes of primary amenorrhoea
- Physiological delay - Weight loss/anorexia/heavy exercise - PCOS (hormonal issues) - Imperforate hymen (structural issue)
117
List 4 categories of causes of secondary amenorrhoea
1) HPO axis issue (e.g. less GnRH when stressed) 2) Pituitary causes e.g. pituitary adenoma, hypothyroidism 3) Ovarian causes e.g. PCOS, premature ovarian failure (menopause) 4) Uterine causes e.g. PREGNANCY, breastfeeding, asherman's syndrome
118
What is asherman's syndrome
- A uterine cause of amenorrhoea - An uncommon acquired gynaecological condition characterised by reduced menstrual flow, increased cramping and abdominal pain, eventual cessation of menstrual cycles (amenorrhea), and, in many instances, infertility - Can be caused by excessive curettage/scraping of endometrial cavity -> stricture and scar formation inside the uterus meaning the lining cannot be shed in the menstrual cycle - Management: hysteroscopy and breakdown adhesions
119
Define oligomenorrhoea
(Bleeding too little) Infrequent menstrual periods (periods at intervals of >35 days with only 4-9 periods in a year) 'Definition of oligo- = cycles which are persistently >35days in length' Common during extremes of reproductive life
120
What are the Rotterdam criteria for PCOS?
Need 2/3 for diagnosis: 1. Hyperandrogenism (e.g. hirsuitism, acne) 2. Oligo/anovulation 3. USS features of PCOS (large volume ovaries +/- 12 follicles) -> bead of pearls
121
Describe the pathophysiology of PCOS
Complex metabolic HPO interactions 1. Obesity + genetics leads to insulin resistance 2. Insulin resistance leads to increased insulin production 3. Increased insulin leads to: - > reduced SHBG produced by the liver (sex hormone binding globulin) - > increased androgen release from thecal cells in the ovarian follicles 4. Less SHBG and more androgens means higher free circulating levels of testosterone and PCOS! (oligo-ovulation hirsuitism)
122
List the complications of PCOS
1. Reduced fertility 2. Insulin resistance and diabetes 3. HTN 4. Endometrial cancer (due to unopposed oestrogen)
123
Describe how PCOS is treated
1. Weight loss 2. COCP to control menstrual cycle (something with progesterone in for sure!) 3. Antiandrogens/cosmetic therapies to treat hirsuitism 4. GnRH treatment to overcome infertility 5. Screen early for CV RFx
124
Define dysmenorrhoea and list primary and secondary causes
Painful bleeding Primary -> idiopathic, without any organ pathology Secondary -> due to pelvic pathology e.g. endometriosis, adenomyosis, PID, fibroids
125
List causes of IMB/PCB
- Infection - STI (chlamydia and gonorrhoea) - Progesterone only contraceptives (mini-pill/implant) - Cervical causes: polyp, ectropion, cancer - Vaginal causes: atrophy, hymen tear, cancer - Uterine causes: cancer - Ovarian causes: peri-menopausal, PCOS, early miscarriage, cancer - Trauma - Pregnancy - Other causes: vaginitis, foreign bodies, polyps, oestrogen withdrawal
126
Define PMB (post-menstrual bleeding)
bleeding occurring >12m after LMP = endometrial carcinoma until proven otherwise -> do TV-USS -> if endometrial thickness is over 4mm then must get a biopsy
127
Define acute and chronic pelvic pain
``` Acute = <6 months e.g. PID and cysts Chronic = >6 months e.g. endometriosis ```
128
List differentials of acute pelvic pain
``` PID Early pregnancy complications e.g. miscarriage, ectopic Ovarian - cyst, rupture, torsion Fibroids Ovulation pain Cervix - ectropion, polyps Vulval/vaginal UTI Renal calculi Appendicitis ```
129
List differentials of chronic pelvic pain
``` Adenomyosis Endometriosis Gynae malignancy Diverticulitis IBD ```
130
Describe the pathologies covered under the umbrella term 'PID'
- endometritis (endometrium inflamed) - salpingitis (tubes inflamed) - pelvic peritonitis
131
What is the aetiology of pelvic inflammatory disease?
PID occurs due to ascending infection from the vagina/cervix Not always, but commonly associated with STI's - chlamydia - gonorrhoea (infective organisms are not always found!)
132
What complications can arise from PID? What is hydrosalpinx?
Complications - subfertility/tubal blockage - chronic pain - ectopic pregnancy Hydrosalpinx - A fallopian tube that is blocked with watery fluid (differential for PID) - Typically caused by previous infection/STI/pelvic surgery or endometriosis - Increased risk of ectopic pregnancy
133
How is PID investigated?
- pregnancy test - bloods - exclude UTI - swabs - TV USS (rule out tube-ovarian abscess)
134
How is PID managed?
Antibiotics (14 days) Analgesia Partner testing +/- contact tracing (may need surgery and percutaneous drainage of abscesses)
135
What is endometriosis and its causes?
Where endometrium has grown out-with the endometrial cavity It is HORMONALLY (oestrogen) DRIVEN and related to period Cause is unclear, but three components: - retrograde menstruation - metaplasia of cells - impaired immunity (woman who have bad endometriosis in their immune system cannot get rid of the tissue which is abnormally located)
136
What are the S/Sx of endometriosis
``` dysmenorrhoea dyspareunia dysuria pelvic pain (relative to cycle, or constant if there is scarring) subfertility ```
137
How is endometriosis diagnosed?
LAPAROSCOPY and biopsy is the gold standard investigation also: - bloods (Ca125) - examine with speculum + bimanual examination to check for visible patches/fixed uterus - TVUSS
138
How is endometriosis treated?
1. Conservative (if asymptomatic) 2. Medical - non-hormonal: NSAIDs 2. Medical - hormonal: COCP, mirena coil, depo injection (reduce oestrogen levels which stops ovulation and reduces endometrial thickening) 3. Psychological - to deal with chronic pain 4. Surgical - hysterectomy/oophorectomy of pain is unbearable (even though there may be ectopic tissue outwith the uterine cavity that is not removed, hysterectomy + BSO induces menopause, which should stop hormonal flare ups of any remaining tissue)
139
# Define 1. Antepartum haemorrhage 2. Intrapartum haemorrhage 3. Postpartum haemorrhage
1. Bleeding from/into the genital tract, occurring between 24 weeks of pregnancy and prior to birth 2. bleeding from onset of labour until baby is born 3. PPH = bleeding from when baby is born until 6 weeks post delivery
140
What are the two most important causes of antepartum haemorrhage to rule out (but not the most common)?
1. Placental abruption | 2. Placental praevia
141
Describe placenta praevia and how it is managed
Placenta is implanted in the lower segment of the uterus - presents with painless bleeding, non-engaged presenting part, soft uterus - seen on USS (at 18-22 weeks) as placenta encroaching within 5cm of the internal os - placenta may ascend as pregnancy continues after 24 weeks, so get another scan in 3rd trimester to check - classed as minor/major based on location of placenta in relation to os - risk of haemorrhage during natural birth (as baby squeezes past placenta and damages it) or at C-section as lower segment of uterus cannot contract Mgx: CS at 37 weeks. If mother presents with bleeding then treat A-E and either vaginal delivery or CS based on grade of praevia
142
Describe placental abruption and its treatment
Abruption -> presents with painful bleeding with a hard 'woody' uterus - retroplacental haemorrhage (between placenta and uterus) - involves some form of placental separation where there is then reduced gas exchange between fetal and maternal circulations, which predisposes to fetal hypoxia and acidosis - RFx = PIPES - > previous abruption - > intrauterine growth restriction - > pre-eclampsia - > essential HTN - > smoking Mgx: Fetal distress = emergency CS. No fetal distress = <36 weeks (give steroids and observe), >36 weeks (vaginal delivery)
143
Define primary and secondary PPH
``` Primary = within 24hrs delivery Secondary = blood loss between 24hrs and 12 weeks post-delivery ```
144
Describe the 4 main categories which cause PPH
4T's - thrombin (coagulation issue) - tone (uterine atony, lack of myometrial contraction to stop bleeding) - tissue (retained placental tissue) - trauma (vaginal/perineal tears)
145
In terms of infertility, what can go wrong with the sperm?
- azoospermia (obstructive e.g. in CF, or non-obstructive e.g. kleinfelter's)
146
In terms of infertility, what can go wrong with the egg?
1) HPO failure (e.g. athletes) 2) HPO dysfunction (e.g. PCOS, hypothyroid) 3) Ovarian failure (e.g. Turners, gonadal dysgenesis, radiotherapy)
147
What three drugs are used for ovulation induction?
1) Letrozole (an aromatase inhibitor) 2) Clomiphene (anti-oestrogen) 3) GnRH downregulation (by giving FSH/LH)
148
List risk factors for early menopause
1. Surgical (BSO) 2. Medical (chemo/radioTx) 3. Genetics (Turner's syndrome) 4. Cigarette smoking
149
Compare a pregnant vs non-pregnant uterus
Pregnant: - weight 1kg - cell hyperplasia - cellular hypertrophy - 4-5x enlarged - 5L Non-pregnant: - weight 70kg - 8cm long, 5cm wide - walls 2cm thick
150
What are the three stages of labour?
1st stage = from onset of labour (true contractions) to 10cm dilated 2nd stage = from 10cm dilated to baby delivered 3rd stage = from delivery of baby to delivery of placenta
151
Describe the 1st stage of labour
- LAT- 1) Latent phase (0-3cm dilated cervix, dilates at rate of 0.5cm/hr, irregular contractions) 2) Active phase (3-7cm dilated, dilates at rate of 1cm/hr, regular contractions) 3) Transition phase (7-10cm dilated, rate 1cm/hr, STRONG regular contractions)
152
Describe the bishop score
A pre-labour score used to assess cervical ripening and if induction of labour will be needed. - score from 0-13 >/= to 8 means IOL would be successful <8 means cervical ripening is required
153
Describe the natural changes that occur to the cervix and the role of prostaglandins
Cervix dilates and 'effaces' (gets thinner). The "show" occurs when the mucus plug (that has been preventing ascending infection during pregnancy) falls out. Prostaglandins are released which stimulate uterine contraction and "ripen" the cervix pre-delivery.
154
What are braxton hick contractions
IRREGULAR uterine contractions in 2/3rd trimesters. Do not become regular and do not indicate true onset of labour. Treatment -> hydration
155
Describe the 2nd stage of labour
Depends on the three P's: 1) Power (strength of uterine contractions) 2) Passenger (describe the foetus in 4 ways = SALP) - Size - Attitude (it's posture) - Lie (longitudinal/transverse/oblique) - Presentation (cephalic/shoulder/breech) 3) Passage (i.e. size and shape of pelvis) Involves the 7 cardinal movements of labour (Every Darn Fool In Egypt EatsRaw Eggs) - engagement - descent - flexion - internal rotation - extension - external rotation - expulsion
156
Describe the 3rd stage of labour
Delivery of placenta Can be managed physiologically or actively - physiological = placenta delivered by maternal effort without medications of cord traction - active = midwife/doctor assists -> give IM oxytocin to help uterus contract + traction on cord
157
Why is active management of the 3rd stage of labour often needed?
To reduce PPH
158
Name the two uterotonic hormones and describe their actions naturally and interventionally
1) Oxytocin - naturally controls contractions (slow tonic and fast phasic contractions) - interventionally, used to induce labour and stimulate contractions 2) Prostaglandin - naturally, controls myometrium contraction and relaxation - interventionally, given LOCALLY (not systemically, to reduce S/Ex) as vaginal tablet/gel to ripen cervix
159
Name a tocolytic agent and its use
Nifedipine - used to REDUCE UTERINE ACTIVITY based on - > how dilated the cervix is - > if steroids need time to be administered before baby is born - > to allow patient transfer to hospital
160
Define preterm birth and name some risk factors
``` = baby born <37 weeks RFx: - multiple pregnancy - previous preterm birth - cervical surgery - uterine abnormalities - pre-eclampsia - IUGR ```
161
How is preterm birth managed?
- look for precipitant e.g. infection, pre-eclampsia, polyhydramnios... - monitor the foetus and the contractions - give Abx if: sign of sepsis, ruptured membranes - consider tocolysis - give steroids for foetal lung development!
162
Define a post-dates pregnancy and what problems it can pose for a) mother, b) baby
Baby born >42 weeks (after 42 weeks, 30% occur spontaneously, and 50% require IOL) a) Problems for mother: - intrumental delivery/CS may be needed - increased PPH risk - longer delivery with more analgesia and psychological stress - more risk of uterine rupture and perineal trauma b) Problems for baby: - still-birth - meconium aspiration -> death - shoulder dystocia - intrapartum CS may be needed
163
When is induction of labour (IOL) offered and describe the methods that can be used
Offered 41-42 weeks, or in situations where it is beneficial to start labour early e.g. GestDiab where baby is big, pre-eclampsia... - use bishop score to assess Options: 1. Membrane sweep 2. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 3. Cervical ripening balloon 4. Oxytocin infusion 5. Oral mifepristone + misoprostol (if intra-uterine death has occured)
164
What is uterine hyperstimulation and what can it lead to
A complication with the use of vaginal prostaglandins - causes prolonged, frequent uterine contractions which causes foetal distress and compromise Can lead to: - foetal compromise (acidosis and hypoxia) - emergency C-section - uterine rupture
165
How is uterine hyperstimulation managed?
1. Remove vaginal prostaglandins / stop oxytocin infusion | 2. Tocolysis with terbutaline
166
Describe options for pain management in labour
1. Non-pharmacological - maternal support, good environment, good education, birthing pool, ?massage/?TENS 2. Pharmacological - entonox, IM diamorphine, epidural, spinal, general anaesthetic + CS
167
What is the difference between an epidural and a spinal?
``` Epidural = indwelling catheter in the epidural space, can be topped up with analgesia Spinal = subarachnoid numbing injection which only lasts 2-4hrs ```
168
What can dysfunctional activation of uterine contraction cause?
1) failure to progress in labour (cervical dilation <2cm in 4hrs) - RFx: older maternal age, high maternal BMI, genetics - Mgx with artificial rupture of membranes/oxytocin infusion - may result in assisted delivery 2) Atonic post-partum haemorrhage - failure of contraction mechanisms after delivery - blood loss >500ml
169
Classify APH as minor, major and massive
``` Minor = <50ml Major = 50-1000ml Massive = >1000ml +/- shock ```
170
Describe vasa praevia
Rare, where umbilical cord runs in fetal membranes and can cross the internal OS, can rupture during labour leading to fetal exanguination
171
List risk factors for uterine rupture and state how it is managed
RFx: - uterine overdistention (twins, polyhydramnios...) - XS uterotonic use - dystocia unrecognised (prolonged contractions against obstruction) - previous CS and scar rupture Management: Laparotomy and CS +/- hysterectomy
172
Compare and contrast placenta praevia vs placental abruption based on the following factors: 1) Shock 2) Pain 3) Bleeding 4) Tenderness 5) Foetus 6) Ultrasound
1) SHOCK: PP = shock is consistent with the blood loss, abruption = inconsistent blood loss to match shock 2) PAIN: PP = painless, abruption = painful 3) BLEEDING: PP: red, profound. Abruption = dark, often absent bleeding 4) TENDERNESS: PP = soft, non-tender uterus. Abruption = hard woody tender uterus 5) FOETUS: PP = Abnormal lie, high head, normal HR. Abruption = normal lie, engaged, distressed/dead 6) USS: PP = placenta low, abruption = often normal USS and placenta not low
173
List risk factors for PPH
- increasing maternal age - previous PPH - prolonged labour - pre-eclampsia - macrosomia - polyhydramnios - tocolytic agent use - CS
174
Quantify the blood loss in the following classifications of PPH: 1) Minor 2) Major 3) Moderate 4) Severe
1) Minor - <1000ml 2) Major - >1000ml 3) Moderate - 1000-2000ml 4) Severe - >2000ml
175
List 4 things which can be done to prevent PPH
1) Empty bladder during delivery (reduce contraction strength) 2) Treat anaemia antenatally 3) Give active management in 3rd stage of labour (IM oxytocin) which reduces PPH risk 4) IV tranexamic acid during CS
176
How is PPH managed - stabilising the pt - mechanical Mg - medical Mg - surgical Mg
Stabilising the pt - A-E, keep flat and warm, IV access x 2, FBC/U&E/coag screen, fluids and blood, ?oxygen, ?FFP Mechanical Mg - rub uterus through abdomen - catheterise Medical Mg - oxytocin (syntocinon / ergometrine) - IM carboprost - sublingual misoprostol - tranexsamic acid Surgical Mg - Intrauterine balloon tamponade - B-Lynch suture - Uterine artery ligation - Hysterectomy
177
What are the 2 main causes of bleeding in early pregnancy?
Miscarriage | Ectopic pregnancy
178
Describe the first few steps in the resus pathway for maternal collapse
1. DRS-ABC 2. If unresponsive, start CPR * Use L-lateral displacement of uterus technique* 3. CPR 30:2 and attach debrillator * If no response after 4 minutes, carry out perimortem CS* (if baby is >20 weeks, aim to delivery within 5 mins, increases venous return and reduces O2 requirement to try and save mothers life) 4. Assess rhythm and shock if necessary
179
List 3 physiological changes of a) CVS system b) Respiratory system that occur in pregnancy which affect CPR/resuscitation
CVS: - increased HR and CO (increases CPR demands) - reduced venous return (increases CPR demands) - increased plasma volume (dilutional anaemia) RESP: - increased RR (acidosis more likely) - increased O2 consumption (hypoxia occurs faster) - increased laryngeal oedema (intubation tricky)
180
List the reversible causes of cardiac arrest in maternal collapse
4H's - hypoxia - hypovolaemia - hypo/per K (or other electrolytes) - hypothermia 4T's - toxins (MgSO4 toxicity from treating pre-eclampsia) - thrombus (amniotic fluid embolism) - tension pneumothorax - cardiac tamponade
181
Define mild, moderate and severe HTN in pregnancy
Any BP >140/90 ``` Mild = 140/90 - 149-99 Moderate = 150/100 - 159-109 Severe = >/=160/110 ```
182
Define essential vs gestational HTN
Essential (= chronic) (= pre-existing) - HTN diagnosed pre-pregnancy of <20 weeks Gestational HTN - HTN diagnosed >20 weeks
183
What are the risk factors for gestational HTN in pregnancy?
Nulliparous Multiple pregnancy Maternal age <20 or >35
184
Define pre-eclampsia
New onset HTN >20 weeks + HTN +/- organ dysfunction - Proteinuria (ACR > 8) - (Uteroplacental) Organ dysfunction e.g. IUGR, stillborn - (Maternal) Organ dysfunction e.g. HELLP syndrome (haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets)
185
Define eclampsia
Seizures which occur as a result of pre-eclampsia
186
Describe the pathophysiology behind pre-eclampsia
Increased vascular resistance due to abnormal formation of the spiral arteries of the placenta -> poor placental perfusion -> oxidative stress and chemicals released from placenta -> causes systemic inflammation and impaired endothelial function of blood vessels
187
What are the S/Sx of pre-eclampsia?
``` Headache N&V Epigastric pain Visual changes Oedema Reduced urine output ```
188
What are the maternal and foetal complications of pre-eclampsia
Maternal - Intracranial haemorrhage - eclampsia - HELLP syndrome - pulmonary oedema - placental abruption - DIC Foetal - IUGR - placental abruption -> hypoxia - oligohydramnios - premature delivery
189
List the high and moderate risk factors for pre-eclampsia
High: - pre-existing HTN - diabetes - CKD - previous HTN in pregnancy Moderate: - >40yrs maternal age - BMI > 35 - 1st pregnancy - multiple pregnancy - FHx of pre-eclampsia
190
What interventions are taken to reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia developing?
If 1 high or 2 moderate RFx: - daily aspirin Routine antenatal monitoring (BP, urine protein, symptoms)
191
What are the main pharmacological agents used to manage HTN in pregnancy?
``` 1st line = labetalol 2nd line = nifedipine (or 1st line if asthmatic) Methyldopa IV hydralazine IV MgSO4 (given during labour for HTN, and 24hrs after delivery to prevent seizures) ``` Only definitive management of pre-eclampsia = deliver baby!!! After delivery use 1/combo of: - enalapril (1st line) - nifedipine/amlodipine - labetalol/atenolol
192
Describe the ABC management of eclampsia
- Call for help - Airway (left lateral manouevre), breathing (oxygen) and circulation (IV access and bloods) Loading dose of MgSO4 = 4g IV over 5 mins Maintenance dose of MgSO4 = 1g/hour for 24hrs after last seizure Recurrent seizures = 2g over 5 mins
193
List some causes why baby may be LARGER than expected for date when measuring fundal height:
Macrosomia, polyhydramnios, multiple pregnancy, wrong dates, fibroids
194
List some causes why baby may be SMALLER than expected for date when measuring fundal height:
IUGR, oligohydramnios, small baby
195
# Define mono/di - amniotic - zygotic - chorionic twins
``` Mono = 1 Di = 2 'Amniotic' = how many amniotic sacs 'Zygotic' = how many eggs fertilised 'Chorionic' = how many placentas ```
196
What is special about dizygotic twins?
They are always DCDA (di-chorionic, di-amniotic)
197
What is the incidence of multiple pregnancy in the UK, and describe risk factors for it
1/65 RFx: - assisted conception - older maternal age - ethnicity (increased incidence in West Africans) - Family history (maternal history of dizygotic twins) - Previous twins
198
List the maternal antenatal complications of multiple pregnancy
All complications increased (as there are 2 babies!) but mainly - hyperemesis gravidarum - pre-eclampsia - gestational DM - anaemia - placenta praevia
199
List the maternal intrapartum complications of multiple pregnancy
- PPH (larger uterus with less tone) - malpresentation - cord entanglement - placental abruption
200
List foetal complications of multiple pregnancies
- increased miscarriage risk - congenital anomalies (NTD, cardiac defects) - growth restriction - pre-term delivery
201
Describe the changes to antenatal monitoring in multiple pregnancy
Check for anaemia, with FBC at - booking clinic - 20 weeks - 28 weeks Additional USS scans to check for foetal growth restriction, unequal growth, or twin-twin transfusion syndrome - monochorionic = 2 weekly scans from 16 weeks - dichorionic = monthly scans from 20 weeks
202
Describe twin-twin transfusion syndrome
When monochorionic twins (sharing one placenta) have a blood supply connection between them. One twin (recipient) recieves majority of blood from the placenta, and the other twin (donor) is starved of blood Recipient = fluid overloaded, HF, polyhydramnios Donor = growth restriction, anaemia, oligohydramnios
203
Describe the timings of planned birth for twins
``` MCMA = 32-33 weeks MCDA = 36 weeks DCDA = 37 weeks Triplets = <35 weeks ``` (waiting beyond these times increases the risk of fetal death)
204
What are the delivery options for monoamniotic twins?
Elective CS at 32-33 weeks
205
What are the delivery options for diamniotic twins?
SVD (if twin 1 has cephalic presentation) -> CS may then be required for 2nd twin Elective CS (advised when presenting twin is not cephalic)
206
When does the booking scan occur and what is included?
<10 weeks, involves: Bloods: FBC, blood group, Rh status, sickle cell screen and thalassaemia screen Infectious diseases screen: HIV, HepB, Rubella, syphilis
207
What two supplements should mothers take during pregnancy and how much?
Folic acid = 400mcg daily, pre-pregnancy until 12 weeks | Vitamin D = 10mcg daily
208
When is the dating scan and what is carried out?
At 10 to 13+6 weeks | Calculate accurate gestational age from crown-rump length
209
What is CUBSS
Combined USS and biochemical serum screening At 11-14 weeks to look for DS (trisomy 21) Involves: - maternal age + nuchal translucency + PAPP-A + bHCG
210
When are chorionic villus sampling and amniocentesis carried out and describe each
Chorionic villus sampling = sample of placental cells examined, from 11 weeks onwards Amniocentesis = amniotic fluid aspirated and fetal cells analysed, from 16 weeks onwards
211
When is the anomaly scan carried out
20 weeks | To identify any congenital abnormalities, allows parents to have option of TOP or they can prepare for a disabled child
212
List 5 routine checks that are carried out at all antenatal appointments:
1. Maternal urine microscopy and culture for asymptomatic infection 2. Maternal urine check for protein on dipstick 3. BP 4. Symphysis fundal height 5. Examine fetal presentation
213
What 2 vaccines are offered to all pregnant women
1. Whooping cough (pertussis, from 16 weeks) | 2. Influenza (flu)
214
What renal physiological changes occur in pregnancy?
Reduced urea and creatinine (as renal blood flow increases, and GFR can increase by 150%!) Increased micturation Proteinuria Glycosuria
215
What cardiac physiological changes occur in pregnancy?
``` Increased CO and HR Reduced PVR Increased circulating volume Peripheral oedema Low albumin, low platelets High WCC ```
216
What respiratory physiological changes occur in pregnancy?
Increased tidal volume Increased oxygen demands Reduced FRC (as abdomen squashed!)
217
What dermatological physiological changes occur in pregnancy?
``` Palmar erythema Linea nigra Striae gravidarum Spider naevi Cholasma ```
218
What GI physiological changes occur in pregnancy?
Reduced motility and gastric emptying GORD Constipation Hyperemesis and nausea
219
What is naegele's rule
Used to calculate EDD, assuming gestation is 280 days (or 40 weeks) EDD = LMP + 1 year, - 3 months, + 7 days
220
List the top 5 reasons for elective CS
1. Previous LUSCS 2. Breech presentation or abnormal lie 3. Multiple pregnancy with non cephalic presentation of first twin 4. Previous traumatic delivery and/or maternal request 5. Placenta praevia
221
List 5 maternal and 5 fetal indications for emergency CS
``` FETAL: 1. Fetal distress in first stage of labour 2. Fetal distress in second stage of labour and any contra indication to instrumental delivery 3. Malpresentation a. Breech b. Shoulder c. Arm d. Brow e. Face 4. Cord prolapse 5. Prolonged second stage and any contra indication to instrumental delivery ``` Maternal: 1. APH 2. Maternal morbidity during labour e.g sepsis 3. Maternal cardiac arrest 4. Absolute/relative cephalopelvic disproportion 5. Uterine rupture
222
How is hyperemesis managed?
1. Fluid replacement 2. Anti emetics (prochlorperazine/cyclizine) 3. Thromboprophylaxis 4. Vitamin replacement 5. Dietician review
223
Describe the seroconversion rate of VZV in pregnancy
90% of mothers have IgG already (i.e. they are immune) -> if they are not, they can be given VZIG (needs to be given within 10 days of exposure)
224
Describe fetal varicella syndrome
``` When fetus is infected <20 weeks Causes: - growth restriction - microcephaly/hydrocephalus - limb hypoplasia - cataracts and chorioretinitis ```
225
How are chlamydia and gonorrhoea diagnosed?
Endocervical swab -> NAAT
226
What is the treatment for chlamydia?
7 days oral doxycycline 100mg
227
What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?
IM ceftriaxone 1g
228
What is the treatment for syphilis?
IM penicillin
229
What infective agent causes chlamydia?
Chlamydia trachomatis
230
What infective agent causes gonorrhoea?
Neisseria gonorrhoea
231
What infective agent causes syphilis?
Trepomena pallidum bacteria
232
Contrast the S/Sx of bacterial vaginosis from trichomonias
BV = fishy odour and thin discharge, NO ITCH Trichomoniasis = offensive odour, itch and pain, dyspareunia and red vulva/vagina/strawberry red cervix
Year 4
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