1
Q
- When is a takeoff alternate required?
A
- If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below landing minimums for that airport (or the CA’s landing minimums, if higher), or other operational conditions exist that would preclude a return to the takeoff airport, the Flight Release must specify an alternate airport for takeoff.
- Lowest landing minimums at your airport of departure (including CAT 2 and 3). Typically 600 RVR.
Source: GOM 5-72
2
Q
- What requirements and distance does the takeoff alternate need to comply with?
A
• For aircraft with three or more engines, the takeoff alternate must be
within 2 hours of the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
Source: GOM 5-72
3
Q
- What phases of flight require use of headsets and boom microphones?
GOM 5-4 and GOM 5-21
A
• Use of headsets and boom microphones for communications with ATC is mandatory during critical phases of flight and during all operations below 18,000ft MSL.
4
Q
- If an approach requires TACAN equipment, may that procedure be used if it is in the FMS database?
A
• TACAN avionics are NOT installed on any KA aircraft. If clearance requires utilization of a TACAN system, including an approach utilizing TACAN as part of the Missed Approach Procedure (MAP), neither shall the clearance be accepted nor shall the procedure flown and the flight crew shall notify ATC of the inability to accept the clearance.
• An instrument approach that requires a TACAN system for a portion of the procedure may be accepted if the approach can be loaded from a current FMS database and all required fixes are included in the displayed procedure (including any MAPs).
Source: GOM 5-133
5
Q
- Where are the touchdown zone lights located on the runway and how far do they extend?
Source: AOM Vol 1 Appendix A 2-6
A
White touchdown zone lights begin 100 ft after the runway threshold and continue at 100 foot intervals to the 3000 ft point.
6
Q
- Above what altitude must one pilot don and use oxygen when the other pilot is absent from his duty station?
FAR 121.333(c)(3), GOM 5-9, GOM Bulletin 21-24
A
If for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above FL410, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his duty station.
7
Q
- When must one pilot be on oxygen at all times? Should Normal or 100% oxygen be used?
FAR 121.333(c)(3), GOM 5-9, GOM Bulletin 21-24
A
Above 410
When using an oxygen mask solely due to altitude requirements, the system may be operated in the “Normal” mode to preclude an excessive use of oxygen. The system should be returned to 100% when the oxygen mask is no longer required or if smoke or fumes enter the cockpit
8
Q
- What is the maximum distance from the airport you may accept a visual approach?
GOM 5-138
A
Operating within 35 miles of the destination airport and visual contact is established with the traffic to be followed or the flight crew has established and can maintain visual contact with the airport or the CVFP through the approach and landing.
9
Q
- What is the maximum speed when conducting a procedure turn course reversal maneuver in the US?
AIM 5-4-9
A
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, a maximum speed of not greater than 200 kts should be observed from first over heading the course reversal IAF through the procedure turn maneuver to ensure containment within the obstruction clearance area
10
Q
- What is the only scenario that allows you to begin an approach (prior to the final approach fix) when reported visibility is below published minimums (excluding PIC emergency authority)?
GOM 5-17
A
Look-See Approach: A Category I approach at a foreign airport, which may be initiated and continued to the DH or MDA/MAP to have a look at the actual visual conditions available when the weather conditions are reported below the authorized minima.
11
Q
- On a CAT III approach, to continue below AH what conditions must be met?
GOM 5-155
A
No visual references are required.
No auto throttle faults can exist and “LAND 3” must be displayed on the FMA
12
Q
- Are you authorized to conduct circling approaches or maneuvers? If so, under what conditions?
GOM 5-137
A
Circling approaches are not authorized, but circling maneuvers are.
Company pilots are not authorized to conduct circling maneuvers when the the ceiling is less than 1000 ft or the visibility is less than 3 SM or the weather is below the published landing minima for the circling maneuver (whichever is higher).
13
Q
- If visual reference is lost during a circling maneuver, describe the missed approach procedure.
GOM 5-137
A
If you lose visual references while circling to land from an instrument approach, you must follow the missed approach specified for the original procedure (unless ATC specifies an alternate missed approach procedure).
To become established on the prescribed missed approach course, make an initial climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
14
Q
- What is the maximum distance from the runway you may fly during a circling maneuver?
GOM 5-137
A
- 7 miles of the runway for minimums associated with 140kts approach speed
- 3 miles of the runway for minimums associated with 165kts approach speed
- 28 miles of the runway for PAN-OPS
15
Q
- What is the validity period for the FDE summary in the flight release?
GOM 9-46
A
Fault Detection and Exclusion (FDE or RAIM) is valid 20 minutes prior to scheduled departure time then for 2 hours after scheduled departure time.
If departure is 2 or more hours late, a new RAIM/FDE Prediction must be run along with an amended Flight Release.
16
Q
- When may a flight depart early?
GOM 5-3, GOM 7-11, B747/B777 DHL Quick Reference Card
A
A source will not depart prior to the departure time listed on the Flight Release without the authorization of the flight follower.
AMC flights: More than 20 minutes prior you must contact flight follower and forward request to AMC TACC mission controller.
DHL flights: “the intent to pushback and start more than 15 minutes earlier than scheduled.” Contact flight follower for authorization.
17
Q
- If a first officer has less than 100 hours in type can he/she perform the takeoff when the reported RVR is 1800?
GOM 4-18
A
No, if the prevailing visibility is at or below 3/4 mile or RVR is at or below 4000 ft a first officer with less than 100 hours in type cannot perform the takeoff unless the PIC is an appropriately rated check airman.
18
Q
- Who is jointly responsible for initiating, continuing, diverting, and/or terminating company flights IAW the FARs, company procedures, and company OPSPECS?
FAR 121.537 and GOM 5-1
A
The PIC and the Director of Operations are jointly responsible
19
Q
- If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions?
FAR 121.537 and GOM 5-1
A
No, the Director of Operations may delegate the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to flight following personnel, but shall NOT delegate responsibility for those functions.
Flight followers differ from dispatchers as we operate under 121 Supplemental Operations. See FAR 121.537.
20
Q
- The PIC has full control and authority for the operation and safety of the aircraft, without limitation. True or false?
GOM 5-1
A
True
21
Q
- What is the GOM’s definition of standardization of flight procedures?
GOM 5-6
A
Standardization is crucial in maximizing flight safety and reducing pilot confusion in the cockpit.
Standardization of flight procedures creates an environment in which each occupant will know what to expect from others what others expect of him/her, thereby maximizing crew coordination and efficiency, regardless of changes in crew pairings.
22
Q
- What is the purpose of the aircraft loading checklist and who can review and sign the document?
GOM 5-62
A
The Aircraft Loading Checklist is used to inform pilots the aircraft has been loaded properly and is configured for departure.
The Aircraft Loading Checklist is completed and signed by the Loadmaster/Station Representatives or Vendor Loading Supervisor. Pilots are NOT responsible for completing the checklist but may sign it.
23
Q
- After the weight and balance computations are generated on the computer, what steps must be completed once the forms are printed?
GOM 5-62, B747 W&B Manual 8-2
A
Weight and Balance Load Sheets are printed and signed by the individual responsible for the computations and by the Captain, who is responsible for ensuring the content is satisfactory prior to the flight.
Verify accuracy and sign. Circle ZFW, TOW, and TO CG. Obtain Aerodata performance. Program CDU.
One copy out the door, one copy in the trip envelope.
Note: Last minute changes require two new load sheets or if DHL flight, see B747 W/B Chapter 7 & 8.
24
Q
- What FAA approved computerized runway analysis system is used to compute real time takeoff and landing data for aircrews and flight following personnel?
GOM 5-62
A
AeroData is an FAA approved computerized runway performance analysis system. It enables flight crews and flight followers to quickly and accurately determine real time takeoff and landing data while taking into account many variables. AeroData uses real time weather and NOTAM information when calculating takeoff and data in real time calculations.
25
26. What are the limitations on the use of the CMV (converted meteorological visibility)?
GOM 5-76 to 5-77, B747 QRH AP-4
CMV is a value (equivalent to an RVR) derived from the reported meteorological visibility by using conversion factors.
The CMV will be controlling when the aerodrome operating minimum is above RVR 2000m (most RVR systems are only accurate to around 2000m).
CMV should not be used for calculating takeoff minimums, when reported RVR is available, for other RVR minima less than 800m
26
27. Under what circumstances can you select DRY for Dispatch Landing performance?
GOM 5-78
A flight may be released utilizing dry runway landing performance analysis when the following factors exist:
When the intended landing runway is either smooth surface or grooved and scattered showers in the vicinity are forecast with runway conditions reported as dry and no significant increase in precipitation forecast prior to ETA
When the intended landing runway is grooved and runway conditions are reported as dry with:
- Drizzle of no greater than moderate intensity is present with no significant increase in precipitation forecast prior to ETA; or
- Light rain (with surface temperatures above freezing) is present with no significant increase in precipitation forecast prior to ETA; or
- Light snow (with surface temperatures below 28F/-2.25C) is present with no significant increase in precipitation forecast prior to ETA.
No other factors or conditions indicate the landing runway may be wet or slippery at the ETA.
27
28. What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip?
GOM 5-158
```
Aircraft flight log pages (yellow and pink copies)
Flight Release documents
Fuel tickets and receipts
Hazardous materials forms (DG-001)
Aircraft Security Report DHL Express Operations (DHL-ASR)
Air waybill
COMAT form
US Government Bill of Lading
Permit to Proceed
Plotting charts
Original SAFA report
W&B load sheet
Livestock form (when applicable)
Event log
SAFA report copy
```
28
29. Can a flight be released based on a METAR?
| GOM 5-79
When weather conditions forecast in a TAF prevent the release of a flight, but a METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums, a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above the minimums required
29
30. Pertaining to alternate airport weather minimums, can aircraft without baro-VNAV use the minimums contained in the LNAV/VNAV column for computations?
GOM 5-80
No
Aircraft with baro-VNAV may use the minimums contained in either the LNAV column or the LNAV/VNAV column of the approach chart for the computation
Aircraft without baro-VNAV must use the minimums contained in the LNAV column for computation
30
31. Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what 4 factors?
GOM 5-83, FAR 121.647, OPSPEC B043, OPSPEC B044
Destination fuel
Alternate fuel
Additional fuel
Reserve fuel
31
32. When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered?
GOM 5-112
Maximum structural takeoff gross weight (TOGW)
The TOGW limited by takeoff performance under the conditions existing at the time of takeoff
The TOGW, considering the anticipated fuel burn before landing which will permit a landing at or below maximum landing gross weight (LGW)
32
33. How much “shiny strut” needs to be showing?
| AOM Vol 1 NP-45
Check nose gear doors and strut polished area visible and no leakage.
33
34. Recite the Exterior Safety Inspection
| AOM Vol 1 NP-22
Exterior Safety Check
Check chocks in place
Check landing gear door position
Check APU fire control handle on APU control panel is in stowed position (unless APU is running)
Check flight control surfaces position and condition
Check APU exhaust area clear (unless APU running)
34
35. Recite the Cockpit Safety Inspection
| AOM Vol 1 NP-22
Interior Safety Check
Battery switch on
Standby Power Selector AUTO
Hydraulic Demand Pump Selectors OFF
Windshield Wiper Selectors OFF
Landing Gear Lever DN
Flap Position Indication and Flap Lever AGREE
Alternate Flap Selector OFF
Weather radar TEST
Transponder STBY
35
36. Minimum oxygen limits for dispatch; passenger, crew, and walk around bottle.
AOM Vol 1 NP-30 and L-21
Crew system: 1400 PSI
Supernumerary System: 1400 PSI
Portable bottles: 1200 PSI
Chart may be used to determine the actual requirement. Pressure vs. temperature
36
37. Must you carry and use a flashlight for preflight during daylight hours?
AOM Vol 1 NP-45
Yes. Use of an adequate flashlight, regardless of time of day, is essential for conducting the exterior inspection.
37
38. Do additional preflight procedures exist for cold weather operations? If so, where can be they be found?
AOM Vol 1 SP-104
Yes, AOM Vol 1 SP-104
38
39. For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk around?
AIM Vol 1 NP-59
For DHL flights only, the loadmaster will assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk around to ensure that all of the cargo doors are closed and secured and that no damage occurred during fueling or loading, or that may not have been visible when the crew member did their initial walk around inspection
39
40. When operating outside of the US, ICAO standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found?
GOM 6-1
These differences are found in the Jeppesen Airways Manual.
40
41. What are the international basic fuel requirements?
| GOM 5-83, FAR 121.647, OPSPEC B043, OPSPEC B044
Fly to and land at airport
Fly for an additional 10% off total enroute time
Fly to and land at most distant alternate
Fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ft above alternate airport at ISA
41
42. What are B043 fuel requirements?
| GOM 5-83, FAR 121.647, OPSPEC B043, OPSPEC B044
Special Fuel Reserves (OPSPEC B043) International Flights
Fly to and land at airport
Fly for an additional 10% of total enroute time where the aircraft’s position cannot be reliably fixed at least once each hour (Class II navigation area)
Fly to and land at most distant alternate
Fly 45 minutes at Normal cruise
42
43. What are B044 fuel requirements?
| GOM 5-83, FAR 121.647, OPSPEC B043, OPSPEC B044
Planned Rerelease Enroute (OPSPEC B044) International Flights
Initial Destination
- Fly to and land at initial airport including one IAP and MAP
- Fly for an additional 10% of total enroute time to initial airport
- Fly to and land at the most distant initial airport alternate
- Fly for 30 mins at 1,500ft above initial airport alternate at holding speed
Intended Destination
- Fly to and land at intended airport based on re-release including one IAP and MAP
- Fly for an additional 10% of enroute time from rerelease point and intended destination
- Fly to and land at the most distant intended destination alternate
- Fly for 30mins at 1,500ft above intended destination alternate at holding speed
43
44. What are the international No Suitable Alternate fuel requirements?
GOM 5-87, FAR 121.645(c)
Kalitta Air does not utilize the fuel provision of FAR 121.645(c)
Enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for at least two hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
44
45. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following?
GOM 5-83, FAR 121.647, OPSPEC B043, OPSPEC B044
Anytime the ETA at the destination exceeds 15 minutes beyond the planned ETA; or
The cruise altitude varies by 4000 ft or more from the planned cruise altitude; or
The airplane deviates more than 100 miles from the planned route.
45
46. At US stations when is it acceptable to open the cargo doors upon arrival?
GOM 6-5
Do NOT open cargo doors until cleared to do so by CBP Officials.
46
47. At US stations when is it acceptable to leave the aircraft upon arrival?
GOM 6-5
Do NOT leave the aircraft prior to CBP clearance unless required by a particular station’s procedures.
47
48. While taxiing into a stand a ground crewman begins to move the light wand in his right hand in a rapid horizontal figure-eight motion while pointing at the ground below your right wing with his left arm. What is the problem?
No Source. ICAO and FAA Standard.
Engine, brake, or APU fire.
48
49. WARNING: IF NO CLIMB GRADIENT IS PUBLISHED FOR A DEPARTURE, A MINIMUM CLIMB OF ______ FEET PER NAUTICAL MILE MUST BE MAINTAINED.
GOM 6-33
Under TERPS criteria a minimum climb gradient of 200ft/nautical mile is required when not published.
49
50. If a flight is vectored off of a noise abatement procedure what crew action is required?
GOM 5-112
ATC may ask if pilots would like to proceed direct to a fix. If offered a direct routing to a fix, pilots should ensure the aircraft is above the upper limit of the noise abatement procedure prior to leaving the path of that procedure.
If a flight is vectored off a noise abatement procedure, the details should be noted on the flight release.
50
51. When are you considered “established” on course?
| GOM 2-11, GOM 6-66
An aircraft is considered to be established on-course during RNAV and RNP operations anytime it is within 1 times the required accuracy for the segment being flown.
“Established” is considered as being within half-full scale deflection for the ILS and VOR or within +/-5 deg of the required bearing for the NDB
51
52. What navigation errors in the Long Range Navigation units need to be recorded after landing?
GOM 6-46, AOM Vol 1, NP-102
Errors, in excess of 2 nautical miles per hour, are generally considered unacceptable and should be entered into the Aircraft Flight log.
See table in AOM Vol 1 NP-102 for error table or residual ground speeds in excess of 21 knots.
52
53. Are flight crews required to review the information in the Aeronautical Information Publication prior to operating in a particular host country, or is it sufficient that Operations Control Center personnel have reviewed the information?
Source: ???
Yes
53
54. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc.) for a particular host country be found?
GOM 6-3
Most relevant information is found in the Entry section of the appropriate Jeppesen Airway Manual. More detailed information can be obtained from Operations Control Center (OCC) personnel.
54
55. When arriving into a foreign country by commercial airline, your passport was stamped for entry. If you are departing the country as an operating crewmember, does your passport need an exit stamp, or may you depart using a General Declaration form?
GOM 6-3
The crew member must ensure the passport has a corresponding stamp for the opposite procedure. They must clear Customs and INS prior to departure.
55
56. When do you need a permit to proceed?
| Source: GOM 5-63
• Permit to Proceed is used by US Customs officials to allow aircraft to tech stop (change crew, fuel, etc) at a US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry. The detailed entry inspection requirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination.
56
57. If disinfection is required prior to entry into a particular country, who is recommended to disperse the spray?
Source: GOM 6-7
It is preferred that a supernumerary perform dispersal of the aerosol spray to avoid it having to be performed by a flight crew member during a critical phase of flight.
57
58. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country?
Source: GOM 5-45
See the Jeppesen Airway Manual, Air Traffic Control section (specific country) – Rules and Procedures for individual country requirements.
58
59. When should flight crews default to ICAO holding speeds for a given host country?
Source: ???
When no guidance is given.
59
60. When operating outside the U.S., and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew?
GOM 6-15
• When cleared to any point with no routing specified, clarify the routing or if cleared direct use specific phraseology indicating “Cleared present position direct ___”.
60
61. If a flight is approaching an FIR boundary and has been unable to establish communication with the appropriate controller, what action should be taken?
GOM 6-16
It may be necessary to perform a self hand-off. At any time pilots cannot contact a controller the flight may not be operating in accordance with a clearance needed for safe operation. However, the only other choice is to hold at the FIR boundary while establishing communications.
Although each situation must be handled separately, generally a flight should continue as flight planned and the flight crew should establish communications as soon as possible.
The flight crew should also consider a broadcast to other aircraft.
61
62. Is Kalitta Air authorized to operate in areas designated as “No FIR”? If so, what special procedures should be utilized?
GOM 6-10
Kalitta Air is NOT authorized to operate in “No FIR” areas. The authority to operate is granted by OPSpec B050 – Authorized Areas of En-Route Operations, Limitations and Provisions.
62
63. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights?
10 min plotting LRNS accuracy check.
63
64. List some of the approved methods for a reasonableness check prior to entry and after exiting MNPS airspace.
GOM 6-45
• Current Pos. Abeam radial or fix. Overhead. Radar.
64
65. When should 2000 be set in the transponder?
| GOM 5-119
Outside the US, when leaving an area in which the transponder has not been used and entering an area in which the transponder will be used, select code 2000
65
66. What is ‘SLOP’ or Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure, and what are the 3 positions the Aircraft can be flown in?
GOM 6-61
SLOP is a flight procedure whereby a crew can offset the flight’s track 1 or 2 nm to the right of centerline to obtain lateral spacing from nearby aircraft.
There are three positions an aircraft may flight; centerline, one, or two nm right.
66
67. Can a Kalitta Air 747-400 be flown in the ‘NAT Tracks’ with 1 HF radio deferred?
GOM 6-35
Yes, Aircraft with satLink SATCOM installed may be operated with one HF radio deferred provided the SATCOM system is operative.
This combination of equipment satisfies the regulatory requirements for two independent systems.
67
68. What is the Worldwide Air to Air frequency?
| GOM 6-40
VHF frequency 123.45 MHz is an air-to-air communications channel to enable pilots engaged in flight over remote and oceanic areas, out of range of VHF ground stations, to exchange information to resolution of operational problems.
68
71. What are the standard holding pattern times based on altitude?
AIM 5-3-8
At or below 14,000ft (4,250m) = 1 minute
Above 14,000ft (4,250m) = 1 1⁄2 minutes
69
72. List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS.
GOM 6-62
Special Air Reports to ATS whenever any of the phenomena listed below are observed or encountered.
Moderate turbulence, severe turbulence, moderate icing, severing icing, severe mountain wave, thunderstorms without hail, thunderstorms with hail, heavy dust or sandstorm, volcanic ash cloud, pre-eruption volcanic activity or volcanic eruption.
70
73. At airports that have approved ‘SMGCS’ procedures, below what RVR will the procedures go into effect?
GOM 5-101
Below 1,200 RVR
71
74. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do?
GOM 5-24
Communication with a flight follower is required to proceed to the intended destination. If, during flight, the crew is unable to communicate with a flight follower (and successfully perform a re-release) it is mandatory to proceed to the released airport after coordinating with ATC.
Go to your initial destination, not continue to your intended destination.
72
75. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is ____, with a minimum bank angle of ____°.
GOM 6-33
Unless listed otherwise on the chart, the maximum speeds for turning departures for Category D aircraft is 290kts. Departures are only protected for a turn radius of 290 knots or less with a minimum bank angle of 15 degrees.
73
76. Should a crew member suspect they may have exceeded any local noise restrictions, what action should be taken?
GOM 5-112
If pilots suspect they may have exceeded any local noise restrictions they should submit an Event Log detailing the situation.
74
77. Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew?
GOM 6-43
Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, the flight crew shall write down the clearance on the Master Flight Release, along with the time it was received and the controlling frequency.
75
78. During Class II operations, within ___ minutes of each waypoint, both pilots should verify that the subsequent waypoint in the navigation display agrees with the current ATC clearance. What specifically must be checked?
GOM 6-50
Within 2 minutes of each waypoint.
Verify that the subsequent waypoint in the ND agrees with the current ATC clearance
Coordinates of the next 2 waypoints should also be checked
Verify that the heading and distance for the next leg match the NAVBLUE flight release
76
79. Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check?
GOM 6-50
Approximately 10 minutes after passing each waypoint, the LRNS position should be plotted.
This check does not verify that the aircraft is in the correct position. It will however, verify that the LRNS “thinks” it is in the right position.
The check is designed to ensure that the proper coordinates are inserted in the “next” position and that the aircraft is tracking to that position.
77
80. Does a straight line drawn on a Jeppesen Lambert Conformal en-route or plotting chart represent a great circle or rhumb line?
GOM 6-51
A straight line on a Jeppesen Lambert Conformal en-route chart represents a great circle route.
A line which makes the same angle with each meridian is called a “rhumb line.”
78
81. ICAO criteria for approaches list a range of speeds for aircraft in the various segments of an approach. What is the ICAO range of speeds for a category D aircraft on final approach?
GOM 6-65
Category D Range of Final Approach Speeds: 130-185kts.
79
82. Describe one of the four generally recognized maneuvers related to course reversal procedures, as outlined in GOM Ch. 6.
GOM 6-66
45/180 Turn, 80/260 Turn, Procedure Hold, Teardrop/base-turn.
80
83. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering?
GOM 5-145
When an early missed approach is executed, pilots should fly the instrument approach procedure to the MAP before beginning any turn required by the missed approach procedure.
81
84. When are you required to complete a plotting chart?
| GOM 6-51
The use of a plotting chart is required for all operations where the route segment between the operational service volume of ICAO standard NAVAIDS exceeds 725 nm for all turbojet aircraft.
Class II navigation in excess of 725nm
82
85. Can a Kalitta Air crew accept a land and hold short clearance when (LAHSO) is in effect?
GOM 5-146
Company pilots are not authorized to accept “Land and Hold Short” clearances.
83
86. You Depart Leipzig Germany for Cincinnati, you request your oceanic clearance and a random route has been filed by the company. ATC issues the same route in your oceanic clearance. Do you need to perform the SLOP procedure?
Yes.
84
87. What deviation is considered to be a GNE within NAT airspace?
GOM 6-44
Gross Navigation errors are defined as a deviation from a cleared track of 25 nm or more.
Within the NAT HLA, a GNE is defined as a deviation from a cleared track of 10 nm or more.
85
88. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain.
GOM 6-48
The requirement is that at each point along the route, a flight crew must be able to safely maneuver to a landing if an engine is lost at that point. A flight crew should not fly a route, which has an en-route segment, from which at any point along that segment they cannot turn away from or drift down past an obstacle they could not clear with an engine failure.
These requirements can be met if the aircraft can drift down beyond limiting obstacles, or if diversion routes are available.
86
89. While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the enroute chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford?
GOM 6-48
Grid Minimum Off-route Altitude (MORA).
Grid MORAs provide a minimum of 1,000ft obstacle clearance, or 2,000ft in mountainous terrain.
87
90. If operating in RVSM airspace and the flight encounters turbulence resulting in an altitude deviation of 350 feet, what actions are required?
GOM 5-124
The Captain is responsible to submit an Event Log for any altimetry errors and for a deviation of more than 300ft due to turbulence.
88
91. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
GOM 6-23
When cleared to maintain an altitude instead of a flight level.
89
92. When temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude will be _____ than indicated altitude.
GOM 5-36
When the temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude will be lower than indicated altitude.
90
93. Under what conditions should the altitude correction procedures found in GOM Ch. 6 be followed?
GOM 5-36
US Airports: The reported airport temperature is at or below the published airport cold temperature restriction on the approach plate.
International Airports: The reported airport temperature is at or below -30C.
91
94. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch. 6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected?
GOM 5-36
Pilots must make an altitude correction to the published, “at,” “at or above,” and “at or below” altitudes on all designated segments, for all published procedures and runways.
Approach segments but not assigned altitudes.
Pilots must not correct altitudes published on SIDs, ODPs, and STARs.
92
95. When operating at high altitude airports, increases of approximately ___% higher True Airspeed (TAS) is achieved in the 8,000 to 10,000 feet range.
GOM 6-25
Increases of approximately 20% higher TAS is achieved in the 8,000 to 10,000 feet range.
93
96. According to GOM Ch. 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations?
GOM 6-25
• Greater turn radius, higher landing and takeoff speeds, potential for hot brakes, and cause missed approach climb capability problems.
Higher rates of descents may cause “sink rate” warning activation.
Pressurization scheduling will differ from normal.
94
97. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit?
AOM Vol 1 L-17, B747 QRH 12-15
Minimum fuel temperature is at least 3C above the fuel freezing point of the fuel being used.
Follow QRH procedure. Increase speed, change altitude, or deviate to a warmer air mass.
95
98. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used?
AOM Vol 1 L-17, B747 QRH 12-15
AOM Vol 1 Limitations or QRH
96
99. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire.
Horizontal figure 8 and pointing at location of fire.
97
100. If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch?
GOM 6-41
If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, the flight crew shall:
Verify proper SELCAL code
Verify that the SELCAL VHF/HF selectors are set to HF
Verify that the HF squelch is set to MIN or OFF
Verify the HF Gain is set to MAX or INCR; and (if necessary)
Request a new test
98
101. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the U.S., what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunications?
GOM 6-42
Use proper ICAO phraseology.
Speak slowly and clearly and spell identifiers using phonetic alphabet.
Anticipate the controller
Obtain assistance from other pilots/ACMs.
99
102. What is the minimum required information to be included in a position report?
GOM 5-127
Aircraft Identification
Position
Time
Flight Level or Altitude
Next position and time over
Ensuing significant point.
Pertinent Remarks
100
103. What does IC mean on the TAKEOFF REPORT LAYOUT? What does the N below it mean?
AOM Vol 1 SP -118
* IC means improved climb indicator for PMRTW
| * N means No, PMRTW is not based on the use of improved climb.
101
104. Is the planned landing weight (PLDW) on the TLR, the weight we use for ACARS landing weight performance entry? What is the number/weight we enter?
AOM Vol 1 PERF-97
No.
If ACARS is used, the ZFW and Estimated Fuel on Arrival (EFOA) are pre-populated.
102
105. With the use of CPDLC/ADS-C, separation of aircraft will be?
ICAO Gold Manual 131
Reduced lateral, vertical, and longitudinal separation dependent on airspace.
103
106. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should?
AOM Vol 1, SP-69
Print and place in a location visible to both pilots. Or leave the message displayed on the MCDU until the clearance has been complied with.
104
107. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
| AOM Vol 1, SP-58
It is Kalitta Air policy to not turn off ADS-C unless requested by ATC to do so.
105
108. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
No. You cannot amend your flight plan when ADS-C.
106
109. What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them?
GOM 11-2 and 11-7
See GOM Chapter 11 Supernumerary/Jumpseat Briefing card
Passenger information signs, seat belts, oxygen, sterile cockpit, emergency exits and procedures, other exits, smoking, emergency procedures and equipment.
Captain is responsible, but may delegate
107
110. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door?
AOM Vol 1, L-2
Door Operating – 40 kts
Door Opened – 65 kts
108
111. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?
AOM Vol 2, 1-18
Anytime supernumerary oxygen deploys, NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs illuminate and RETURN TO SEAT signs extinguish, regardless of selector position.
109
112. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude?
AOM Vol 2, 7-36
Yes, upto 15,000ft for one pack.
110
113. What is the Max. Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing?
AOM Vol 1, L-15
Max Differential Pressure – 9.4psi
Max Differential Pressure for takeoff and landing – 0.11psi
111
114. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative?
AOM Vol 1, L-19
• Window heaters may be inoperative on one #1 or one #2 window provided operation is not predicated on flights into known or forecasted icing, windshield air (anti-fogging systems) are operative and remaining #1 and #2 window heaters are operative.
112
115. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when?
| AOM Vol 1, L-19
Icing conditions exist when indicated by the primary ice detection system, or else when the TAT inflight, is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals).
113
116. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated?
| AOM Vol 2, 3-9
When any engine is operating.
114
117. Are the TAT probes heated? When?
| AOM Vol 2, 3-9
Yes, in-flight.
115
118. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?
| AOM Vol 1, L-15
Minimum engage altitude of 400 feet after takeoff.
116
119. What are the minimum and maximum glideslope angles?
| AOM Vol 1, L-15
3.25 degrees and 2.5 degrees
117
120. On takeoff, prior to 65 KIAS, the Flight Director roll bar commands wing level while the pitch bar commands a fixed attitude of:
AOM Vol 1, 4-26
Pitch command is set to approximately 8 degrees up
118
121. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system?
AOM Vol 1, L-16
With an operational ACARS system, the center VHF radio is not approved for ATC voice communications.
119
122. When should HF radios not be used?
| AOM Vol 1, L-16
Do not operate HF radios during refueling operations.
When tuned to the same frequency.
120
123. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off?
AOM Vol 2, 5-2
Will not select off when related transmitter selected ON, or 121.500 tuned in radio tuning panel active frequency indicator.
121
124. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF?
| AOM Vol 2, 5-22
ACARS/DATA can be returned to the standby window by selecting a frequency higher or lower than the allowable VHF frequency range.
122
125. What buses are powered with # 1 & 2 external power available but not on?
AOM Vol 2, 6-13 and 6-14
External 1 – Ground Handling Bus
External 2 – Main Deck Cargo Handling Bus
123
126. What electrical bus isolation occurs during autoland?
| AOM Vol 2, 6-14
During automatic precision approach below 1,500ft RA, AC and DC busses 1, 2, and 3 are automatically isolated. This provides and independent power source for each of the three autopilots.
124
127. Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?
AOM Vol 1, NP-63
Select Demand pump selector 4 to AUX
125
129. With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set?
AOM Vol 1, L-23 and L-24
With EEC in Alternate mode, takeoff thrust must be set after brake release.
On takeoff, make only minor adjustments to N1 RPM and make no adjustments after a speed of 80 knots is achieved.
126
130. When will stby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?
AOM Vol 2, 7-32
The AC power system is the normal power source for ignition. The standby power system provides a backup source.
When the standby ignition selector is in NORM, the AC power system supplies power to the selected igniters. If AC power system is not powered, the standby power system supplies power continuously to both igniters.
127
131. If the EGT limit is exceed what is indicated? On takeoff?
If continuous limit is reached, EGT turns amber.
On takeoff it remains white and is inhibited for 5 minutes.
Start or takeoff limit reached, turns red.
128
132. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what?
AOM Vol 2, 8-4
Enables main deck fire suppression, turns off two packs, configures equipment cooling to closed-loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments, and closes master trim air valve.
129
133. After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC?
AOM Vol 2, 8-12
The wheel well fire detector loop and the bleed duct leak detector loops are tested only during the manually initiated test.
130
134. How many over heat loops are installed for the APU?
| AOM Vol 2, 8-9
There is no overheat detection in the APU compartment.
131
135. While operating below maneuvering speed (Va) is it permissible to make rapid or large alternating control inputs?
AOM Vol 1, L-16
No.
Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below VA.
132
136. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude?
| AOM Vol 2, L-16
Do not extend flaps above 20,000ft
133
137. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited?
AOM Vol 2, 9-17
If multiple autopilots are engaged the stab trim switches are inhibited.
134
138. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captains and F/O’s altitude display for RVSM operations?
AOM Vol 1, L-16
200 feet
135
139. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM?
AOM Vol 1, L-16
Sea Level to 5,000ft – 35 ft
5,001 - 10,000ft – 40 ft
136
140. From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or improper configurations?
AOM Vol 2, 15-17
EICAS consolidates engine and airplane system indications and is the primary means of displaying system indications and alerts to the flight crew. The most important indications are displayed on primary EICAS.
137
141. Operations for using QFE are?
| AOM Vol 1, L-20
QFE operations are prohibited.
138
142. What is the minimum equipment required for a coupled CAT I ILS approach?
AOM Vol 1, L-20
1 LOC/GS Receiver and 1 autopilot.
139
143. When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off?
AOM Vol 1, 12-14 and 12-15
FUEL LO CTR L or R message is displayed and tank quantity is approximately 7,000lbs.
Or FUEL LOW CTR message displays and CWT fuel quantity is less than 3,000lbs in cruise.
140
144. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A?
| AOM Vol 1, L-17
-40C
141
145. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
AOM Vol 1 L-18
Conditional (requires DO or CP approval) – 53,000lbs
142
146. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
AOM Vol 1 L-18
Standard – 72,000lbs
143
147. Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate?
AOM Vol 2, 12-15
Scavenge pumps operate until the pressure switch senses low pressure, or the total time of the pump operation exceeds 120 minutes.
144
148. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach?
QRH 13-12
With the loss of stab trim, there is a reduced elevator authority for the flare. Additionally there is a loss of elevator feel and a loss of all autopilot. Center autopilot may remain engaged with degraded performance.
145
149. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? Where do you read that value?
AOM Vol 1, NP-30
80% or .80
Lower EICAS Status Page or also the HYD synoptic page.
146
150. With the # 4 Aux pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on?
AOM Vol 2, 13-1
Off
System Fault light only illuminates for low pressure, low quantity, or excessive temperature.
147
151. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended?
AOM Vol 1, L-13
720,000lbs
148
152. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? What kind of braking is provided?
AOM Vol 2, 14-14
Groundspeed above 85 knots.
Maximum braking is obtained in this mode.
149
153. What does the brake torque limiting system do?
| AOM Vol 2, 14-13
The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to landing gear. A signal is sent to the antiskid valve to release brake pressure to that wheel or wheel pair (in alternate mode).
150
154. What range must be selected to use the GPWS – Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system?
AOM Vol 2, 15-12
Any range
151
155. When is the Windshear alert system active?
| AOM Vol 2, 15-41 and 15-42
Predictive Windshear Warning System
- Manually on the ground when WXR is selectd on the EFIS control panel, and the weather radar is in any mode other than TEST. o Automatically on the ground when takeoff thrust 60-70% N1 is set.
- Automatically in flight when below 2,300ft, but cautions and warnings only below 1,200ft AGL
Reactive Windshear
- Enables below 1,500 ft RA and detection begins at rotation.
152
156. When are the Fire Bell and master Warning lights inhibited?
AOM Vol 2, 15-49
V1 to 400ft RA or V1+25 seconds, whichever occurs first.
153
157. With the Lower Lobe Conditioned Airflow Rate Selector (LLCAFR) switch in the OFF position, what is the temperature range available with the Lower Lobe Temperature Selector?
AOM Vol 2, 2-21 and 2-2
When the LLCAFR is off, the flight deck, upper deck, or main deck temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls pack outlet temperature.
The flight deck, upper deck, or main deck temperature is limited to 65F (18C) or 85F (29C).
154
158. What determines when the packs will go to Normal Flow?
| AOM Vol 2, 2-17
The two identical pack temperature controllers (PTC) determine when the packs will goto Normal Flow.
After top of climb, or beginning of cruise flight, Normal flow will resume
Manipulation of the lower lobe cargo conditioned air flow rate selector or the Pack High Flow switch reconfigures the packs to high flow
155
159. When the Engine Bleed Air Switch is selected off, what valves close?
AOM Vol 2, 2-13
Engine bleed air valve, pressure regulating valve, and the high pressure bleed valve closes.
156
160. With the Engine Bleed Air Switch off, and no fault detected, what components are available?
AOM Vol 2, 2-35
Nacelle anti-ice and Thrust reverser is still available.
157
161. Under what circumstances must Nacelle Anti Ice be selected ON on the ground?
AOM Vol 1, L-19 and SP-105
If icing conditions are present.
Icing conditions exist when OAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals).
Icing conditions also exist when the OAT is 10C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways when surface snow, ice, standing water or slush may be ingested by the engines or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.
158
162. What are the engine run up procedures with Nacelle Anti Ice selected ON?
AOM Vol 1, SP-106
During prolonged ground operation, periodic engine run-up to as high a thrust setting as practical (60% N1 recommended) should be performed to reduce the possibility of ice build-up. Run-ups of 30 seconds duration should be accomplished at 15 minute intervals.
159
163. What is required if operation is conducted in moderate to severe icing conditions for prolonged periods with the N1 less than 70%?
AOM Vol 2, SP-106
In moderate to severe icing conditions for prolonged periods with N1 settings at or below 70%, or if fan icing suspected due to high engine vibration, increase thrust on one engine at a time to a minimum of 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds every 10 minutes.
160
164. What does the careted EICAS message “>ANTI ICE” mean?
| AOM Vol 2, 3-10
Any anti-ice system on, TAT greater than 12C, and ice detector does not detect ice.
161
165. On descent into Delhi with convective activity in all quadrants, what steps must be taken to improve engine flameout margins with TAT below 10 degrees C?
AOM Vol 1, SP-112
The following steps increase bleed air extraction to improve engine flameout margin.
Pack High Flow Switch – ON
Nacelle Anti-Ice Switches – ON
At or below 22,000ft: Wing Anti-Ice Switch – ON
162
166. What does the careted EICAS message “>Autopilot” mean?
| AOM Vol 2, 4-34
Selected autopilot operating in a degraded mode.
Active roll and/or pitch mode may have failed.
163
167. On a go around, what should the FMA indications be after one push of the TOGA buttons, and what do the indications mean?
THR TOGA TOGA
THR to establish a 2000 FPM climb
Roll command maintains ground track
Current airspeed remains above the target speed for 5 seconds, the target airspeed is reset to current airspeed, (to a maximum of the IAS/MACH window speed plus 25 knots)
164
168. During an approach and landing, when does TOGA arm and disarm?
AOM Vol 2, 4-31
Go-around arms when the flaps are out of UP or glideslope is captured.
TO/GA switches are inhibited 2 seconds after RA decreases through 5 feet on landing. Enabled again three seconds after RA increases through RA increases through 5 feet.
Go-around disarms when autopilot is disengaged and both flight directors are turned off or a different roll or pitch mode changes.
165
169. With VNAV armed for takeoff, when passing 400 feet what changes will occur with your FMA, FMC commanded speed, and EICAS N1 Indicators?
AOM Vol 2, 4-26 and 4-27
At 400 feet, VNAV activates when armed. Pitch commands the current airspeed. Autothrottle sets the selected reference thrust and annunciates THR REF.
THR REF VNAV SPD.
V2+10, V2+25, or whatever you’re at for 5 seconds between those two.
As flaps are retracted, pitch commands an acceleration to 5 knots below takeoff flap placard speed
When flaps are up, pitch commands VNAV climb speed, which is the greater of:
- 250 knots
- Vref+100or
- Speed transition associated with origin airport
EICAS N1 indicators remain the same until thrust reduction point (flaps 5 or an altitude), then FMC changes reference thrust limit to the armed climb limit (CLB, CLB 1, CLB2)
166
170. If a TOGA throttle switch is not pressed prior to 50 knots, what will the autothrottle system do on takeoff?
AOM Vol 2, 4-26
The Autothrottle system cannot be engaged until above 400ft if not engaged by 50 knots.
167
171. What does the Offside Tuning Light indicate?
| AOM Vol 2, 5-3
The radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio turning panel or the radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel.
168
172. At 30 west you spill coffee on your audio control panel, rendering it inoperative. What do you do?
AOM Vol 2, 5-8
Utilize the Observer Audio System switch to control the observer’s audio panel.
169
173. How is the oxygen mask microphone activated and deactivated on A/C N740CK and N741CK?
AOM Vol 2, 1-53
When the left-hand door to the mask stowage box is opened, the mask microphone activates in the removed mask. Pushing and releasing the RESET/TEST slide lever shuts off oxygen to the mask, stows the flag, deactivates the mask microphone and activates the boom microphone.
170
174. How do you listen to the Inner Marker when conducting an “RA Not Authorized” Category II approach?
AOM Vol 2, 5-2
Select Marker on the ACP.
171
175. The left PFD, ND, and FMC are normally powered by?
| AOM Vol 2, 6-15
The APU standby bus powers these equipment items.
172
176. Under normal operation, what powers the main and APU Standby busses?
AOM Vol 2, 6-15 and 6-16.
Main standby bus is normally powered by AC Bus 3.
APU standby bus is normally powered by AC Bus 3 (or 1) via the Captain’s transfer bus.
173
177. What causes DISC to illuminate in the CSD Disconnect Switch?
AOM Vol 2, 6-5.
Disconnects IDG from engine when above idle speed.
“DRIVE” illuminates amber when low oil pressure, high oil temperature, or uncorrectable generator frequency fault.
174
178. Do the AC BTBs and DCIRs open at any time when there is no cockpit annunciation?
AOM Vol 2, 6-14
During Autoland operation. Technically Land 2 or Land 3 annunciated.
During automatic precision approach below 1,500 feet radio altitude, AC and DC busses 1, 2, and 3 are automatically isolated. This provides an independent power source for each of the three autopilots.
175
179. You are being released to a destination where a Category III approach is to be conducted. Enroute, the number 4 Generator has been disconnected. Can you still conduct a category III approach?
AOM Vol 1, A 5-4, QRH AP-8
Yes. Only 3 generators are required for CAT III approaches.
176
180. The aircraft is dark. External power is connected to the left receptacle. Can you light your path to the cockpit? How?
AOM Vol 2, 1-25
Flight Deck Access Light switches located on the upper deck cabin services module, at Door 1 Left, at the right upper deck service door, and Main Equipment Center lower hatch.
177
181. The number 1 EEC has gone to alternate mode. Which line no longer appears on the number 1 N1 indicator?
AOM Vol 2, 7-27
Amber Line – Maximum N1 no longer appears in Alternate mode
178
182. When will the engine oil quantity appear magenta when the oil quantity is in the normal range?
AOM Vol 2, 7-10, AOM Vol 1, NP-30
Low quantity, or oil differential reached.
Desired minimum quantity is 16 quarts (15.1 liters).
179
183. With autostart functioning normally, under what conditions must the start be manually aborted?
AOM Vol 1, NP-67
No oil pressure, No N1, Engine fire.
180
184. When will the EICAS Memo Message APU RUNNING be displayed?
AOM Vol 2, 7-37
The EICAS memo message APU RUNNING is displayed when the APU selector is ON and APU N1 RPM exceeds 95% N1.
181
185. What is the total time of fire suppression available to the lower lobe cargo compartments? What are the immediate action items for an Engine Fire in flight?
AOM Vol 2, 8-4, QRH 8-5
Total time of fire suppression available to the lower lobe cargo compartment is 334 minutes.
180 minutes for ERF
Thrust Lever – Confirm, Idle. Fuel Control Switch – Confirm, Cutoff. Engine Fire Switch – Confirm, Pull. If the FIRE ENG message is shown Engine Fire Switch – Rotate. If after 30 seconds the FIRE ENG message stays shown. Engine Fire switch – Rotate to other Bottle.
182
186. There is a fire. Now what happens when the PNF pulls the Engine Fire Switch?
Source: AOM Vol 2, 8-1
Closes the related engine and spar fuel valves
Closes the related engine bleed air valve
Trips off the related engine generator
Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine-driven hydraulic pump
Depressurizes the related engine-driven hydraulic pump
Arms both related engine fire extinguishers.
183
187. If the EICAS message “FLAPS PRIMARY” is displayed, what protection is provided?
AOM Vol 2, 9-24
Asymmetry protection is provided in secondary mode.
184
188. You may have noticed that the line and number on the flap indicator turn magenta when the PF selects reverse thrust. Why does this happen?
AOM Vol 2, 9-25
During engine reverse thrust operation, automatic retraction of inboard and midspan leading edge flap changes the flap position indicator to reflect flaps in transit.
Prevents damage to the inboard flaps
185
189. When does the rising runway symbol on the PFD appear? When does it start to rise?
AOM Vol 2, 10-10
Rising Runway displays below 1,000 feet RA when the localizer pointer is in view.
Moves towards the airplane symbol below 200 feet RA
186
190. You are conducting a Category III approach. You have captured the localizer and the expanded scale is displayed in the PFD. At what localizer deflection is a go-around required? What is the indication on the PFD?
AOM Vol 2, 10-10
Localizer deviation in excess of 1/3 dot requires a go-around.
At low radio altitudes, with the autopilot or flight director engaged, scale turns amber and the pointer flashes to indicate excessive localizer deviation.
187
191. On what selected range of the ND can you see all waypoints, all stations and all three segments of the position trend vector visible?
AOM Vol 2, 10-29
40nm Range
188
192. You have been asked to intercept the CVG 033 radial and track it outbound. How do you do this?
AOM Vol 2, 11-31
“CVG033”
189
193. Your departure procedure’s initial instruction is a heading vector. It is displayed as a Conditional Waypoint heading on the CDU, followed by the term VECTORS. Can LNAV be used to fly the heading?
AOM Vol 2, 11-30
Yes.
190
194. What CDU pages are available in standby navigation after both FMS units have failed?
AOM Vol 2, 11-168
Alternate Navigation Legs, Alternate navigation Progress, Alternate NAVRAD (Navigation Radio)
191
195. On the NAV RAD page of the CDU, a VOR identifier is followed by a letter in small font. What are the possible letters? What do they mean? What must be displayed in order to enter a course?
Source: AOM Vol 2, 11-72
P (procedure autotuning)– FMC selects navaid for approach or departure procedure guidance.
R (route autotuning) – FMC selects navaids on the active route.
A (autotuning)– FMC selects a navaid for best position orientation.
M (manual) – VOR is manual-tuned.
Dashed line, course must be displayed to enter a course.
192
196. When will the fuel system automatically balance itself?
| AOM Vol 2, 12-16
The jettison control system controls fuel balancing between main tanks 2 and 3 as fuel is jettisoned. If fuel balancing is necessary, the override/jettison pumps in the low tank deactivate until the tanks are balanced.
The fuel system automatically balances itself during refueling operations.
193
197. You are fully configured for takeoff. What are the positions of the number 2 and 3 crossfeed valves? What are the cockpit indications?
AOM Vol 2, 12-14
Crossfeed valves 2 and 3 close when configured for takeoff. No indications if operating normally.
With fuel in the center wing tank, and flaps extended to takeoff position, the crossfeed valves 2 and 3 close. Center to outboard, and inboards to inboards.
With no fuel in the center wing tank, and flaps extended to takeoff position, the Crossfeed valves 2 and 3 close. Tank to engine.
194
198. You are starting the APU. External power is not available. How and from where is fuel supplied to the APU?
AOM Vol 2, 12-14
A dedicated DC pump in main tank 2 supplies fuel to the APU.
195
199. The Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump(s) are powered by what bus or busses?
AOM Vol 2, 6-13
Ground Handling Bus
196
200. What is the maximum speed for landing gear extension? Operation?
AOM Vol 1 L-11
Landing Gear Extension: 270/.82m
Landing Gear Operation: 320/.82m
B747-400 OKE
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