One Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

If the Incident Commander has considered the requirement of a BA Emergency Team, what must they do?

A

Order another pumping appliance

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2
Q

Following a risk assessment on which of the following occasions should respirators be considered as the minimum level of RPE?

A

Handling hazardous powders

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3
Q

With regards the Joint emergency services interoperability principles (JESIP) how is a joint understanding of risk achieved?

A

Each agency should carry out their own ‘dynamic risk assessments’ but then share the results and contribute to the multi-agency risk assessment so that they can plan control measures and contingencies together more effectively

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4
Q

At an RTC where persons are in need of extrication when should the vehicle’s electrical system be isolated?

A

Once any electrically powered windows, seats etc. have been moved to the desired position

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5
Q

With regards to rescues from a confined space (as defined by the Confined Spaces Regulations
1997) other than to save a saveable life when can entry into a confined space be undertaken?

A

If the incident cannot be resolved safely unless entry into a confined space is made

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6
Q

What are the three major factors that influence wildfires?

A

Wind, slope and aspect

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7
Q

When entering a building for compartment firefighting what should the main hose line consist of
when it’s greater than three lengths?

A

70mm hose from the base pump to reduce frictional loss and the final two 45mm for ease of movement

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8
Q

At incidents within tunnels the IC may have to take into account structures such as portals, shafts etc. What does this mean for the location of the inner cordon?

A

The inner cordon will normally be within the tunnel

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9
Q

How does the incident commander’s dynamic risk assessment contribute to their incident plan?

A

It includes a decision about whether personnel should work in the hazard area

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10
Q

With regard to decisions an IC makes to resolve an incident, what three things does policy state they should do?

A

Understand their starting position, Know their desired end position, Develop a plan that gets them from one position to the other

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11
Q

What are the three stages of situational awareness?

A

Information gathering, understanding information and anticipation

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12
Q

To declare a major incident the incident commander should send an assistance message to Brigade Control: This is a major incident, tactical mode ……
This should be followed by what type
of Message?

A

METHANE message

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13
Q

At a high rise incident the fire sector is an operational sector and consists of what?

A

The floors above the bridgehead to the fire, the floor(s) involved in fire plus one level above

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14
Q

Who is responsible for the briefing and debriefing of breathing apparatus crews using the structured briefing model?

A

The sector/incident commander

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15
Q

At incidents with extensive sub-surface situations when should the sub-surface procedure be set up?

A

Where there is no evidence of unsafe conditions at surface level

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16
Q

What is the minimum rest and hydration levels for a respirator wearer after very hard work or work in very hot weather?

A

30 minutes and 500ml of cool water

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17
Q

The message ‘basement procedure implemented’ indicates a suitable and sufficient risk assessment has been completed and that a safe system of work has been implemented. What does that safe system of work refer to?

A

A BA team has been committed to the basement area with a minimum of 45mm hose line and branch set at 230lpm and a team to protect the egress route with a second 45mm hose line and branch set at 230lpm has been committed

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18
Q

Following an initial review and DRA at a collapsed structure the IC can use the “Six Stages of Rescue” acronym R.E.P.E.A.T. to assist them to formulate a plan. What does R.E.P.E. A.T. stand for ?

A

Reconnaissance and survey, Elimination of utilities, Primary surface search, Exploration of voids and spaces, Access by general debris removal, Termination by general debris removal

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19
Q

When dealing with a fire on a small vessel what must the IC consider?

A

The close mooring of vessels which can spread the fire
The presence of gas cylinders and supplies of fuel
The stability of the vessel due to it’s size

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20
Q

What is the minimum rank for the role of safety officer?

A

Leading firefighter (competent)

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21
Q

When working on “Class A” roads or motorways who has responsibilty for the safety of LFB personnel?

A

The LFB Incident Commander

22
Q

With regards to rescues from a confined space (as defined by the Confined Spaces Regulations 1997), other than to save a saveable life, when can entry into a confined space be undertaken?

A

If the incident cannot be resolved safely unless entry into a confined space is made

23
Q

Who is the co-ordinating authority for Search and Rescue (SAR) on the tidal section of the River Thames?

A

The Maritime and Coastguard Agency

24
Q

SitRep reporting may be initiated during an incident by the Commissioners Coordinating Group (CCG) which will require all Heads of Service to complete SitReps at regular intervals. What department should collate the SitReps and provide a summary report to the CCG?

A

Strategy and Risk

25
Who can mobilise additional staff (operational and FRS) that have the specific skill sets to carry out the roles required to support the BCC?
The Brigade Coordinating Manager
26
What is classed as Multiple Fire Survival calls?
Three or more fire survival calls from one building
27
With regards to public order and civil disturbance when identifying a suitable location for a Forward Mobilising Control Point, who should be involved in the decision?
The Duty NILO will consult with the Duty DAC and information should be sought from any incident commanders, the police and officers at the MPS special operations room
28
Based on the information available and circumstances of the incident, who can order the implementation of full forward mobilising?
AC 1 C Duty NILO C Duty DAC
29
When standing up the Brigade Coordinating Centre, who nominates the Brigade Coordinating Manager?
The Commissioner's Coordinating Group
30
The enhanced logistics support officer (ELSO) is carried out by whom?
National resilience assurance team (NRAT) officer
31
Enhanced Logistical Services are requested via whom?
National Resilience Fire Control (NRFC)
32
For pre-planned and rising tide events the GT command officer, once in position at SOR, should make contact with Brigade Control and?
The Duty DAC/event silver
33
With regards to the Tactical Co-ordinating Group (TCG). TCG should ensure...
That the Incident Commanders have the means, direction and co-operation required to deliver succesful outcomes
34
What is the minimum rank for the role of BA Sector Commander?
Station Commander
35
BA aide memoir No 3 is provided for incident ground use for the...
BA Sector Commander
36
If a decision is made to change the responsible person's evacuation procedure where should this be recorded?
On a Key Decision Log and shared with other emergency services
37
What is the role of the Fire Survival Guidance (FSG) Sector Commander?
The FSG Sector Commander is a funcional role and on the incident ground they are responsible for creating an effective FSG communications structure
38
At incidents on the railway when trains are running at caution, what is the maximum they can travel?
50 mph
39
The primary use of the out of LFB deployment credit card is to purchase items or services to support the welfare of the personnel who have been mobilised outside of the London Fire Brigade area. When can the daily limit of £1000 in cash be used?
Only when the card is not acceptable to a company by itself
40
Requests from neighbouring FRS must be referred to the Duty Deputy Assistant Commisioner via the Officer of the Day (OOD) for approval before the mobilisation for what attendance?
Special appliances not forming part of the PDA and more than 4 pumping appliances
41
With reference to marauding terrorist attack (MTA), what is the limit of exploitation (LOE)?
The furthest points to which emergency responders will operate within zones
42
Following the implementation of the Major Investigation Policy (PN920) and in agreement with General Counsel, it will usually be necessary to identify an Information and Disclosure Officer. What is the specific responsibility of the Information and Disclosure Officer?
Ensuring the Brigade's legal responsibilities to retain and record relevant material are met from the very start of any investigation
43
Situations where the use of operational discretion may be appropriate include: saving human life, taking decisive action to prevent rapid or serious escalation of an incident and?
Incidents where taking no action may lead others to put themselves in danger
44
Having completed a dynamic risk assessment this intial assessment now forms the basis of a more detailled incident risk assessment known as an analytical risk assessment (ARA). What hazards are recorded on the analytical risk assessment form?
Any significant hazards
45
When should an analytical risk assessement be completed?
When the Incident Commander recognises the value of an enhanced supervision of safety at the incident
46
What is an emergency evacuation of responders?
The immediate and controlled withdrawal of all personnel from the scene of operations to a place of safety
47
With regards to debriefing and post incident review the Monitioring Officer should help guide the individual's reflective learning based on what criteria?
Revalidation criteria aligned to National Ocupational Standards for the role
48
Conditioned processes and recognition primed decisions are types of what decision-making process?
Intuitive
49
With regard to the JESIP principles what is the general pattern followed for joint decision making in incident management?
Work out what is going on (situation), Establish what you need to achieve (direction) and Deciding what to do about it (action)
50
During a tactical withdrawal of responders what should the tacical mode be?
Offensive - because personnel are still in the hazard artea durting the evacuation