Oncology Flashcards

Medical Oncology Study (94 cards)

1
Q

Neutropenic enterocolitis

A

Major Criteria:
- Neutropaenia, < 500 x 109 cell/L
- Bowel wall thickening on CT exam or US exam
- Fever, > 38.3c oral or rectal
- > 4 mm (transverse scan) thickening in any segment of the bowel for at least 30 mm length (longitudinal scan)

Minor Criteria
- non-specific Abdominal pain > 5/10
- Abdominal distention
- Abdominal cramping
- Diarrhoea
- Lower GI bleeding

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2
Q

R-CHOP chemo Regimen

A
  • Rituximab,
  • Cyclophosphamide,
  • Doxorubicin,
  • Vincristine, and Prednisone
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3
Q

Anti-Neoplastic drugs and Skin Extravasation

A
  1. Irritant Antineoplastics:
    - alkylating agents, platinum drugs, topoisomerase I inhibitors and 5-FU
  2. Vessicant Antineoplastics:
    tissue damage, blistering, gangrene
    - Vinca alkaloids, anthracyclines, and taxanes
  3. Non-vessicants are responsible for temporary erythema and oedema upon extravasation. Examples include cytarabine, gemcitabine and asparaginase.
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4
Q

Managing Chemo Extravasation

A

General treatment measures include discontinuation of the infusion, aspiration of fluid from the IV line, and elevation of the limb. Cold compressions are used for almost all drug extravasations; however, the management of vinca alkaloid extravasation is unique in requiring warm compressions to dissipate the drug from the affected site. Hyaluronidase helps reduce discomfort and latent cellulitis. Dexrazoxane and sodium thiosulfate are used for the extravasation of anthracyclines and cisplatin respectively.

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5
Q

Ultrasound features of Malignant Thyroid Nodule

A

Ultra-sound features suggestive of thyroid malignancy:

> 1cm sized nodule which is taller than it is wide
Microcalcification
Local invasion and lymph node metastases
Ill-defined and irregular margin and contour
Intrinsic hypervascularity
Solid and hypoechoic
Absence of a completely uniform halo around the nodule

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6
Q

Risk of Thyroid cancer

A

History of neck irradiation in childhood
Endemic goitre
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis (increased risk of lymphoma)
Family or personal history of thyroid adenoma
Cowden`s syndrome
Familial adenomatous polyposis
Familial thyroid cancer

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7
Q

Radio-iodine Recommendations

A

RAI is typically recommended if any of the following is present:
* Significant N1b disease
* Gross extrathyroidal extension
* Postoperative unstimulated Tg >10 ng/mL
* Bulky or >5 positive lymph nodes
* Vascular invasion
* Differentiated high-grade carcinoma

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8
Q

Actions to take if Thyroglobulin High/Rising (post total Thyroidectomy)

A
  • Check Tg heterophile antibody levels to rule out interference in assay
  • Check if the TSH is completely suppressed
  • Did the patient undergo complete surgical resection
  • Rule out any possible iodine contamination (e.g. amiodarone therapy or recent contrast injection) in cases where Tg is detectable and uptake scan negative
  • Arrange a neck ultrasound to look for any thyroid remnant or lymph node enlargement
    If neck ultrasound negative arrange for CT thorax
  • If both the above-mentioned investigations are negative arrange for a 99mTc MIBI to rule out bony deposits
  • If all above-mentioned investigations are negative consider a PET scan, if that too is negative consider therapeutic 131I ablation
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9
Q

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) Chemotherapy Regimens

A

Induction:
This initial phase aims to achieve remission (no detectable leukemia cells) and usually involves a short, intensive course of chemotherapy, including drugs like vincristine, daunorubicin (or doxorubicin), cyclophosphamide, pegaspargase, and corticosteroids.
Consolidation (Intensification):
This phase builds on the remission achieved in induction and includes more intensive chemotherapy, often with drugs like methotrexate and mercaptopurine.
Maintenance:
This phase helps to keep the leukemia in remission for a longer period and may involve lower doses of chemotherapy drugs like methotrexate and mercaptopurine, sometimes with vincristine and steroids.

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10
Q

Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) Chemotherapy Regimens

A

Remission Induction:
The most common approach is the “7+3” regimen, which combines cytarabine (given for 7 days) with an anthracycline drug like daunorubicin or idarubicin (given for 3 days).
Intensive Chemotherapy:
Other intensive chemotherapy regimens may include FLAG-Ida (fludarabine, cytarabine, idarubicin) or combinations with high-dose cytarabine.
Targeted Therapy:
Targeted therapies like midostaurin or quizartinib may be added if the leukemia cells have FLT3 mutations. Gemtuzumab ozogamicin (Mylotarg) is another targeted therapy drug used in AML.
Supportive care:
Supportive care is also crucial in AML treatment, including monitoring blood counts, managing infections, and providing blood transfusions as needed.

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11
Q

RECIST Criteria for Chemotherapy response in clinical trials

A

Measurable Lesions (Target Lesions):
These are lesions that can be accurately measured and tracked over time. RECIST 1.1 limits the number of target lesions to a maximum of five total, with a maximum of two per organ.
Non-Measurable Lesions (Non-Target Lesions):
These are lesions that cannot be reliably measured or tracked, or lesions that are followed qualitatively.
Target Lesion Measurement:
The longest diameter of each target lesion is measured in millimeters. The sum of these diameters represents the “tumor burden”.
Categorization of Response:
Complete Response (CR): Disappearance of all target lesions and reduction of pathological lymph nodes to <10mm short axis, according to the National Institutes of Health (NIH) | (.gov).
Partial Response (PR): A decrease of at least 30% in the sum of the longest diameters of target lesions.
Stable Disease (SD): Tumor burden does not meet the criteria for PR or PD.
Progressive Disease (PD): An increase of at least 20% in the sum of the longest diameters of target lesions, with a minimum increase of 5mm, or the appearance of one or more new lesions.
Confirmation of Response:
A response (CR or PR) must be confirmed by repeat imaging, typically 4 weeks or more after the initial response assessment.
Progression:
The appearance of new lesions or a 20% increase in the sum of the target lesion diameters, with a minimum increase of 5mm from the smallest recorded sum, indicates disease progression.
Non-Target Lesions:
These are assessed qualitatively, with any unequivocal progression leading to a PD designation.

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12
Q

Osteoporosis Therapies

A

Denosumab is a fully human monoclonal antibody that binds RANKL cytokine preventing RANKL from activating its receptor RANK on the osteoclast surface. With reduced RANKL-RANK binding, osteoclast recruitment, maturation and function are inhibited resulting in a decrease in bone resorption and an increase in bone mass.
Nitrogen-containing bisphosphonates (alendronate, ibandronate, pamidronate, zoledronic acid) all induce osteoclast apoptosis via inhibition of farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase (FPPS).
Raloxifene exerts anti-resorptive effects via modulating osteoprotegerin (OPG) expression in osteoblasts.

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13
Q

SMARCB1 marker

A

What is SMARCB1/INI1?
SMARCB1 (SWI/SNF related, matrix associated, actin dependent regulator of chromatin, subfamily B, member 1) is a gene located on chromosome 22q11.2.
It’s a component of the SWI/SNF chromatin remodeling complex, which plays a role in regulating gene expression by modifying chromatin structure.
Loss of SMARCB1 function can disrupt this complex and affect gene expression, potentially leading to uncontrolled cell growth and tumor development.
Tumors Associated with SMARCB1 Loss/inactivation
Rhabdoid Tumors:
These are highly aggressive tumors, both in the kidney (malignant rhabdoid tumor) and outside the kidney (extrarenal malignant rhabdoid tumor).
Atypical Teratoid/Rhabdoid Tumors (AT/RT):
These are rare, malignant brain tumors, often affecting infants and young children.
Other Tumors:
SMARCB1 loss is also observed in other cancers, including:
1. Sinonasal carcinomas: Specifically, basaloid carcinomas.
2. Gastrointestinal tract tumors: Including those in the pancreas and uterus.
3. Epithelioid sarcomas .
Some carcinomas of the lung and pleura .
Sellar tumors in adults .
Pancreatic undifferentiated rhabdoid carcinomas .
How is SMARCB1 Loss Detected?
Immunohistochemistry (IHC): This technique uses antibodies to detect the presence or absence of the SMARCB1 protein in tumor cells. Loss of staining indicates SMARCB1 loss.
Genetic Testing: This can be used to identify mutations or deletions in the SMARCB1 gene.
Clinical Significance:
Loss of SMARCB1 is associated with aggressive tumor behavior and poor prognosis in many cases.
It can be a useful diagnostic marker, helping to identify tumors that may be more aggressive or respond differently to treatment.
Research is ongoing to understand the specific mechanisms by which SMARCB1 loss contributes to tumor development and to identify potential therapeutic targets.

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14
Q

Birt-Hogg-Dube Syndrome

A

Birt–Hogg–Dubé syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by germline mutations in the tumour suppressor gene FLCN. It is associated with multiple bilateral pulmonary cysts, fibrofolliculomas, and multifocal and/or bilateral renal tumours of mixed histological types

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15
Q

Karnofsky Performance Scale

A

Karnofsky performance status
100% – normal, no complaints, no signs of disease
90% – capable of normal activity, few symptoms or signs of disease
80% – normal activity with some difficulty, some symptoms or signs
70% – caring for self, not capable of normal activity or work
60% – requiring some help, can take care of most personal requirements
50% – requires help often, requires frequent medical care
40% – disabled, requires special care and help
30% – severely disabled, hospital admission indicated but no risk of death
20% – very ill, urgently requiring admission, requires supportive measures or treatment
10% – moribund, rapidly progressive fatal disease processes
0% – death.

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16
Q

WHO Performance Scale

A

WHO performance status scores
0 –Asymptomatic (fully active, able to carry on all pre-disease activities without restriction).
1 – Symptomatic but completely ambulatory (restricted in physically strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature; for example, light housework, office work).
2 – Symptomatic, < 50% in bed during the day (ambulatory and capable of all self-care but unable to carry out any work activities; up and about more than 50% of waking hours).
3 – Symptomatic, > 50% in bed, but not bedbound (capable of only limited self-care, confined to bed or chair 50% or more of waking hours).
4 – Bedbound (completely disabled, cannot carry on any self-care, totally confined to bed or chair).
5 – Death.

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17
Q

ECOG Performance Scale

A

ECOG Performance Status Scale
0 Grade - Fully active, able to carry on all pre-disease performance without restriction
1 Grade - Restricted in physically strenuous activity but ambulatory and able to carry out work of a light or sedentary nature, e.g., light house work, office work
2 Grade - Ambulatory and capable of all selfcare but unable to carry out any work activities; up and about more than 50% of waking hours
3 Grade - Capable of only limited selfcare; confined to bed or chair more than 50% of waking hours
4 Grade - Completely disabled; cannot carry on any selfcare; totally confined to bed or chair
5 Grade - Dead

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18
Q

Mesna Drug
2-mercaptoethane sulfonate Na

A

Mesna is used therapeutically to reduce the incidence of haemorrhagic cystitis and haematuria when a patient receives ifosfamide or cyclophosphamide for cancer chemotherapy. These two anticancer agents, in vivo, may be converted to urotoxic metabolites, such as acrolein.

Mesna assists to detoxify these metabolites by reaction of its sulfhydryl group with α,β-unsaturated carbonyl containing compounds such as acrolein.[5] This reaction is known as a Michael addition. Mesna also increases urinary excretion of cysteine.

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19
Q

Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Favourable Features

A

Age <50;
non-bulky disease (mediastinal to thoracic ratio less than 1/3);
absence of B symptoms;
3 or fewer lymph node regions involved;
and
normal ESR.

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20
Q

International Prognostic index for DLBCL

A

Risk factors:
- Age > 60 years
- Serum LDH > normal
- Stage III-IV
- Performance Status 2-4
- Extranodal sites > 1
Risk categories=Risk factors= Estimated 3 year overall survival (95%CI)
Low-risk = 0 - 1 = 91 (89 - 94)
Low-intermediate
risk = 2 = 81 (73 - 86)
High-intermediate = 3 = 65 (58 - 73)
High = 4 - 5 = 59 (49 - 69)

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21
Q

Lymphoma Tumor markers

A

A scoring system to distinguish CLL/SLL from other lymphoproliferative disorders is widely used based on CD5, CD23, CD79b, FMC7 and SmIg expression with 96.8% of patients with CLL/SLL scoring 4 or higher.

Diffuse large B cell lymphoma will be positive for CD3, CD10, BCL2 and BCL6.

Follicular NHL is CD10 positive.

Mantle cell lymphoma will be positive for CD3, CD10, cyclin D1, SOX11, BCL2 and BCL6. translocation of t(11;14) suggests the diagnosis is Mantle Cell Lymphoma

Marginal zone NHL will be positive for CD3, CD10 and cyclin D1.

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22
Q

Burkitt’s Lymphoma Markers

A

In Burkitt’s Lymphoma tumor cells express surface Ig of the IgM type and Ig light chains (kappa much more often than lambda), B cell-associated antigens (CD19, CD20, CD22, CD79a), germinal center-associated markers (CD10 and BCL6), as well as HLA-DR and MYC. They lack expression of CD5 and B cell leukaemia/lymphoma 2 (BCL2) and typically lack expression of CD23 and TdT.

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23
Q

Risk of Secondary Cerebral Lymphoma

A

The estimated incidence of secondary cerebral lymphoma is 5-8% although the introduction of rituximab into induction regimens appears to have reduced the incidence. However, it is estimated that ~20% of patients with:
i) A raised serum LDH AND more than one extranodal site (noting that the spleen is not regarded as an extranodal site and also, two lesions within the same system (e.g. bilateral lung lesions) are regarded as a single extranodal localisation).
OR
ii) Primary testicular, breast or epidural lymphoma will develop secondary cerebral lymphoma.
The present BCSH guidelines recommend primary prophylaxis with intrathecal methotrexate (IT MTX) despite the paucity of a randomised study confirming the efficacy of IT MTX in these patient groups.

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24
Q

Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index (FLIPI)

A

Follicular lymphoma is the second most common subtype of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It is generally recognised as being incurable but can remain indolent for periods.

The Follicular Lymphoma International Prognostic Index (FLIPI) was devised using data from a large number of patients with Follicular Lymphoma for 7 years and assesses patients using the following criteria:
= Age >60 years
= Stage III or IV
= Hemoglobin level <12.0>
= Number of involved nodal areas >4
= Serum LDH > than the upper limit of normal

High-risk FLIPI (three or more adverse factors) has a median PFS of 42 months, and a two-year OS of 87%, whereas, intermediate-risk FLIPI (two adverse factors) has a median PFS of 70 months, a two-year OS of 94% and low-risk FLIPI (zero to one adverse factor) has a median PFS 84 months, two-year OS 98%.

Reflection: The “remitting and relapsing” process of follicular lymphoma makes it difficult to predict how an individual’s disease will progress. Consider how patients with this disease can be psychologically supported through their cancer journey.

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25
Hairy cell Leukemia: Indications for Rx
A close follow-up is indicated in asymptomatic patients, according to ESMO guidelines. **The indications of treatment in patients with hairy cell leukaemia** are; - Systemic symptoms - Unexplained weight loss >10% in the last 6 months - Excessive fatigue - Recurrent infection - Hb<11g/dL - Platelets <100,000 x 109/L - ANC <1000 - Symptomatic splenomegaly - Progressive Lymphocytosis or lymphadenopathy
26
CML- 3 phases
There are principally three phases of CML which guide treatment and prognosis and are based on blast cell percentage on marrow examination. 1. Most people at the presentation are in the **chronic phase**, where blast cell count is less than 10%. 2. Next, patients may enter the **accelerated phase**, where the blast count is 10–19%, and then the 3. **blast phase**, where the cell count is 20% or above. Resistant CML is described as that which is resistant to treatment or returns after treatment.
27
CLL- Poor Prognostic Markers
**Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia** Approximately 50% of cases carry **unmutated immunoglobulin heavy chain variable regions** correlates with shorter survival and frequent recurrence on conventional treatments. **Other poor prognosis factors** - del17p, - higher levels of beta-2 microglobulin (B2M), - TP53 mutation and - increased levels of zeta-chain-associated protein kinase 70 (ZAP-70)
28
BRCA Mutations
BRCA1 carries a **risk of ovarian cancer** of about 40–45%, while BRCA2 carries a risk of about 10–20%. The lifetime risk increases significantly up to 5–7%, depending on the number of affected relatives. Women in BRCA-families see their lifetime ovarian-cancer risk climb by roughly 5–7 percentage points for each additional close relative known to carry a BRCA mutation. For example, if a BRCA1 carrier’s baseline lifetime risk is 40–45%, having one affected first-degree relative could push her risk toward the upper end of that range (adding ?5–7%), while two relatives might add ?10–14%, and so on. This incremental bump is why the number of affected family members is so important when estimating an individual’s personal risk. **Risk-reducing procedures (oophorectomy)** can be offered in women who have completed childbearing or at the age of 35–40 years. **Screening** for ovarian cancer in BRCA1 and 2 mutation carriers should start **between 25–35 years**, and includes a **transvaginal scan and serum CA 125** biannually.
29
MSKCC Prognostic model for RCC
According to Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center (MSKCC) Prognostic model. **Prognostic Factors** • The interval from diagnosis to treatment of less than 1 year • Karnofsky's performance status is less than 80% • Serum LDH greater than 1.5 times the upper limit of normal (ULN) • Corrected serum calcium greater than the ULN • Serum haemoglobin less than the lower limit of normal (LLN) **Prognostic Risk Groups** **Low-risk group**: no prognostic factors **Intermediate-risk group**: one or two prognostic factors **Poor-risk group**: three or more prognostic factors
30
The International Metastatic Renal Cell Carcinoma Database Consortium (IMDC) score
Karnofsky performance status <80%, Hb < lower limit of normal, time from diagnosis to treatment < one year, corrected calcium > upper limit of normal, platelets > upper limit of normal, neutrophils > upper limit of normal.
31
Autoimmune Hypophysitis
**Auto-immune hypophysitis** (inflammation of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland) is reported with **ipilimumab**, combination ipilimumab and **nivolumab** and less frequently with single-agent anti-PD1 and anti-PDL1 antibodies. Patients can present with **hypothyroidism** and/or **hypocortisolism** and with complaints of low testosterone levels. Simultaneous low levels of TSH, ACTH and/or FSH/LH can be seen. On MRI imaging an enlarged or swollen pituitary gland can be seen. According to symptom severity, **oral or IV steroid replacement** should be initiated and full pituitary axis investigations requested. In cases of moderate or severe symptoms, **immune checkpoint treatment should be withheld**.
32
Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer syndrome
**Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer syndrome** is caused by a mutation in the tumour suppressor **CDH1 gene**. It is responsible for diffuse gastric cancer and lobular breast cancer. CDH1 gene encodes **E-cadherin**, which is responsible for cell adhesion and signal transduction. The risk of diffuse gastric cancer with pathogenic variant CDH1 is estimated to be 70% in males and 56% in females by the age of 80 years. Individuals with CDH1 mutation should be advised prophylactic total gastrectomy usually between the age of 20 and 30 years. In patients unwilling for surgery, annual screening endoscopy should be commenced.
33
FAP (Familial Adenomatous Polyposis)
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is characterised by the development of hundreds of colonic polyps by the age of 20 years with a 100% risk of malignant transformation. There is also an increased risk of rectal and duodenal adenoma and carcinoma, desmoid tumours, thyroid cancer, gastric cancer, hepatoblastoma, neurologic cancer, and osteomas. Among individuals with a positive family history, **clinical diagnosis is made through flexible sigmoidoscopy**. **Genetic testing is offered at an early age of 10-12 years**. The surveillance of FAP is multi-fold. If a pathologic APC variant is found, a **colonoscopy every 12 months**, starting at the age of 10 through 15 years, is recommended. After 15 years, if successive colonoscopy examinations are normal, intervals can be increased to 2 years. Prophylactic colectomy by the age of 20 years is recommended for those found to have multiple adenomas on surveillance. After colectomy, endoscopic evaluation of the rectum is done every 6-12 months depending on the polyp burden. Upper endoscopy is started by the age of 25 years for surveillance of the small intestine as **peri-ampullary cancer** is the most common cause of death in patients who have undergone colectomy. Long-term **surveillance for thyroid cancer** is started in the late teens through an ultrasound of the thyroid. If normal, repeat ultrasound every 2-5 years.
34
NPI Score and Bloom Richardson Classification
**NPI score** is 0.2x tumour size (cm), Grade 1 tumour + zero axillary nodes = 2.44. Grading of the tumour is based on the modified **Bloom Richardson classification** where - well-differentiated is graded as 1, - moderately differentiated as 2 and - poorly differentiated as 3. A score of - less than 2.4 carries a 93% 5-year survival (excellent). - >2.4-3.4 the rate is 85% (good), - >3.4-5.4 the rate is reduced to 70% (moderate) and - 5.5 and above is 50% (poor)
35
Tumor Node Stage: Ca Breast
Lymph node stage Stage A: Tumor absent from all nodes sampled. Stage B: Tumor in low axillary node only. Stage C: Tumor in apical/internal mammary nodes.
36
PUK - AKI (Tumor Lysis features)
Hyper-**P**hosphatemia Hyper-**U**ricemia Hyper-**K**alemia **AKI** - acute Kidney Injury
37
Cooley's chromosome
"The Cooley's Chromosome" refers to chromosome 11, which contains the beta-globin gene (HBB). Mutations in the beta-globin gene on chromosome 11 cause beta-thalassemia, also known as Cooley's anemia. This genetic disorder leads to a deficiency in the production of beta-globin, an essential component of hemoglobin, resulting in severe anemia.
38
Jacobsen Chromosome
The Jacobsen Chromosome refers to a genetic abnormality involving the deletion of genetic material from the long (q) arm of chromosome 11, leading to Jacobsen syndrome. This rare genetic disorder can cause a range of developmental, cognitive, and physical characteristics, including intellectual disability, heart defects, and a bleeding disorder known as Paris-Trousseau syndrome. The severity of the condition often correlates with the size of the deleted segment, which can impact genes vital for normal development.
39
Robertsonian Translocation
A **Robertsonian translocation** is a specific type of chromosomal abnormality where two acrocentric chromosomes fuse together, resulting in a **single, larger chromosome**. This is a common type of chromosomal translocation in humans, affecting about 1 in 1,000 births. While carriers of a balanced Robertsonian translocation typically have a normal phenotype, they can experience **fertility issues** and have an increased risk of miscarriages or having children with chromosomal imbalances. **Acrocentric chromosomes** have their centromere located near one end, resulting in a short arm (p arm) and a long arm (q arm). **In humans, the acrocentric chromosomes are 13, 14, 15, 21, and 22**.
40
Down's Chromosome
The Downs chromosome" refers to an extra copy of chromosome 21, the genetic material that causes Down syndrome. Most commonly, this extra chromosome causes trisomy 21, where every cell in the body has three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two. Other forms include translocation Down syndrome, where the extra chromosome 21 material is attached to another chromosome, and mosaic Down syndrome, where only some cells have the extra chromosome.
41
Cytokine release syndrome (CRS)
Complication of chimeric antigen receptor T cell therapies such as Tisagenlecleucel(Kymriah, CAR T cell Rx) or after treatment with bispecific T cell engager monoclonal antibody. Starts within days and lasts several days. **Features**: fever, hypoxia, Tachypnea, tachycardia, Rx - Start Tocilizumab: block IL6 High dose steroids Discontinue trigger
42
Immune checkpoint inhibitor induced diarrhea
**ICI’s are Nivolumab & Ipilimumab** They can cause significant diarrhoea due to enterocolitis. - Hold medications - start steroids - rule out CDiff - rule out perforation - **Infliximab** can be given for **steroid refractory ipilimumab induced diarrhea ** due to TNF Alfa over production. - **Octreotide** can be used for chemo or radiotherapy induced diarrhea.
43
MASCC Febrile Neutropenia Risk Index
**1. Burden of illness** - no or mild symptoms - moderate symptoms - severe symptoms 2. No hypotension, Systolic > 90 3. No COPD 4. Solid tumor/Lymphoma with no previous fungal infection 5. No dehydration 6. Outpatient status (at onset of fever) 7. Age < 60 years
44
CAR T cell therapy neurotoxicity Or Immune Effector Cell-Associated Neurotoxicity syndrome (ICANs)
Chimeric antigen receptor T cell therapy effects: - Confusion - Expressive aphasia - Comvulsions - behavioural changes - Hyperreflexia - bilateral babinski sign Rx - stop drug’s and give high dose steroids
45
Taxanes: Docitaxel, Paclitaxel, Cabazitaxel Derived from plants: Yew
The principal mechanism of action of the taxane class of drugs is the disruption of microtubule function. Microtubules are essential to cell division, and taxanes stabilize GDP-bound tubulin in the microtubule, thereby inhibiting the process of cell division as **depolymerization is prevented**. Thus, in essence, taxanes are **mitotic inhibitors**. In contrast to the taxanes, the vinca alkaloids prevent mitotic spindle formation through inhibition of tubulin polymerization. Both taxanes and vinca alkaloids are, therefore, named spindle poisons or mitosis poisons, but they act in different ways. Taxanes are also thought to be **radiosensitizing**.
46
Ifosfamide induced Encephalopathy
Ifosfamide can cause dose dependant encephalopathy with features such as confusion, dysarthria etc. Stop infusion Continue **Mesna** infusion(prevent haemorrhagic cystitis) Can give Na bicarbonate in fluids Give **methylene blue** **Don’t give phenobarbital**
47
4T score for Heparin induced by thrombocytopenia (HIT)
1. **Thrombocytopenia** - 2 pts if count falls > 50% previous value + lowest count 20-100 - 1 pts if fall in count 30-50% of previous value - no points if fall less than 30% or nadir is less than 10k 2. **Timing** - 2 pts if fall between day five and 10 after commencement of treatment - 1 pt if fall is after 10 days - no pts if fall within a day but no past exposure - 2 points if fall within a day with past heparin exposure 3. **Thrombosis** - 2 pts in newly proven thrombosis/ skin necrosis/ systemic - 1 point if recurrent or progressive thrombosis/ silent thrombosis or red skin - no points if no symptoms 4. Alternative cause possible: - 2 points if no other cause - 1 point if there is a possible alternative cause - no points if there is a alternative cause **low risk** - 0-3 points **Intermediate risk** - 4-5 points **High risk** - 6-8 points
48
Cowden syndrome
Cowden syndrome is a rare genetic disorder characterized by the presence of multiple benign, tumor-like growths called hamartomas and a significantly increased risk of developing certain types of cancer. **PTEN gene mutation** (Phosphatase & Tensin) on Chromosome 10.q23.3 - loss of function, tumor suppressor gene
49
Managing **Tumor Lysis Syndrome**
1. Rehydration with NS, 200-300 mL/Hr 2. Calcium gluconate for cardio protection 3. Rasburicase- reduces urate by 95% 4. Frusemide **but not first line** as CaPO4 precipitates in renal tubules if dehydrated 5. Urinary alkalisation - with NaHCO3 **but not first line** as worsens hypocalcemia & precipitates Ca in tubules **Rasburicase**: 0.2 mg/kg IV infused over 30 minutes qDay for up to 5 days Recombinant urate oxidase; catalyzes the oxidation of uric acid into allantoin, a soluble metabolite of uric acid Contraindicated in G6PD deficiency
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HER-2 positive Ca breast in elderly
HER-2 + but ER/PR negative Ca breast in a fit elderly with good cardiopulmonary reserve should be managed with: - Taxanes + HER-2 directed therapy as Pertuzumab + Transtuzumab Or - Capecitabine/Vinorelbine if unfit for taxanes + anti HER-2 therapy
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BRCA mutation pearls
Found in 45% hereditary Ca breast (10% of all Ca breasts) and 90% hereditary Ca ovaries Usually before age 50 **BRCA-1** Usually Triple negative ie ER, PR and HER-2 negative, usually carries worse prognosis -**BRCA-2** usually hormonal receptor +ve and needs hormonal therapy as tamoxifen screen starts at 25/35 years of age - **annual mammography, MRI** **Prophylactic oophorectomy offered and advised at age 35-40 yrs**
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Ca breast: post menopause,
**Oncotype Dx < 25%** N1 disease ie only 1 group of lymph nodes involved Rx as - no chemotherapy (no benefits) - aromatase inhibitors **Abemaciclib** if = 4 + ve nodes = 1/3 +ve nodes with Grade 3 disease + tumor size 5 cm, **Ki67 score 20%**
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Aromatase inhibitors
An **aromatase inhibitor** (AI) is a drug that blocks the enzyme **aromatase**, preventing the body from converting androgens into estrogens and thereby **reducing estrogen** production. These drugs are a form of hormone therapy used to treat or prevent estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women by depriving cancer cells of estrogen, which they need to grow. Common examples include **anastrozole** (Femara), **letrozole** (Arimidex), and **Exemestane** (Aromasin)
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**High risk history** in Ca breast needs genetic testing
- Bilateral breast cancers - male ca breast - Ovarian ca - Jewish ancestry - Sarcoma in a relative < 45 yr - Glioma or childhood adrenocortical Carcinoma - Complicated patterns of multiple cancers in childhood - paternal history of ca breast in 1/2 relatives (fathers side)
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AJCC staging: Ca breast
**Tumor, T:** T1 - Tumor size < 20mm T2 - Tumor size 20-50 mm T3 - Tumor size > 50 mm T4 - tumor broken through skin or adhered to chest wall **Node involvement, N**: N0 - no nodes felt N1 - palpable nodes N2 - swollen & lumpy nodes N3 - swollen nodes near clavicle **Metastasis M**: M0 - no distant metastasis M1 - + metastasis
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Triple negative Ca breast: NICE recommendations
NICE guidelines recommend that for: early-stage TNBC with tumours between 6 mm 10mm and no nodal involvement, **adjuvant chemotherapy should be considered** due to the aggressive nature of TNBC. Despite the small tumour size, the biology of triple-negative breast cancer carries a higher risk of recurrence. **TNBC has a high recurrence risk even for small tumours.** While radiotherapy is indicated after breast-conserving surgery, systemic treatment is crucial for triple-negative pathology. Immunotherapy with **atezolizumab**(Tecentriq) is approved for metastatic or unresectable triple-negative breast cancer, not in the adjuvant setting. Adjuvant **capecitabine**(Xeloda) is considered for residual disease after neoadjuvant chemotherapy, not as primary Rx.
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Triple negative Ca breast
Doesn’t express ER, PR or HER-2 receptors on cancer cells. Poor 5 yr survival with metastasis, 12% **Six subtypes:** 1. Basal like, BL1, BL2 2. Mesenchymal M 3. Mesenchymal stem like MSL 4. Immunomodulatory IM 5. Luminal androgen receptor LAR Better response to Immune check point inhibitor therapy if: - High micro satellite instability - High mutational burden - High Programmed death ligand PDL-1 expression - High CD8+ tumor infiltrating lymphocytes
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Glioblastoma treatment
1. **MGMT promoter positive** tumors ( methylated O-6-methyl guanine-DNA-methyltransferase - exclusive **Temozolomide** 2. **Recurrent GBM** - Bevacizumab and PCV 3. **Hypofractionated radiotherapy** for poor performance Status or for good performance but unmethylated MGMT promoter status
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PTEN (Phophatase & Tensin homolog) tumor suppressor gene
Loss of function mutation of PTEN located on chromosome 10q23.3 causes many cancers. 1. **Germ line Tumours:** - Cowden syndrome: breast, endometrial, thyroid, kidney, colorectal, melanoma. 2. **Somatic/acquired PTEN mutations**: - prostrate cancer - Glioblastoma multiformae - Endometrial - lung cancer - Melanoma - Renal cell carcinoma
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Glioblastoma multiforme
**Common GBM genetic alterations**: - EGFR (Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor) gene amplification - combined chromosome 7 gain - Whole chromosome 10 loss (+7/-10) - **TERT** (Telomerase reverse transcriptase) promoter mutation = commonly with **Isomerase dehydrogenase (IDH) wild type Glioblastoma**.
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Phaechromocytoma susceptibility genes
- SDH (Succinate dehydrogenase) A/B - VHL oncogene (Avon-Hippel-Lindau) - RET proto-oncogene in MEN II - NF1 phenotype
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Catecholamine producing ParaGanglinomas
1. Intra-adrenal paraganglinomas **Phaechromocytomas** 2. Extra-adrenal paraganglinomas: - Sympathetic origin - Parasympathetic origin Hereditary mutations involved: - RET protooncogene - vHL oncogene - NF-1 gene - SDH B and D - more likely extra-adrenal, bilateral and metastatic
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NSGCT : Non seminoma Germ Cell Tumor
Stage I - Carboplatin AUC7 Stage II with markers negative: - RPLND: retro peritoneal Lymph node dissection - surveillance Stage II markers elevated as AFP: - BEP (Bleomycin + Etopocide A+ Platinum) **For Seminoma:** Radical Orchidectomy Primary BEP chemo 3 cycles Etopocide + Cisplatin as alternate 4 cycles Radiotherapy
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NPC: Nasopharyngeal cancer
Gemcitabine (1000 mg/m2, Day1 & 8) And Cisplatin 80 mg/m2 Nivolumab used if NPC progresses after platinum based therapy Immunohistochemistry: EBV positivity AE1/3 + ve EMA, p16, + ve Negative CD56, p63, CD45
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NTRK gene fusions (Neurotrophic-Tropomyosin Receptor kinase)
NTRK gene fusions are often found in specific and rare tumours such as: - mammary analogue secretory carcinoma of salivary glands >90% - secretory breast carcinoma 92-% - infantile congenital fibrosarcoma - pediatric non brainstem high grade glioma - papillary thyroid cancer in adults - colon adenocarcinoma (adults) - low grade glioma (adults)
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TK inhibitor resistance
Secondary EGFR exon 20 T790M mutation leads to resistance to initial TKI therapy such as Erlotinib Some EGFR mutated tumours develop acquired resistance and transformation to small cell lung cancer or adenocarcinoma (inactivated RB1 & TP53) T315I mutation is responsible for development of resistance of first & second generation TKI in CML
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Hereditary diffuse gastric cancer
Germ line mutations in **CDH1** Early onset < 40 yrs Family H/o diffuse Ca stomach Family H/o lobular Ca breast Family H/o Signet ring carcinoma High risk for Ca prostrate, endometrial and ovarian Ca as well Prophylactic gastrectomy recommended CDH1 germ line mutation carries 56-83% lifetime risk for women to develop gastric cancer and 39-52% to develop lobular Ca breast.
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Lynch syndrome
Occurs in people with **MLH1 mutation** - Raises risk of - ovarian, gastric and gall bladder cancer Hypermethylation of MLH1 promoter is responsible for micro satellite instability in gastric cancer **Other mutations implicated**: PMS2, EPCAM, MLH-1, 2, 6
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Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is an inherited **TP3 mutation** with an increased risk of: - ductal breast cancer - soft tissue sarcoma - leukaemia **Wilm’s tumour** is caused by mutations in **CTNNB1 gene** Germ line variants of ERBB2 are associated with **hereditary Ca Lung** And also potential risk for Ca breast & Melanoma.
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Renal medullary carcinoma
Rare & aggressive cancer Sickl cell disease & trait association SMARCB1 inactivation association Shares pathways with pediatric malignant rhabdoid tumours Can present as enlarging cysts with satellite lesions
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Renal malignancies
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Pediatric renal cancer
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Non RCC renal malignancies
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Neuro endocrine tumours Small intestinal or bronchial
Grading is as per Ki-67 levels and differentiation. Rx - Octreotide/ Lanreotide subcutaneous every 4 weeks as most express somatostatin receptors. Also reduce serotonin this helping with flushing and diarrh
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Cancer analgesics
Morphine upto 120 mg OD Equivalents: Diamorphine/Heroin 80 mg/24 Hrs Fentanyl 2.4 mg/24 Hrs (100:1 to morphine) Oxycodone 60 mg/24 Hrs Alfentanyl 8 mg/24 Hrs Avoid morphine & diamorphine in ESRD - fentanyl and alfentanyl can be used as metabolised by Liver- Alfentanyl is more potent so small volume can be used.
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Durvalumab for non small cell Ca Lung
Recommendation/ Use **Durvalumab** as neoadjuvant therapy for NSCLC when: - Tumor resectable, 4 cm or more - node positive - EGFR negative - ALK negative - good ECOG status Proceed with surgery also
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Favourable features in Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
As per European Organisation for Research & treatment of Cancer: - age < 50 yrs - non bulky disease ie mediastinal to thoracic ratio < 1/3 rd - no B symptoms - 3 or fewer Lymph node regions involved - normal ESR
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Mantle cell NHL
Fever + Wt loss + Lymphadenopathy in 60 + age Arises from B cell CD5+, Over expresses cyclin D1 CD20+ CD38+ (May be - ve also) **CD 23 negative** Poor prognosis,
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Burkitt’s lymphoma
B cell lymphoma Expresses: IgM, kappa >> lambda light chains of IG, CD19, CD20, CD22, CD79a Germinal center associated markers as CD10 & BCL6 + HLA DR and MYC+ *Lack CD5, BCL2, CD23 & TdT
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Risks for secondary cerebral lymphoma
- Raised serum LDH - More than 1 extra nodal site involved - Two lesions within same system as both lungs **Or** Primary - breast/testicular/epidural lymphoma Primary prophylaxis with **intrathecal methotrexate** is recommended
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Follicular Lymphoma,
Second most common NHL Generally incurable but can remain indolent for many years after Rx Can present as oral mucosal lesions CD 19. 20, 200 ++ Translocation (14,18) Generalised lymphadenopathy ++ Do **Bone marrow biopsy** for B cell immunophenotyping Rx -
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American guidelines for PTLDs
Post transplant lymphoproliferative disorders: American guidelines regarding immunosuppressives: 1. **Limited disease** - 25% reduction 2. **Extensive + Critically ill** - stop all immunosuppressants except prednisone 7.5-10 mg/day 3. **Extensive but not critical** Reduce Ciclosporin/Tacrolimus by 50% Rituximab mono therapy later can be continued for low risk cases of PTLD and later anthracycline can be added
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BTK inhibitors
Bruton’s Tyrosine kinase inhibitors 1. **Ibrutinib** First generation Useful in 17p deletion CLL Side effects: AFib, HTN, bleeding 2. **Zanubrutinib** Second generation Useful Useful in 17p deletion CLL No side effects as above Used for relapsed/refractory CLL Alternatives: Venetoclax + Rituximab Chlorambucil + Obinutuzumab in frail
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Managing Ca pancreas
FOLFIRINOX, combination chemotherapy for fit ECOG 0/1 patients Gemcitabine monotherapy if unfit for multiple drug use Gemcitabine + Paclitaxel if not too fit but wants combination trial
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Klatskin tumour
A Klatskin tumor is a **cholangiocarcinoma** occurring at the confluence of the right and left hepatic bile ducts. The disease was named after Gerald Klatskin, who in 1965 described 15 cases and found some characteristics for this type of cholangiocarcinoma. Rx - Cisplatin + Gemcitabine
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Study biases: Selection bias
**Selection or Volunteer bias** Not every one eligible for study participated and participation was significantly different between cases and the controls in ways that could certainly have affected results. It occurs when people who volunteer for a study are different from those who do not.
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Study biases: Lead time bias
Lead time bias is usually important in **screening studies** and reflects earlier detection because of screening.
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Study biases: Recall bias
**Recall bias** would be a differential response to a questionnaire by someone with the disease as compared to control and might be relevant in study.
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Study biases: Protopathic bias
**Protopathic bias** is a bias that results from the effect of the disease on exposure rather than the other way around, for example - if having gastric cancer leads to having more stress - the direction of causal arrow if reversed
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Categories of Clinical governance
Accountability Clinical audit Clinical risk management Clinical effectiveness Continuing professional development Patient and public involvement Managing information
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Filgrastim
A recombinant human G-CSF (Granulocyte- Colony stimulating factor) Half life is inversely related to absolute neutrophil count ie half life reduces as ANC increases Stop it if ANC > 10,000/cumm Compatible with dextrose but not NS **Should not be given** 24 Hrs before & after cytotoxic chemotherapy
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Febrile neutropenia
ANC < 1500/cumm and oral temperature > 38.3c or sustained for at least one hour.
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Memorial Sloan Kettering Cancer Center prognosticators model for RCC
**Prognostic factors** - Interval from diagnosis to Rx < 1 yr - Karnofsky performance < 80% - Serum LDH < 1.5 times - cCalcium > upper normal - Serum Hb < low normal **Prognostic Risk Groups** Low risk - no prognostic factors Intermediate risk - 1 or 2 factors High risk - 3 or more factors
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International Metastatic RCC Database Consortium Score:
IMDC score for RCC 1. KPS 2. Hb level 3. Time from diagnosing to Rx 4. platelet count 5. Corrected calcium level 6. Neutrophil count