1
Q
What is the resection margin for a calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT)?
A
1.5, 3
These margins are critical for ensuring complete removal of the tumor.
2
Q
What is the treatment for Pindborg (CEOT) tumor?
A
Resection with 1-1.5 cm margins
This approach helps to minimize the risk of recurrence.
3
Q
Which statement about mesh split thickness graft is NOT true?
A
Decrease contraction
Contraction still occurs despite using mesh split thickness grafts.
4
Q
What is the blood supply for a paramedian forehead flap?
A
Supratrochlear artery
This artery is crucial for the viability of the flap.
5
Q
Most common primary cancer that metastasizes to the mandible in males?
A
- Colon
- Breast
- Lung
These cancers are significant in terms of metastasis to the mandible.
6
Q
When is Mohs surgery indicated?
A
- 1cm well-defined squamous cheek
- Anxious person with moderate dementia
- BCC on lower eyelid
- Superficial spreading melanoma
Mohs surgery is used for skin cancers to ensure complete removal.
7
Q
What does the Breslow scale measure?
A
Thickness
It is used to assess melanoma depth, while Clark’s scale measures levels of invasion.
8
Q
In the hematologic workup of a patient with a high flow AV malformation of the mandible, which is likely to be increased?
A
- Hematocrit
- Platelets (normal to low)
- Fibrinogen (would be decreased)
- Fibrin split products (essentially increased D-dimer)
These factors are important in evaluating the patient’s condition.
9
Q
What is an absolute contraindication to intra-oral split thickness skin graft placement?
A
- Bone exposure
- Mechanical stress
- Region of flexion
These conditions can complicate graft healing.
10
Q
Difference between FTGG and STGG?
A
- FT more resilient initially
- FT has less overall contraction
- FT more reliably gets vascularized
Full thickness grafts (FTGG) have advantages over split thickness grafts (STGG).
11
Q
Compared to a split thickness skin graft, a full thickness skin graft has what advantages?
A
- Increased success rate
- Less contraction after healing
- Requires less vascularity from the recipient bed site
These factors contribute to the effectiveness of full thickness grafts.
12
Q
Diagnosis for a 30-year-old with a painless, slow-growing mass in the palate that is S-100 positive?
A
Schwannoma
Schwannoma is encapsulated, while neurofibroma is not.
13
Q
What is the diagnosis for a patient with a radiolucent lesion in the mandible and a lesion on gingiva?
A
Ameloblastic fibroma
This condition is characterized by specific radiographic features.
14
Q
What is the blood supply to the temporalis flap after elevation for intraoral defect?
A
- Anterior deep temporal artery
- Lateral temporalis
- Superficial temporal
These vessels are essential for the flap’s viability.
15
Q
What are the vascular anastomoses for the microvascular free fibula graft?
A
Peroneal artery and vena comitantes
These connections are crucial for graft survival.
16
Q
What is a multifocal tumor?
A
Warthin’s tumor (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum)
This tumor is characterized by specific histological features.
17
Q
What is true regarding modified radical neck dissection?
A
- Additional lymph nodes are removed
- All lymph nodes but level 1 lymph nodes are removed
- Most common neck surgery for oral cancer patients
- Spares IJ and spinal accessory nerve
This procedure is commonly performed in oral cancer management.
18
Q
What is the biggest problem with the radial forearm flap?
A
Donor site esthetics/morbidity/tendon exposure
These issues can complicate recovery and patient satisfaction.
19
Q
What is the most common complication of a split thickness radial forearm flap?
A
Exposure of tendons
This complication can lead to functional impairment.
20
Q
What is the most common type of rhabdomyosarcoma?
A
Embryonal
This type is prevalent in pediatric populations.
21
Q
What is the most common osteosarcoma of the jaws?
A
- Chondroblastic
- Fibroblastic
- Telangiectatic
- Osteoblastic
These types vary in presentation and treatment.
22
Q
What cell types are found in Lichen Planus?
A
- T-cells
- Langerhans cells
- Basophils
- Mast cells
- B-cells
- Eosinophils
These cells play a role in the pathophysiology of the condition.
23
Q
What is the treatment for intermediate grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma of the posterior mandible with no perforation?
A
Surgical resection only
This approach is appropriate for non-perforated cases.
24
Q
What is the treatment for a kid with unicystic ameloblastoma?
A
Enucleation and curettage
This treatment is effective for managing this type of ameloblastoma.
25
What is the **blood supply** for the pectoralis major flap?
* Thoracodorsal (latissimus flap)
* Thoracoacromial
* Internal mammillary
## Footnote
These vessels are critical for flap viability.
26
What is the **most common site** for ameloblastic carcinoma to metastasize?
Lungs
## Footnote
This site is significant for monitoring in patients with ameloblastic carcinoma.
27
What is the **treatment** for a kid with cystic desmoplastic ameloblastoma?
Segmental resection
## Footnote
This approach is preferred to minimize recurrence.
28
What is the **most common type** of basal cell carcinoma of the face?
Nodular
## Footnote
This type is prevalent and has distinct clinical features.
29
What is the biggest indicator for **local recurrence** of squamous cell carcinoma?
Positive margins
## Footnote
Ensuring clear margins is crucial for reducing recurrence risk.
30
What is the diagnosis for a patient with **palatal swelling** and specific histology?
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
## Footnote
This tumor is the most common malignant tumor of the parotid and minor salivary glands.
31
What is a **tumor with neurotropism**?
Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
## Footnote
This tumor exhibits perineural invasion characteristics.
32
What is the diagnosis for an **expanding soap bubble lesion** in the mandible?
Myxoma
## Footnote
This lesion is characterized by specific radiographic features.
33
What is the **advantage of the ALT** over the radial forearm for reconstruction?
* More reliable vascular supply
* Better bulk for intraoral defects
* Ability to fold the flap
* Less donor site morbidity
## Footnote
These advantages make ALT a preferred choice in certain reconstructions.
34
What happens if you don’t drain a **septal hematoma**?
Saddle nose deformity
## Footnote
This complication can result from untreated hematomas.
35
What is the **treatment of boxy or bulbous tip**?
* Cephalic trim
* Complete cephalic lateral crura technique
* Trim of lateral crura
## Footnote
These techniques are used to refine nasal tip aesthetics.
36
What is the **normal nasolabial angle**?
85-105 per Reynicke
## Footnote
This angle is important for aesthetic assessments.
37
What is the **internal nasal valve** angle to maintain patency?
10-15 degrees
## Footnote
This angle is critical for nasal airflow.
38
What goes through the **optic canal/foramen**?
* Ophthalmic artery
* Ophthalmic vein
* Superior division CN3
* Inferior division CN3
## Footnote
These structures are vital for ocular function.
39
What is the **MOA of Botox**?
Blocks presynaptic vesicles from releasing ACH
## Footnote
This mechanism underlies its effectiveness in treating muscle-related conditions.
40
What is the **treatment for collapsed internal nasal valve**?
Cephalic trim, spreader graft
## Footnote
These techniques help restore nasal function.
41
What is the **treatment for retrobulbar hematoma** post-operatively?
Inferior cantholysis
## Footnote
This intervention is necessary to relieve pressure and prevent vision loss.
42
What is the **mechanism of action** (MOA) of Botox?
Blocks presynaptic vesicles from releasing ACH
## Footnote
This action prevents muscle contraction, leading to temporary paralysis.
43
Why are **chemical peels** with hydroxyacids beneficial?
* Collagen proliferation
* Epidermal proliferation
* Remove pigmentation
## Footnote
These effects contribute to skin rejuvenation and improvement in texture.
44
What is the **most common complication** of a malar implant?
* Permanent V2 paresthesia
* Asymmetry
* Capsule formation
* Lower lid ectropion
## Footnote
These complications can affect the aesthetic outcome and patient satisfaction.
45
What is the **best fat** for rejuvenation?
Brown fat
## Footnote
Brown fat is metabolically inactive, making it ideal for grafting.
46
In Z-plasty for excising a labial frenum, what angle allows rotation of the main arm?
60 degrees
## Footnote
This angle facilitates proper tension and healing.
47
Which muscle experiences **palsy first** during cavernous sinus thrombosis?
Lateral rectus
## Footnote
This muscle is responsible for lateral eye movement.
48
What eye drops are used for **lid ptosis**?
Apraclonidine
## Footnote
This medication acts as an anticholinergic sympathomimetic.
49
What characterizes **superior orbital fissure syndrome**?
* Ophthalmoplegia
* Upper eyelid ptosis
* Proptosis
* Pupillary dilatation
* Forehead anesthesia
## Footnote
These symptoms indicate involvement of cranial nerves in the orbital region.
50
What is the **extension of periosteum** in orbital tissues called?
Orbital septum
## Footnote
The septum extends from the orbital periosteum to the tarsal plates of the eyelids.
51
What is a consequence of removing too much fat during an **upper blepharoplasty**?
* Excessive scleral show
* Central infrabrow hollowing
* Lagophthalmos
## Footnote
These outcomes can lead to an unnatural appearance.
52
What does **monochromicity** refer to in CO2 physics?
Encompass only one wavelength
## Footnote
This property is important for laser applications.
53
Which Glogau type is at **highest risk** for unsatisfactory CO2 laser resurfacing results?
Type IV and deep jowling
## Footnote
Higher skin types require more experienced surgeons.
54
What causes a **boxy/bulbous nasal tip**?
* Hyperplasia of lateral crura
* Excessive separation of lower lateral cartilages
* Excessively wide LLCs
## Footnote
These anatomical changes can affect nasal aesthetics.
55
During a **cephalic trim**, how much of a strip should be maintained to prevent notching?
2mm
## Footnote
This preservation is crucial for maintaining structural integrity.
56
What is the **marginal rhinoplasty approach**?
Inferior border of lower lateral cartilage
## Footnote
This approach is used for specific nasal corrections.
57
In septoplasty, you must leave **1cm of cartilage** in which directions?
* Anterior
* Superior
* Inferior
* Posterior
## Footnote
This ensures adequate structural support post-surgery.
58
What test is used to determine **nasal obstruction**?
Modified Cottle test
## Footnote
This test assesses nasal patency.
59
What does a chemical peel that traverses the **entire length of the epidermis** treat?
* Melasma
* Superficial scarring
* Perioral deep rhytids
* Solar lentigines
* Freckles
* Age spots
## Footnote
These conditions can be improved with deeper chemical peels.
60
Why is **acetone** applied to the face prior to a chemical peel?
Removes facial oils
## Footnote
This increases the depth of penetration of the peel.
61
What is the **minimum space** above the central bony orbital rim to mitigate eyelid ptosis during Botox?
1cm
## Footnote
This distance helps avoid complications.
62
What is the landmark for **glabellar Botox injection** in relation to the supraorbital rim?
1 cm superior to mid-supraorbital rim
## Footnote
Proper placement is crucial for effective results.
63
What is required for **intraoperative tumescent anesthesia** prior to cervicomental liposuction?
* Larger amount of epinephrine than normal
* Subplatysmal injection
* Must be performed under GA
## Footnote
This technique reduces bleeding risk.
64
What factor predisposes a girl with total joint replacement to need a **contralateral joint** in the future?
Presence of internal derangement in the contralateral joint
## Footnote
This condition increases the likelihood of future complications.
65
What is the **most appropriate nonsurgical therapy** for a fully dentate girl who bruxes and has myofascial pain?
Mandibular orthopedic appliance
## Footnote
This device helps alleviate symptoms associated with bruxism.
66
What type of oral appliance for TMD would cause **anterior open bite**?
Anterior occlusal appliance
## Footnote
This appliance can alter occlusion negatively.
67
What is the **characterization** of the TMJ meniscus?
Avascular, non-innervated, virtually acellular, and alymphatic
## Footnote
These properties affect its healing and function.
68
What is the **best method** to evaluate the proximal and distal segment of a nerve after neuroma resection?
Fascicular neurolysis
## Footnote
This technique allows for better assessment of nerve integrity.
69
What is the **important consideration** when extracting pediatric teeth?
Ped teeth have more convex roots
## Footnote
This anatomical difference can complicate extractions.
70
What causes **vertical-horizontal resorption** in the first 8-12 weeks after extraction?
Disrupt blood supply to the bundle bone via disrupting PDL
## Footnote
This process is part of normal healing.
71
What organisms are associated with **pericoronitis**?
* Fusobacterium
* Strep milleri
* Peptostreptococcus
## Footnote
These bacteria are commonly found in pericoronitis cases.
72
What must be extirpated in a **re-implanted avulsed tooth** with a closed apex to avoid?
Root resorption
## Footnote
This procedure is crucial for maintaining tooth vitality.
73
Which is an **anaerobe** in chronic sinusitis?
* Hemophilus
* Strep Pneumoniae
* Moraxella Catarrhalis
* Peptostreptococcus
## Footnote
These organisms are commonly associated with chronic sinusitis.
74
You must extirpate the pulp of a re-implanted avulsed tooth with closed apex to avoid: _______.
Crown discoloration
## Footnote
This procedure is necessary to prevent complications such as root resorption and ankylosis.
75
What do you do before reimplantation of a tooth with an **open apex** at 30 minutes?
Soak in diluted doxycycline for 5 minutes
## Footnote
This treatment helps to reduce the risk of infection and promote healing.
76
An adult has an infected third molar and swelling at the angle with fever and trismus. What space is involved?
* Infraorbital
* Buccal
* Canine
* Pterygomandibular
## Footnote
These spaces can be affected by infections related to third molars.
77
You are extracting a posterior maxillary molar and upon extraction you find that you have also removed the **maxillary tuberosity**. What is the best treatment?
* No treatment
* Remove the tooth from the tuberosity and reinsert the tuberosity
* Smooth all sharp bony edges and suture close soft tissues
## Footnote
Proper management is crucial to avoid complications.
78
What is an indicator of **pain after IAN nerve repair**?
* Pain prior to procedure
* Length of time after injury
* Type/mechanism of injury to the nerve
* Age of patient
## Footnote
These factors can influence the outcome of nerve repair procedures.
79
What is the **initial therapy** for chronic neuropathic pain after IAN repair?
* External neurolysis
* NSAIDs
* Anticonvulsants (Gabapentin)
* Splint therapy
## Footnote
These treatments aim to manage pain effectively after nerve repair.
80
Patient has mandibular tori removed and now has firm FOM swelling. What is the cause?
Hemorrhage of lingual artery
## Footnote
This complication can occur postoperatively and requires careful monitoring.
81
Best candidate for **coronectomy**?
* Vertically impacted third molar
* Horizontally impacted third molar
* Class III mobility
* Infected roots
## Footnote
Coronectomy is indicated in specific cases to prevent nerve damage.
82
Tooth fracture with worst prognosis? **Vertical**, horizontal upper 1/3, horizontal middle 1/3, horizontal lower 1/3.
Vertical
## Footnote
Vertical fractures typically have a poorer healing prognosis compared to horizontal fractures.
83
What is the most common class of **odontoid fracture**?
* Type 1
* Type 2
* Type 3
* Type 4
## Footnote
Understanding the classification is essential for treatment planning.
84
What could cause a prolonged **PR interval** and hypotension in a child?
* Local anesthesia toxicity
* Undiagnosed pre-excitation syndrome
## Footnote
These conditions can lead to significant cardiovascular effects.
85
Most commonly used flap for **lower lip repair**?
Various names as answer choices
## Footnote
The choice of flap depends on the specific clinical scenario.
86
Initial management of a 6-year-old who develops **aphasia** postoperative day one following repair of pan facial fractures, what is the next best step?
* Release maximum mandibular fixation
* EEG
* Return to OR to evaluate the reductions
* Obtain a CT head
## Footnote
Prompt evaluation is critical in cases of postoperative complications.
87
Low velocity ballistic injury would have _______.
* Large cavitation injury
* Not much tissue avulsion
* Large exit wound
## Footnote
Understanding the nature of the injury helps in planning treatment.
88
Which mandible fracture site has the **highest infection rate** whether treated with open or closed?
* Angle
* Body
* Parasymphysis
## Footnote
Infection rates vary based on the fracture location.
89
The **hypoglossal nerve** is located where when removing submandibular gland?
Lateral to the hyoglossus
## Footnote
Knowledge of nerve anatomy is crucial during surgical procedures.
90
Infection that has spread **INFERIOR** to carina anteriorly and T4 vertebra posteriorly. What is the treatment?
* Formal Posterior lateral thoracotomy
* Transverse cervical
* Apron incision
* Midline neck incision
## Footnote
Surgical intervention is often necessary for severe infections.
91
What is **Lemierre syndrome**?
Usually treated with antibiotics over surgery
## Footnote
It is characterized by suppurative thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein.
92
For NOE fracture, what is the ideal way to place wire through **medial canthus**?
* Wire inferior and posterior
* Wire inferior and anterior
* Wire superior and anterior
* Wire superior and posterior
## Footnote
Proper wire placement is essential for fracture stabilization.
93
How to treat **avulsive injury** with resultant microstomia?
* Commissuroplasty with semidynamic splint
* Transpositional flap
* Full thickness flap
* Splint
## Footnote
Treatment options vary based on the severity of the injury.
94
First step in determining the **nutritional status** of a trauma patient?
* Estimate length of hospital stay
* Determine extent of dentoalveolar injuries
* Establish baseline metabolic expenditure
* Prealbumin
## Footnote
Assessing nutritional status is critical in trauma management.
95
What is true of the **facial nerve** when going through neck to reach body of mandible fracture?
Rarely inferior to inferior border of mandible anterior to the facial artery
## Footnote
Understanding the anatomy of the facial nerve is crucial during surgical procedures.
96
What is the role of an **arch bar** in reducing a body or symphysis fracture?
* Serves as a tension band
* Serves as a compression band
* Rigid fixation
* Anatomic reduction
## Footnote
Arch bars are commonly used in maxillofacial surgery for fracture stabilization.
97
What is the most common **malocclusion** after Lefort 1 fracture?
* Anterior open bite
* Posterior open bite
* Crossbite
## Footnote
Malocclusion can result from surgical intervention or fracture healing.
98
How can movement at a **mandibular fracture** site prevent healing from occurring?
* Creating an electrical couple
* Inducing fibroblast growth factor
* Disrupting capillary ingrowth
## Footnote
Understanding the healing process is important for fracture management.
99
What is the best **bone graft** for an alveolar cleft when AICBG is not viable?
* Cranium
* Zygoma
* Symphysis
* Rib
## Footnote
Selecting the appropriate graft is crucial for successful reconstruction.
100
Physiological factor important with **block graft**?
* Surviving deep osteocytes in lacunae
* Survival of fibroblasts
* Survival of osteoblasts
* Conversion of osteocytes to osteoblasts
## Footnote
These factors influence the success of bone grafting procedures.
101
What is true regarding **occlusal appliances** for sleep apnea?
* They cause discomfort and salivation
* They cause mandibular incisor intrusion
* They cause long term (and irreversible) TMD
* Short-term side effects usually occur during acclimatization
## Footnote
Understanding the side effects is important for patient management.
102
What is the primary **blood supply** to the maxilla after it has been down-fractured in a Lefort I osteotomy?
* Sphenopalatine
* Transverse facial
* Posterior superior alveolar artery
* Ascending pharyngeal
## Footnote
Knowledge of vascular supply is essential for surgical planning.
103
What is the purpose of **alar cinch** during a lefort 1 maxillary impaction?
Prevent nasal deformity and obstruction
## Footnote
Techniques include reduction of nasal crest of maxilla and septum, V-Y closure, and limiting superior repositioning of maxilla.
104
What is the primary **blood supply** to the maxilla after it has been down-fractured in a lefort I osteotomy?
* Sphenopalatine
* Transverse facial
* Posterior superior alveolar artery
* Ascending pharyngeal (also ascending palatine)
## Footnote
These arteries are crucial for maintaining blood flow post-surgery.
105
What does **AIM** stand for in the context of anterior, inferior, and medial angulation of the osteotome in lefort 1?
Anterior, inferior, medial
## Footnote
This angulation is important for proper osteotomy technique.
106
How should a **brachial cleft cyst** be removed?
* Remove cyst and track
* Antibiotics
* Serial steroid injections
* Low dose radiotherapy and observe
## Footnote
These are common approaches to manage brachial cleft cysts.
107
What is the **diagnostic test of choice** for a patient s/p IVRO with MMF reporting a 'pulsatile sensation' and brisk bleeding?
* Doppler ultrasound
* Contrast CTA
* Conventional angiograph
* Plain film
## Footnote
These imaging techniques help assess vascular complications.
108
If you don’t **rigidly fixate** IVRO, what can happen?
Condylar sag
## Footnote
Proper fixation is crucial to prevent this complication.
109
What does **SARPE + hyrax** provide in terms of maxillary expansion?
More anterior expansion than posterior
## Footnote
This contrasts with multi-piece lefort which provides more posterior widening.
110
When is **SARPE followed by Hyrax** indicated?
Need for 8-10 mm transverse expansion
## Footnote
This procedure is used for significant maxillary expansion.
111
What happens if you don’t strip enough of the **medial pterygoid** during a modified condylotomy?
The condyle will be pulled medially
## Footnote
Proper stripping is necessary to avoid complications.
112
Which cranial vault **suture(s)** is most commonly involved in **Crouzon Syndrome**?
Coronal
## Footnote
This syndrome is characterized by craniosynostosis affecting the coronal suture.
113
What bone is formed by **intramembranous ossification**?
Ramus
## Footnote
This process is crucial for the development of certain facial bones.
114
What type of bone formation occurs during **distraction osteogenesis**?
* Intramembranous
* Endochondral
* Heterotopic
## Footnote
These processes are involved in bone regeneration during distraction.
115
For **VPI dysfunction** requiring secondary surgery, what is the recommended procedure?
Sphincter pharyngeoplasty w/ superior based pharyngeal flap
## Footnote
This technique is used to address velopharyngeal insufficiency.
116
Where does the **tensor veli palatini** insert in an unrepaired cleft palate?
Irregularly into the posterior hard palate
## Footnote
This irregular insertion can affect function and speech.
117
What is the rate of **peri-operative blood transfusion** during bimaxillary surgery?
0-1.9%
## Footnote
This statistic indicates a low incidence of transfusion in this surgical context.
118
What is an advantage of the **vomer flap** for cleft palate closure?
* No effect on midface growth
* Anterior & posterior blood supply
* Minimal risk of anterior fistula formation
## Footnote
This technique helps avoid complications associated with traditional flaps.
119
What is the source of **brisk bleeding** during the osteotomy of the pterygoid plate in a Lefort 1 procedure?
Internal maxillary artery
## Footnote
Injury to this artery can lead to significant bleeding during surgery.
120
What should be done if there is **bleeding from the sigmoid notch** during IVRO that has not been controlled?
* Embolization of masseteric artery
* Carotid cut down
## Footnote
These are advanced techniques to manage uncontrolled bleeding.
121
What is the **treatment** for stage III hemifacial microsomia in a 10-year-old?
Costochondral graft
## Footnote
This graft is used to reconstruct the mandible in severe cases.
122
What is the cause of **hemifacial microsomia**?
* Error in neuroectodermal migration
* Gestational diabetes
* Trauma from birth
* 3rd and 4th brachial arch vascular problem
## Footnote
These factors contribute to the development of this condition.
123
What is unique to **hemimandibular hyperplasia** compared to hemimandibular elongation?
* Chin deviation
* Ipsilateral open bite
* Contralateral open bite
## Footnote
These features help differentiate between the two conditions.
124
What is the best technique to determine **cessation of growth** in condylar hyperplasia?
* Bone scintigraphy
* Multiple lateral cephs
## Footnote
These imaging techniques are used to assess growth status.
125
Which muscle does not experience **stress/strain** after genioplasty advancement?
Geniohyoid muscle
## Footnote
This muscle's position is less affected by surgical changes.
126
What is the cause of **immediate relapse** post-op BSSO?
* Improper condylar position
* Difficulty of fixation
* Soft tissue resistance
* Old age
## Footnote
These factors can contribute to surgical relapse.
127
What is the most common complication if **distraction osteogenesis** occurs too quickly?
* Bone resorption
* Soft tissue wound dehiscence
* Lack of bone in the regenerative zone
* No bone formation in the remodeling zone
## Footnote
Rapid distraction can lead to complications in bone healing.
128
What is an advantage of **distraction osteogenesis** over Lefort advancement for treating OSA?
Greater advancement
## Footnote
This technique allows for larger skeletal movements while minimizing relapse.
129
What is the most common **cleft**?
Left side, Males
## Footnote
This demographic trend is observed in cleft lip and palate cases.
130
What is associated with a **high mandibular plane angle**?
Short ramus
## Footnote
This anatomical feature can affect occlusion and facial aesthetics.
131
How do you evaluate for an **occlusal cant**?
* Maxillary mandibular arch wires
* Asymmetry in gingival show on smile
* Distance from medial canthus to the canine
* Interocclusal height in molar region
## Footnote
These assessments help identify occlusal discrepancies.
132
What is an indication for **early secondary alveolar cleft grafting**?
* Maxillary atrophy
* Ectopic eruption
* Oro-nasal incompetence
## Footnote
These conditions can necessitate timely intervention.
133
What should be done if a patient has **VPI** after performing a Lefort I osteotomy?
* Repeat Lefort 1 osteotomy in 4-6 weeks
* Re-evaluate after 6 months
* Perform a pharyngeal flap in 4-6 weeks
## Footnote
These options are considered based on the severity of VPI.
134
What is the purpose of a **modified condylotomy**?
Increase the joint space which unloads articular surfaces and retrodiscal tissues
## Footnote
This procedure aims to alleviate joint pain and improve function.
135
In the healing of a non-vascularized soft tissue graft in the oral cavity, nutrition is first obtained from _______.
Diffusion from the underlying host bed
## Footnote
This process is crucial for graft survival.
136
The **biologic width** measures in a tooth or implant approximately _______.
3mm
## Footnote
This measurement is important for periodontal health.
137
What is the best treatment for significant facial exposure of an implant in the anterior maxilla four months after crown placement with inflammation?
* Implant surface decontamination with simultaneous coronal soft tissue advancement
* Implant surface decontamination with simultaneous facial bone augmentation using allografts and coronal soft tissue advancement
* Removal of the implant and simultaneous facial bone, connective tissue graft, implant placement
* Removal of the implant and delayed facial bone, connective tissue graft, implant placement
## Footnote
These options address complications related to implant aesthetics and health.
138
What are the pros of a **cone in cone connection implant**?
Morse taper connection
## Footnote
This design enhances stability and reduces micro-movement.
139
Which of the following is true regarding a **thick gingival biotype** in the esthetic zone after implant surgery?
* Resistant to recession
* More likely to develop papilla
* Less prone to scar
* Unpredictable in regard to recession
## Footnote
Understanding gingival biotypes is crucial for implant success.
140
How far palatal does the most buccal aspect of the implant surface need to be in relation to the most labial surface of the crown to allow for the best emergence profile/esthetics?
0.5mm
## Footnote
Proper positioning is essential for optimal esthetic outcomes.
141
What is the most critical next step for a patient presenting with dense hypoesthesia in the distribution of the mental nerve two days after posterior mandibular implant placement?
Neurosensory evaluation over the following 2 months
## Footnote
Monitoring nerve function is crucial after implant placement.
142
When is the most appropriate time for a **CT graft** for labial and lingual soft tissue augmentation?
8-12 weeks after bone level implant placement with primary closure
## Footnote
Timing is important for successful graft integration.
143
What is the optimal implant positioning for proper emergence profile in the anterior zone?
2mm palatal to gingival zenith of planned crown
## Footnote
This positioning helps achieve a natural appearance.
144
What is the most indicative reason for **failure of an implant** after one year?
* Height
* Width
* Length
* Immediate implant
* Immediate loading
## Footnote
These factors can significantly influence implant success.
145
What is the difference between **porous polyethylene** and **PTFE**?
* Less infection than P.E
* PTFE is easier to remove
* PTFE requires fixation
* Tends to have a high infection rate
## Footnote
Understanding material properties is essential for surgical planning.
146
Why is **ePTFE non-resorbable**?
No enzyme to break down carbon fluorine bond
## Footnote
This characteristic affects its use in surgical applications.
147
Regarding implantology, **microgap** refers to the space between _______.
Implant and abutment
## Footnote
This gap can influence the stability and health of the implant.
148
What does **ePTFE** exhibit in terms of soft-tissue ingrowth?
Rapid surrounding soft-tissue ingrowth without capsule formation
## Footnote
ePTFE is non-resorbable due to the lack of enzymes to break down the carbon-fluorine bond.
149
In implantology, what does **microgap** refer to?
* Space between implant and abutment
* Space between implant and abutment screw
* Space between implant and osteotomy wall
* Threads of the implant
## Footnote
Understanding microgap is crucial for implant stability and success.
150
What is the most important factor associated with the success of the **osteotome-mediated sinus floor elevation technique**?
Height of the residual alveolar bone
## Footnote
Adequate bone height is essential for successful sinus elevation and implant placement.
151
True or false: An **osteotome** should be used on any type of bone density.
FALSE
## Footnote
Osteotomes should only be used on dense cortical bone and should be abandoned if they elevate the maxillary sinus.
152
Which type of autogenous bone graft releases most **chemical mediators/growth factors**?
Unmilled Cancellous
## Footnote
This type of graft is typically used in block grafts.
153
What is **Methohexital** associated with?
* Increased seizure risk
* Bradycardia
* Dyskinesia
## Footnote
Methohexital is a barbiturate used for anesthesia with specific side effects.
154
What does **PEEP** ventilator treat?
* Atelectasis
* Pneumonia
* Sleep apnea
* Barotrauma
## Footnote
PEEP is used to maintain positive airway pressure and improve oxygenation.
155
Where should the **tip of the LMA** be placed to seal the hypopharynx?
Against the cricopharyngeus muscle at the top of the esophagus
## Footnote
Proper placement is critical for effective ventilation.
156
What is true regarding **propofol**?
* Quick recovery due to redistribution
* Causes bronchodilation
* Decreases blood pressure by 20-40%
## Footnote
Propofol is widely used for sedation and anesthesia.
157
What can cause excessive **hypotension** when taken with propofol?
ACE-I
## Footnote
Caution is advised when administering propofol with ACE inhibitors.
158
What is **Compound A** associated with?
* Breakdown product of sevoflurane
* Produced by interaction with carbon dioxide absorbents
* Affected by flow through the absorbent
## Footnote
FDA recommends specific fresh gas flow rates to minimize exposure to Compound A.
159
What is most closely associated with long-term **endotracheal intubation**?
Tracheal stenosis
## Footnote
Prolonged intubation can lead to significant complications.
160
How does the **pediatric airway** differ from the adult airway?
* Larynx is more cephalic
* Rostral larynx
* Narrow, long, and floppy epiglottis
* Narrowest at cricoid
* Shorter trachea
## Footnote
Understanding these differences is crucial for airway management in children.
161
What type of nerve is a **C fiber**?
Unmyelinated, small, slow
## Footnote
C fibers are more resistant to injury and more likely to rejuvenate.
162
What is **macrocytosis** in alcoholism due to?
* Folate deficiency
* Vitamin B12 deficiency
## Footnote
These deficiencies are common in chronic alcohol use.
163
What is the mechanism of action of **glucagon**?
Increases blood glucose levels by promoting glycogenolysis
## Footnote
Glucagon is primarily used in hypoglycemic emergencies.
164
What is the **capillary wedge pressure** indicative of?
Left atrial pressure
## Footnote
It is used to assess left ventricular function and pulmonary congestion.
165
What is the treatment for **C-diff**?
Metronidazole TID
## Footnote
This is a common first-line treatment for Clostridium difficile infections.
166
What is a sign of **serotonin syndrome**?
Mydriasis
## Footnote
Recognizing this sign is crucial for timely intervention.
167
What is the **difference** between Wernicke encephalopathy and Wernicke-Korsakoff disease?
Korsakoff disease exhibits mental deficiency, nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, confabulatory psychosis
## Footnote
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a chronic condition resulting from thiamine deficiency.
168
What is the **mechanism of action** of clindamycin?
50S protein subunit inhibitor
## Footnote
Clindamycin is effective against anaerobic bacteria and some protozoa.
OMSITE
flashcards
Decks in class (1)
# Cards
