PPL exams pilot training > Operational Procedures > Flashcards

Operational Procedures Flashcards

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1
Q

PIC

A

Pilot in command, the person designated by the operator or owner as being in command and charged with the safety of the aircraft in flight. Carries the ultimate responsibility

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2
Q

Operations Manual?

A

Contains procedures, instructions and guidence for the use by operational perseonel. Document that is maintained by the aircraft operator.

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3
Q

Flight Manual?

A

assosacted with CofA containing limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthey. Individual aircraft with a CofA will have is own individual flight manual.

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4
Q

Flight time?

A

‘chock to chock’ time, for when the aircraft first moves to takoff position, to when it stops for the final time.

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5
Q

General Aviation Operation?

A

Aircraft operation other then for commercial air transport or aerial work.

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6
Q

LDA?

A

Landing distance available - length of the runway suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane landing.

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7
Q

TORA?

A

Take-off run available - the length of the runway suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off.

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8
Q

ASDA?

A

Accelerate-stop distance available - the length of takeoff run available plus the length of

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9
Q

TODA?

A

Take-off distance available - the length of the takeoff run available plus the length of the clearway.

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10
Q

Stopway?

A

An area beyond the runway that can be used to stop an aircraft

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11
Q

Clearway?

A

Area beyond the runway, clear of obstructions where an aircraft can make its initial climb.

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12
Q

Runway holding point markings?

A
  • Holding point boards.
  • A set of solid and broken yellow lines painted across the taxiway.
  • A line of steady red lights painted across the taxiway.
  • Flashing amber ‘Runway Guard lights’ next to the taxi way
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13
Q

Night time?

A

30mins after and before sunrise.

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14
Q

What is Noise Abatement?

A

Procedures that consist of specific routing on arrival or departure at a specific airfield.

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15
Q

Where is Noise Abatement procedures found?

A

Airfields Aeronautical Information Publication. AIP

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16
Q

How are engine start fires caused?

A
  • Over priming the engine
  • Over use of the primer control.
  • Pumping the throttle of the engine, when it is fitted with a pumping accelerator.
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17
Q

Most often, how are cabin fires started?

A

Electrical failure. White smoke and a bad smell.

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18
Q

How must you deal with a fire situation?

A

Fire checklists.

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19
Q

What is wind shear?

A
  • Sudden change of wind velocity and or direction.

- Can occur vertically or horizontally

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20
Q

Where is wind shear most dangerous?

A

Low level, sudden charges in aircraft speed and path can cause flight hazards.

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21
Q

What is wind shear associated with?

A
  • Mostly thunderstorms,
  • However it can also occur around particularly active weather fronts
  • Temperature inversions
  • Turbulence caused by strong winds.
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22
Q

What is a microburst?

A

powerful localised area of rain cooled descending air which after hitting the ground, spreads out in all directions.

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23
Q

What are micro bursts associated with?

A
  • Mostly thunderstorms
  • ‘virga’
    (involves strong downdrafts and horizontal winds and can cause severe wind shear)
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24
Q

Wake Turbulence?

A

Disturbance of air caused by the passage on an aircraft in flight. Form of Vortices generated at the wing tips of fixed wing aircraft or from the rotors of a chopper.

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25
On fixed wing aircraft when is wake turbulence said to exist?
From the time the nose wheel leaves the ground on takeoff until the nose wheel contacts the runway on landing.
26
Avoid Wake turbulance by?
flying above or below the flight path of another aircraft.
27
How far away should u stay from a helicopter in flight to avoid wake turbulence?
at least three roters distance.
28
When ditching, where on the surface is best?
Parallel to the surface well of the water, and into headwind if possible.
29
Priority's when evacuating the aircraft?
- Evacuate crew and passengers, to a safe position upwind. | - Main aircraft systems should be shut down.
30
Life jacket rules?
You should have life jackets if the aircraft is flying not within glide distance of land.
31
When is the runway contaminated?
More then 25% of the runway surface area is covered by: - Surface water more then 3mm deep (or by slush, loose snow or equivalent) - Compacted snow or ice - Ice
32
What is a wet runway?
One where the runway surface is covered with water, or equivalent, less than 3mm deep, or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway surface to cause it to appear reflective, without significant areas of standing water.
33
What is a damp runway?
Has a surface which is not dry, but moisture on it does not give it a shiny appearance.
34
What is a dry runway?
Neither wet nor contaminated.
35
Runway condition flooded?
Extensive patches of standing water which are visible. More than 50% of the assessed area is covered by water more than 3mm deep.
36
Pilot decision for a contaminated runway?
Should be avoided if at all possible.
37
Life jackets required?
50nm from land
38
Life raft required?
100nm from land
39
An aircraft that is overweight is going to require
Have a longer landing distance, and have a reduced cruise performance
40
The max weight of an aircraft with payload allowable with zero fuel in the tanks is referred to as the:
Zero fuel weight
41
Aircraft is loaded with 100 litres of fuel. Gravity is 0.72, weight of the fuel is...
72kg
42
AIC states that landing distance required will be increased by 10% by:
Runway with a 2% downhill slope
43
When flying into an area of vertical wind shear the immediate consequence will be to change the aircraft's:
wing angle of attack
44
A white disc at the head of a 'T' in the signals square indicates that:
the direction of take-off and landing may be different.
45
Marshalling is complete. What signal is given to you to indicate this?
The right arm is raised at the elbow with palm facing towards you
46
You are approaching an aerodrome at night, and see a flashing white light beamed at you from the tower. What does this mean?
Cleared to land after receiving a steady green light.
47
pilot arriving at a busy aerodrome is asked to delay their arrival. If the fuel state is becoming critical, the pilot should alert ATC to the need for a priority landing by:
Declaring an emergency.
48
In the UK, Class B airspace is:
not allocated
49
What should you do if your anti-collision light(s) fail during a flight conducted between the hours of sunrise and sunset?
Continue, provided the light is repaired at the earliest practicable opportunity.
50
What do Holding point lines look like?
Two solid lines and two broken (dashed) yellow lines.
51
With respect to wake turbulence (only), which of the following wind conditions represents the greatest risk for departing aircraft?
Very light crosswind (approximately 3 kts)
52
ICAO recommends that specific Noise Abatement Procedures (NAPs) be published:
In the AIP
53
What is the UK wake vortices separation minima for a light aircraft following an aircraft in the heavy category on final approach to land?
7nm
54
Which of the following signals displayed in the signals square has the same meaning as a black ball suspended from a mast?
A white disc at the head of a white 'T' shape.
55
When encountering an area of horizontal wind shear, the most significant and immediate influence is on the aircraft's:
air speed.
56
A runway has a light headwind of around 5 kts. Which of the following statements concerning the vortices created by landing and departing aircraft is most likely to be correct?
The vortices will dissipate outwards from the wings and away to the sides of the runway.
57
You are in a light aircraft waiting to take-off behind a large aircraft ahead of you, which is in the 'upper medium' category. You are departing from the same position. What is the UK wake vortex separation minima for this situation?
2 mins
58
Prior to evacuating the aircraft following an emergency landing off-airport, you should first ensure:
the aircraft engine is fully shut down.
59
What is the status of Noise Abatement Procedures (NAPs) published by an aerodrome?
Compliance is subordinate to the safe conduct of flight.
60
At night, what light signals must a glider show?
Similar lights to a powered aircraft, or a single red light.
61
A marshaller stretches her arms in front of her, palms facing the ground, and moves them up and down several times. What request is being indicated?
Slow down.
62
A runway has a light headwind of around 5 kts. Which of the following statements concerning the vortices created by landing and departing aircraft is most likely to be correct?
The vortices will dissipate outwards from the wings and away to the sides of the runway.
63
You are in a light aircraft waiting to take-off behind a large aircraft ahead of you, which is in the 'upper medium' category. You are departing from the same position. What is the UK wake vortex separation minima for this situation?
2 mins
64
Prior to evacuating the aircraft following an emergency landing off-airport, you should first ensure:
the aircraft engine is fully shut down
65
What is the status of Noise Abatement Procedures (NAPs) published by an aerodrome?
Compliance is subordinate to the safe conduct of flight
66
At night, what light signals must a glider show?
A red port light, and a green starboard light only.
67
A marshaller stretches her arms in front of her, palms facing the ground, and moves them up and down several times. What request is being indicated?
Slow Down
68
A black ball suspended from a mast within the signals square of an aerodrome indicates that:
the direction of take-off and landing may be different.
69
In still air, vortices tend to move apart at approximately what speed?
5kts
70
During day, you fire a green flare from the cockpit of your aircraft whilst on approach to an aerodrome. What request are you making?
May I land in a different direction to that indicated by the landing T?
71
In addition to the lights displayed by a powered aircraft at night, an airship is additionally required to show:
a single fixed white nose light visible 110 degrees either side of dead ahead.
72
A marshaller is facing you, and is moving her left arm upward and backward. Her right arm is down, and is stationary. What should you do?
Turn to port
73
Four parallel yellow lines (two solid and two broken) are painted across the taxiway. What does this indicate?
A holding position beyond which no part of an aircraft may project without permission from ATC
74
When is a transponder required for flight outside controlled airspace?
When you are at FL100 or above
75
The airfield you are visiting has run out of AvGas, offering you MoGas as an alternative. What should you do?
Reject the offer unless you are certain that your aircraft is cleared to use MoGas
76
If your engine caught fire, burned through the mounts and then became detached from the airframe, what would the consequence be?
The aircraft would become uncontrollable.
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