Open Flashcards by Joe McGrath

Do not allow conditioned air duct temperature to decrease below _____ as turbine howl caused by ice formation on blade tips and water separator icing may occur.
A. 0 degrees F
B. 5 degrees C
C. 5 degrees F
D. 0 degrees C
OPEN Question # 547 EPS-1.1 5.5.5 Page 5-6

X B. 5 degrees C

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During Preflight, the _____ is responsible for ensuring the HF-1 and HF-2 dog leg antennas are attached to the aircraft and that the slip mark
is properly aligned.
A. EWAC
B. FE
C. MTS OPERATOR
D. NAV/COMM
OPEN Question # 383 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.3 Page 16-18

X D. NAV/COMM

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Which scale charts are required when operating within 30 NM of any land mass?
A. 1:500,000 (TPC)
B. 1:2,000,000 (JNC)
C. 1:1,000,000 (ONC)
D. A OR C
OPEN Question # 449 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.1 Page 16-17

X D. A OR C

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While in the en route portion of flight, a DR is required _____ .
A. For every turn more than 30 degrees
B. For every turn more than 20 degrees
C. Every hour
D. Every 45 minutes
OPEN Question # 452 EPS-1.1 16.23.5.6 Page 16-20

X A. For every turn more than 30 degrees

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At which point on the air multiplier sight gauge indicates additional oil is needed?
A. Anything below 3/4.
B. Anything at or below 1/2.
C. Anything at or below 7/8.
D. Anything at or below 1/4.
OPEN Question # 93 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-3

X B. Anything at or below 1/2.

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When using the AN/APX-76A IFF, the challenged transponder responds on a frequency of _____ .
A. 1090 MHz
B. 1134 MHz
C. 1030 MHz
D. 271.0 MHz
OPEN Question # 382 EPS-1.1 11.21 Page 11-63

X A. 1090 MHz

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Damage to the HF receiver-transmitter may occur if the transmitter is continuously keyed for a period in excess of __ minutes.
If a continuous transmission for __ minutes is made, the transmitter must be allowed to cool for __ minutes prior to making
subsequent transmissions.

OPEN Question # 128 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6/9.5.4 Page 9-15/16

X A. ____________________ 5
X B. ____________________ 5
X C. ____________________ 5

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Both HF sets must be on in order to prevent damage while transmitting. If both sets are operated simultaneously in the same
mode, select tuning frequencies at least ___ kHz apart to prevent damage to equipment.

OPEN Question # 209 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6 Page 9-15

X A. ____________________ 20

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What is the minimum warm-up time that should be allowed prior to transmitting on the AN/ARC-94 HF Radio?

OPEN Question # 210 EPS-1.1 9.5.3.1 Page 9-16

X A. ____________________ 15 minutes

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The HF-1 antenna has an anti-resonant range from approximately _____ .
A. 2 to 29.999 MHz
B. 26.4 to 27.1 MHz
C. 20 kHz to 25 kHz
D. 29 to 30 MHz
OPEN Question # 380 EPS-1.1 9.5.2.6 Page 9-15

X D. 29 to 30 MHz

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To reduce the possibility of explosion, ground transmit of operation of the ARC-243 (V) HF radio, including BIT, is prohibited unless the aircraft is ___ feet or more from aviation fuel storage areas, aircraft with open fuel lines/systems, and/or refueling of aircraft(s).
A. 100 feet
B. 200 yards
C. 100 yards
D. 200 feet
OPEN Question # 590 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

X D. 200 feet

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What is the required warm-up time for the ARC-243 (V) HF radio?
A. 3 minutes
B. 2 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 5 minutes
OPEN Question # 591 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

X D. 5 minutes

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SELCAL is assigned by BuNo number and can be changed at the EWMC’s discretion for OPSEC.
A. True
B. False
OPEN Question # 592 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

X B. False

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Attitude reference is normally selected when navigation capability is lost. Once ATT REF is deselected, NAV mode
A. can not be used again on that flight.
B. can only be used after completing a new ground alignment.
C. can only be used after completing a new ground or in-flight alignment.
D. can be used by switching the mode selector unit from ATT REF directly back to NAV.
OPEN Question # 274 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-1 Page 10-2

X C. can only be used after completing a new ground or in-flight alignment.

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A rapid alignment can be accomplished on the ground resulting in alignment completion in approximately 30 seconds. However,
for a rapid alignment to function, a normal alignment must have been accomplished prior to STS 02 and not accepted.
A. True
B. False
OPEN Question # 275 EPS-1.1 10.1.4.2.2 Page 10-11

X A. True

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In the event primary 115 VAC power is momentarily interrupted or lost to the AN/ASN-179, the INU will ____ .
A. be powered by 2 AN/WHL-1
B. shutdown
C. be powered by the Flight Essential DC bus
D. be powered by a backup battery unit
OPEN Question # 391 EPS-1.1 10.1.2.4 Page 10-6

X C. be powered by the Flight Essential DC bus

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On the AN/ASN-179 INU, malfunction code 3-22 indicates _____ .
A. Excessive X/Y estimated gyro bias
B. Grey Code failure
C. Present position not entered
D. MHRS not valid
OPEN Question # 392 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-7 Page 10-14

X C. Present position not entered

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According to NATOPS, if the angle to a satellite is at 45 degrees elevation, the _____ of the SATCOM batwing antenna provides coverage. For a satellite at 85 degrees, the _____ antenna provides coverage..
A. low angle monopole; low angle monopole
B. low angle monopole; crossed dipole
C. crossed dipole; low angle monopole
D. crossed dipole; crossed dipole

OPEN Question # 403 EPS-1.1 12.3.1.1 Page 12-6

X D. crossed dipole; crossed dipole

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When preflighting the APU, what is the minimum amount of fuel required in fuel tank number 2 and 3 to provide adequate
hydraulic oil cooling for the hydraulic pumps?
A. 1000 gal, 1000 gal; for a total of 2000 gal.
B. 1000 lbs, 1000 lbs; for a total of 2000 lbs.
C. 500 gal, 500 gal; for a total of 1000 gal.
D. 500 lbs, 500 lbs; for a total of 1000 lbs.
OPEN Question # 113 EPS-1.1 5.5.2 Page 5-2

X B. 1000 lbs, 1000 lbs; for a total of 2000 lbs.

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Complete the following statements. When operating APU ground air in a high humidity environment for _____ minutes or longer,
dehumidification shall be performed. Set temperature controllers to _____ position, then slowly increase to _____ position.
Operate the ground air-conditioning system for a minimum of _____ minutes to stabilize the cabin and flight station.

OPEN Question # 114 EPS-1.1 5.5.6 Page 5-7

X A. ____________________ 30
X B. ____________________ AUTO 2-DOT
X C. ____________________ 3-DOT
X D. ____________________ 15

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When pre-flighting the APU, the refrigeration turbine oil level gauges should be at least _____ full.
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 3/4
D. 13/16
OPEN Question # 378 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-3

X C. 3/4

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Before starting the APU, which of the following are to be removed?
A. Engine plug covers, cabin exhaust fan outflow duct plug, TAS and pitot covers
B. Cabin exhaust fan outflow duct plug, AOA, TAS and pitot probe covers
C. Engine oil cooler plugs, static plugs
D. Hydraulic Service Center plug, TACAN, pitot and AOA probe covers
OPEN Question # 478 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-3

X B. Cabin exhaust fan outflow duct plug, AOA, TAS and pitot probe covers

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During the APU preflight, check that the intake and exhaust door areas and air multiplier duct is clear of obstructions, FOD and
_____ .
A. Fluid leaks
B. Evidence of pilferage
C. Proper alignment of actuators
D. Prop wash
OPEN Question # 479 EPS-1.1 5.5.2.1 Page 5-2

X A. Fluid leaks

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The command “Prepare to Bail Out” should be issued only after it is determined that ditching cannot be safely accomplished.
A. True
B. False
OPEN Question # 419 EPS-1.1 6.32 Page 6-36

X A. True

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25. Concerning EP-3E operations, Condition III is entitled _____ . A. Equipment Check B. Routine Flight C. Operational Check D. Aircraft Inspection OPEN Question # 398 EPS-1.1 16.2.3 Page 16-2

X C. Operational Check

26. Prior to entering oceanic airspace, a SELCAL check should be conducted with ATC to verify operation of ______ and entered \_\_\_\_\_\_. OPEN Question # 594 EPS-1.1 9.6.5.1 Page 9-28

X A. ____________________ HF SELCAL mode X B. ____________________ SELCAL code

27. Upon receipt of an ATC SELCAL, lower squelch to ____ to reply. A. 5 B. 7 C. 0 D. 2 OPEN Question # 595 EPS-1.1 9.6.5.1 Page 9-28

X C. 0

28. You must select SAVE before selecting the RTN button to save the changes you made in the SETUP page of the ARC-243 (V) radio control set. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 596 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

X B. False

29. When selecting an operating frequency for either ARC-243 (V) HF R/T care must be taken not to select a frequency within _____ of the associated antenna antiresonant frequency. OPEN Question # 597 EPS-1.1 9.6.5 Page 9-27

X A. ____________________ 500 kHZ

30. To avoid electrical shocks being received by personnel, do not transmit or perform a BIT on the ARC-243 (V) radios when the aircraft is on the ground without ensuring the aircraft is _____ first. OPEN Question # 598 EPS-1.1 9.6.4 Page 9-26

X A. ____________________ grounded

31. On the ARC 243 (V) HF radios, when primary power is lost to the DCMS, HF-2 transmit and receive functions can be accomplished via the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. OPEN Question # 599 EPS-1.1 9.6.3 Page 9-25

A. ____________________ Emergency Communications Panel

32. Approximately how many wingspans of an EP-3E represent the personnel safety standoff for operation of the APS-134 radar on the ground? A. 1.5 B. End of wingtips C. 3 D. 1 OPEN Question # 31 EPS-1.1 1.2/3.2.5 Page 1-1/3-4

X A. 1.5

33. Single type hearing protection, either ear plugs or circumaural, is adequate when entering or departing a P-3 via the boarding ladder with the APU running. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 48 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-1 Page 3-3

X A. True

34. Complete the following statement. Sound intensity levels of _____ and higher have been recorded inside P-3 aircraft during flight. Consideration _____ be given to wearing hearing protection while off headset, as unprotected exposure may result in temporary or permanent hearing loss. A. 75dB; should B. 85dB; should not C. 85dB; should D. 75dB; should not OPEN Question # 49 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-1 Page 3-3

X C. 85dB; should

35. Structural failure of the air multiplier turbo compressor can cause extensive damage or injury to personnel in the adjacent areas. All personnel approaching the extendable radome area must be aware of the potential for air multiplier assembly damage as a result of blocking the air intake. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 87 EPS-1.1 3.2.7 Page 3-4

X A. True

36. If, during flap extension, the observer indicates a clearance danger exists, flap travel shall be stopped immediately. How is this accomplished? A. Placing a wooden beam in the path of travel B. Securing hydraulic power C. Immediately placing flap handle in UP position D. Securing electric power to the flap handle OPEN Question # 88 EPS-1.1 3.2.8 Page 3-4

X B. Securing hydraulic power

37. The Safety Diamond Area is defined by imaginary lines connecting the extremities of the nose, wing tips, and tail extending out how many feet from the aircraft? A. 4 B. 3 C. 6 D. 5 OPEN Question # 89 EPS-1.1 3.2.9 Page 3-5

X D. 5

38. International Maritime Satellite (INMARSAT) is the radio frequency distribution (RFD) component of _______ connectivity aboard the EP-3E aircraft. It is also the vehicle through which _______ data is received and transmitted. OPEN Question # 456 EPS-1.1 12.11.1 Page 12-22

X A. ____________________ FORCENET X B. ____________________ HITS

39. TIBS Data Interface (TDI) controls and processes all message transfers to and from the IBS-I Network and provides the encryption/decryption using the \_\_\_\_\_. OPEN Question # 566 EPS-1.1 12.8.1 Page 12-18

X A. ____________________ KGV-11

40. Your crew was originally scheduled for 21 crewmembers. If you add a passenger, which previously empty ditching station is now occupied? A. 16 B. 7 C. 14A D. 21 OPEN Question # 379 EPS-1.1 FIG 6-7 Page 6-27

X D. 21

41. With the EHSI, when a DME data is invalid or it becomes unavailable, the DME readout will indicate what? OPEN Question # 192 EPS-1.1 FIG 10-22 Page 10-61

A. ____________________ Red or white dashes respectively.

42. In non-CNS/ATM, which of the following display ranges is not selectable when using the EHSI control panel in map mode? A. 10 B. 250 C. 100 D. 500 OPEN Question # 393 EPS-1.1 10.6.2.2.3 (c) Page 10-58

X C. 100

43. In the AN/PRC-112B Series radios, it is important to not install dissimilar batteries, as doing so may cause them to explode due to differences in chemical composition. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 250 EPS-1.1 6.29.3.2 Page 6-34

X A. True

44. Why should the AN/PRC-149 operator first acquire the GPS satellites in GPS mode prior to transmitting on the triple frequency beacon mode or the 406 beacon mode? OPEN Question # 251 EPS-1.1 6.29.4.1 Page 6-35

A. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_Doing so will ensure first 406.025 MHz signal will include position if radio is not turned off between GPS mode acquisition and beacon mode.

45. The PRC-149 will give what indication that it has acquired GPS satellites? OPEN Question # 282 EPS-1.1 6.29.4.1 Page 6-35

A. ____________________ Once acquired, the GPS LED will light continuously.

46. Prior to performing maintenance on the APS-134 radome, the manual hydraulic shutoff valves for hydraulic systems No. 1 and No. 2 shall be closed and the _____ circuit breaker shall be pulled. A. Biglook B. Main C. APS-134 R/T D. Antenna Interlock OPEN Question # 579 EPS-1.1 3.2.4 Page 3-2

X D. Antenna Interlock

47. During normal use of the BAROSET knob, If momentary locking of the barocounter is experienced, what procedure is to be done in an effort to avoid internal gear displacement, which causes excessive altitude errors? OPEN Question # 38 EPS-1.1 2.3.1.1 Page 2-9

X A. ____________________ Rotate the knob a full turn in the opposite direction and approach the setting again with caution.

48. When the local barometric pressure is set, the altimeter should agree within +/- _____ feet of field elevation. A. 50 B. 150 C. 75 D. 100 OPEN Question # 39 EPS-1.1 2.3.1.1 Page 2-9

X C. 75

49. During a FOUO, when this Bus is secured, DCMS at all stations will become inoperative. OPEN Question # 56 EPS-1.1 6.4.1 Page 6-5

X A. ____________________ Essential BUS

50. What is the minimum number of personnel required to conduct an aircraft move in or around the flight line or hangar? A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 3 OPEN Question # 91 EPS-1.1 3.3 Page 3-5

X A. 6

51. What is the maximum airspeed at which one can recover the HF antenna? OPEN Question # 116 EPS-1.1 6.33 Page 6-40

X A. ____________________ 170 KIAS

52. Why is it important to keep hands clear when replacing the overwing emergency escape hatch in flight? OPEN Question # 117 EPS-1.1 6.33 Page 6-40

A. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_Negative pressure over the wings tends to seat/reseat the hatch prematurely.

53. From the list of the following procedures, indicate the correct procedures and their sequence for launching the Multi-Place Life Raft (MPLR). 1) Connect the liferaft painter to your life vest. 2) Ensure the MPLR actuation/mooring line is attached to the aircraft. 3) Push or lift the liferaft through the exit. 4) Actuate the MPLR with two distinct sharp pulls of the actuating handle. 5) Locate the actuation handle in the international orange flap and actuate with one smooth pull. OPEN Question # 1 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-30

X A. ____________________ 2, 3, 5

54. When launching the MPLR _____ . A. Ensure the actuation/mooring line is attached to the aircraft. B. Remove the liferaft from its carrying case. C. Inflate the liferaft before launching. D. Attach the liferaft painter to your AIRSAVE. OPEN Question # 457 EPS-1.1 6.26.1 Page 6-30

X A. Ensure the actuation/mooring line is attached to the aircraft.

55. Responsibility for all transmissions rests with which aircrew position? Assume a full tactical crew. A. Senior Evaluator B. Aircraft Commander C. Special Evaluator D. Mission Commander OPEN Question # 123 EPS-1.1 7.2 Page 7-1

X D. Mission Commander

56. Message releasing authority may be delegated to other officers in the crew. However, the mission commander should at all times be made aware of the content of outgoing messages. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 124 EPS-1.1 7.2 Page 7-1

X A. True

57. The preferred means of submitting routine NATOPS change recommendations is directly to the model manager via _____ . A. the AIRS website B. form DD 214 C. form OPNAV 3710/6 D. form DD 1348 OPEN Question # 377 EPS-1.1 N/A Page 51

X A. the AIRS website

58. LT Evergone just completed his NATOPS requalification on January 15th. His previous evaluation was last March 10th. What is the expiration date of his new qual? A. March 31st B. January 15th C. March 10th D. January 31st OPEN Question # 384 EPS-1.1 17.1.7.2 Page 17-4

X D. January 31st

59. Renewal evaluations are valid for 12 months from the last day of the month of the expiration date of current evaluation if accomplished within _____ days preceding expiration. A. 30 B. 120 C. 60 D. 90 OPEN Question # 577 EPS-1.1 17.1.7.2 Page 17-4

X C. 60

60. It is during the dead of winter in Brunswick. The ambient air temperature is a chilly -25.6 degrees Celsius. What is the maximum pressure that you should see indicated on your oxygen bottle? OPEN Question # 95 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-3 Page 3-12

X A. ____________________ 1,409 psi

61. You are conducting a preflight in Bahrain. Your ambient air temperature is a staggering 33.3 degrees Celsius. What is the minimum pressure that you should see indicated on your oxygen bottle? OPEN Question # 96 EPS-1.1 FIG 3-3 Page 3-12

X A. ____________________ 1,601 psi

62. What is the power source for the Vertical Gyro? A. Main AC Bus A B. Ext MDC C. MEAC D. FEDC OPEN Question # 400 EPS-1.1 FIG 2-8 Page 2-26

X C. MEAC

63. What is the power source for the KIR-1C? A. Monitorable Essential AC B. Monitorable Essential DC C. Main AC Bus A D. Flight Essential DC OPEN Question # 451 EPS-1.1 FIG 2-8 Page 2-25

X C. Main AC Bus A

64. The power source for the 60 Hz converter is _____ . A. Main AC Bus A B. Main AC Bus B C. Monitorable Essential DC D. Monitorable Essential AC OPEN Question # 459 EPS-1.1 FIG 2-8 Page 2-33

X B. Main AC Bus B

65. If properly configured, the UHF-4 RT-1273 with the KY-58 at station 4 is secure voice SATCOM capable. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 402 EPS-1.1 9.8.2.2 Page 9-37

X A. True

66. Diphase is the primary communications mode for the KY-58 across DOD and NATO. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 506 EPS-1.1 9.7.4.1.1 Page 9-35

X B. False

67. The WJ-8604 receiver housed in the WJ-9903 enclosure operates between what frequencies? OPEN Question # 458 EPS-1.1 14.4.2.2 Page 14-5

X A. ____________________ 20 MHz to 2 GHz

68. When the NATOPS refers you to NTRP 3-22.2-EP-3E for further guidance, what publication is it referring you to? A. EDP Positional Card B. Classified NATIP C. EP-3E Tactical Pocket Guide D. Crew Station Maintenance Manual OPEN Question # 385 EPS-1.1 N/A Page 49

X B. Classified NATIP

69. The Medium-band Omni distribution group is associated with _____ . A. TB 2 to TB 6 B. TB 1 and TB 2 C. FB 1 only D. FB 1 to FB 4 OPEN Question # 404 – add to ACCESS Bank-614 EPS-1.1 13.4.1.1 Page 13-8

X D. FB 1 to FB 4

70. When operating in a standoff environment, ICS updates are required at ____ , ____ , and ____ . OPEN Question # 568 EPS-1.1 16.3.3 Page 16-4

X A. ____________________ 10 nm X B. ____________________ 5 nm X C. ____________________ Every mile inside of 5 nm

71. The Video Matrix Switch associated with the Story Classic system routes signal outputs to the station 20 patch panel and the _____ . A. Story Classic VME B. WJ-9908 enclosures C. OM-75/A Demodulator group D. Audio matrix switch OPEN Question # 455 EPS-1.1 13.3.5 Page 13-5

X C. OM-75/A Demodulator group

72. The ST RFD software resides on a __________ hard drive in the VME chassis. A. Communication Pre-Processor (CPP) B. Story Teller Correlator (STC) C. Mission Avionics System Interface (MASI) D. Port Server/Pool Manager OPEN Question # 600 EPS-1.1 12.3 Page 12-5

X C. Mission Avionics System Interface (MASI)

73. List the four subsystems that comprise the EP-3E FORCEnet architecture: OPEN Question # 601 EPS-1.1 12.11.2 Page 12-22

A. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_INMARSAT B. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ADNS C. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_Networks (JWICS/SIPRNET/COI) D. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_HITS

74. During evasion with Condition 1 set, helmets should be worn. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 602 EPS-1.1 16.2.1 Page 16-2

X A. True

75. The Banshee Lite System Server contains the \_\_\_\_\_\_, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, and provides a storage area for ______ and ______ files. OPEN Question # 603 EPS-1.1 13.7.5.1 Page 13-19

X A. ____________________ LH software X B. ____________________ Bird's Eye GUI X C. ____________________ signal X D. ____________________ audio

76. The Banshee Lite workstation and the system server look very similar and are located at station 15. Care should be taken to avoid mixing up the hard drives. A. True B. False OPEN Question # 604 EPS-1.1 13.7.5.9 Page 13-22

X A. True

77. AAS-44C MTS is operated at station 4. The video is sent to stations _______ for situational awareness and analysis. A. 1, 13, and 14 B. 1, 12, and 13 C. 12, 13, and 14 D. 1, 6, and 13 OPEN Question # 605 EPS-1.1 15.2 Page 15-3

X A. 1, 13, and 14

78. The AAS-44C MTS contains two Class IV lasers the Laser Range Designate (LRD) and Laser Target Marker (LTM) that can produce permanent blindness to people and animals up to ____ kilometers for the LRD and up to ____ meters for the LTM. OPEN Question # 607 EPS-1.1 15.2 Page 15-3

A. ____________________ 9 B. ____________________ 200

79. Which of the following is not part of the minimum survival equipment for the AIRSAVE: A. Pen light B. Whistle C. Compass D. Shroud line cutter OPEN Question # 610 EPS-1.1 6.21.1 Page 6-28

X A. Pen light

80. The Noble Sentry system contains a ______ subsystem, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_subsystem, and the ______ subsystem. OPEN Question # 611 EPS-1.1 11.8.1 Page 11-38

A. ____________________ Specific Emitter Identification (SEI) B. ____________________ Low Probability of Intercept (LPI) C. ____________________ Automatic Identification System (AIS)

81. Identify the Noble Sentry subsystem that uses a theater-specific library, which is uploaded before missions. A. Specific Emitter Identification (SEI) B. Low Probability of Intercept (LPI) C. Automatic Identification System (AIS) D. Vessel Traffic Services (VTS) OPEN Question # 612 EPS-1.1 11.8.1 Page 11-38

X A. Specific Emitter Identification (SEI)

82. During the use of the portable navigation GPS unit PSN-11, when the receiver is connected to an external power source, the internal BA-5800/U lithium battery shall not be installed. A. True B. False OPEN Question #637(from previous closed bank)NOW QUESTION 615 EPS-1.1 10.2.5 Page 10-41

X A. True

83. Before powering up the ODIN Systel processor, the ________ at station 4 must be powered up. A. Video Distribution Amplifier (VDA) B. Video Encoder (V-BRICK) C. Keyboard Video Mouse (KVM) D. DSR-45 Digital Recorder OPEN Question #617 now Question 616 EPS-1.1 15.2.9 Page 15-10

X C. Keyboard Video Mouse (KVM)

84. ___ is the ability of the receiver to detect and exclude a bad satellite from the navigation solution, which requires the receiver to be tracking a minimum of ___ satellites. Question #620 now Qeustion 617 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.3.2 Page 10-63

A. FDE B. 6

85. . ___ is the ability of the receiver to determine if the integrity of the navigation solution meets the integrity requirements for the phase of flight and requires the receiver to be tracking a minimum of ___ satellites. Question #618 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.3.1 Page 10-63

A. RAIM B. 5

86. In an emergency, the RINU-G INS will operate from the aircraft battery until battery voltage drops below what voltage? A. 28VDC B. 32VDC C. 17.5VAC D. 17.5VDC Question #621 now Question 620 EPS-1.1 10.7.3 Page 10-66

X D. 17.5VDC

87. Loss of which of the following will cause a loss of GPS signal to both RINU-Gs? A. Antenna B. Amplifier C. Splitter D. Any of the above Question #619 EPS-1.1 10.7.2.6 Page 10-64

X D. Any of the above

88. When securing the AN/ARC-94 HF systems, set _____ . A. HF-1 to 19.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz B. HF-1 and HF-2 to 00.000 MHz C. HF-1 to 20.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz D. HF-1 to 20.999 MHz and HF-2 to 20.999 MHz Question #381 EPS-1.1 9.5.6 Page 9-17

X A. HF-1 to 19.999 MHz and HF-2 to 29.999 MHz

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