OS Midterm Flashcards

(180 cards)

1
Q

What 5 things are included in the pre-op evaluation?

A

Med hx/surgical hx/meds
Diagnosis
Evaluation of X-Ray
Evaluation of pt
Disucss risks/benefits and alternatives

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2
Q

We do a pre-op evaluation to assess the ability of the pt to _________ withstand the surgical procedure; do no harm!

A

safely

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3
Q

Red flag pts (8)

A

MI/CAD
Insulin dependent DM
X-ray therapy/chemotherapy
Transplants
Bloodthinners
Steroids
Drug abuse
Bisphosphonates

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4
Q

What drug category?

Coumadin/warfarin
Pradaxa
Xarelto
Eliquis
Plavix
Aspirin

A

Bloodthinners

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5
Q

What drug category?

Fosamax
Actonel
Boniva
Reclast

A

Bisphosphonates

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6
Q

Prolia, XGEVA, and Rank Ligand inhibitors have the same complications as which drugs?

A

Bisphosphonates

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7
Q

What drug category?

Aredia
Zometa
Xgeva

A

Anti-resorptive

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8
Q

How long should you defer elective tx for MI pts?

A

6 months

(risk of death is high in the first 6 months)

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9
Q

The following management is for pts with what condition?

Consult patient’s physician
Anxiety reduction protocol
Nitro tabs/spray
Supplemental oxygen
Limit epi used .04 mg (2 carps 2% xylo with
epi 1:100,000 )

A

Angina

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10
Q

The following management is for pts with what condition?

Consult patient’s physician
Anxiety reduction protocol
Nitro tabs/spray
Supplemental oxygen
Limit epi used .04 mg (2 carps 2% xylo with
epi 1:100,000 )
Defer elective tx for 6 months

A

MI

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11
Q

The following management is for pts with what condition?

Insulin versus non insulin
Short am appointments best
Check glucose with patients glucometer
Defer surgery until well controlled
Patient more prone to infection
Monitor for hypoglycemia

A

Diabetes

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12
Q

The following management is for pts with what condition?

Consult OB/GYN
Dental care best in 2nd trimester
Care with radiographs
Care with supine position
Medications can affect fetus

A

Pregnant

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13
Q

T/F: It is better NOT to treat than get stuck in
the middle…halfway into a surgical
procedure and NOT be able to finish

A

True

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14
Q

Roots (number, configuration, conical, fused, dilacerated)
Prior RCT
Bone support
Proximity to adjacent structures (IAN, sinus)
Restorations on adjacent teeth

A

Evaluation of X-Rays

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15
Q

Allows you to inform pt of risk involved

Allows you to decide if you should perform the surgery or refer

A

Evaluation of X-Rays

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16
Q

T/F: Beware of the third molars…they can be
very deceptive and difficult. I would prefer
that you extract 100 plus teeth before even
attempting your first wisdom tooth
removal

A

True

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17
Q

Beware of _______ teeth because they tend to be brittle and come out in multiple pieces

A

RCT

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18
Q

Dr. Kushner says this is a clinical pearl

A

Glucometer

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19
Q

T/F: 2 vertical release flaps are rarely necessary to take a tooth out

A

True

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20
Q

Which bur is used to cut and remove bone precisely without elimination of tooth structure?

A

Round bur

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21
Q

Which bur is used to cut and section tooth structure?

A

Fissure bur

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22
Q

Which bur is used for bone contouring?

A

Specialty bur

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23
Q

Which handpiece do you use to cut bone/teeth?

A

Slow speed

(never with high speed air rotor, can lead to air emphysema)

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24
Q

Use ___________ forceps to gently handle tissue and avoid crushing injury

A

toothed

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25
Irrigate with ___________ when cutting bone
saline
26
Area that remains devoid of tissue or functional clot after wound closure
Dead space
27
What can dead space result in?
Hematoma (can result in wound breakdown and infection)
28
Removal of necrotic or injured tissue, debris, foreign substances
Debridement
29
Irrigation is best done with what solution?
Saline
30
In infection cases, _________ is the solution
Dilution (irrigate!)
31
T/F: You should suture from free to attached tissue (buccal to lingual)
True
32
How long to ice face after extraction to minimize edema?
24-48 hours
33
What can we do during the procedure to minimize edema?
Gentle handling of tissue
34
What type of edema? Soft Normal temp Tx: Ice Pressure Steroids
Traumatic edema
35
What type of edema? Hard Hot Erythematous Tx: Antibiotics Monitor vital signs Labs
Infectious edema
36
T/F: Edema is physiologic, not pathologic
True
37
What should there NOT be on wound closure?
Tension
38
Which instrument is an oral surgeon's best friend?
9 molt periosteal
39
Which instrument loosens soft tissue attachments from teeth?
Woodsen elevator
40
Which instrument is used to elevation full thickness mucoperiosteal flaps?
9 molt periosteal
41
Which instrument is used to retract soft tissue flaps and protect?
Seldin elevator (larger than periosteal elevators)
42
Which instrument is used to retract the cheek and soft tissue flaps?
Minnesota retractor (used at ULSD) Lind retractor Austin retractor
43
Which instrument is used to retract the tongue?
Weider or "sweetheart"
44
Which instrument is actually used to clamp vessels?
Hemostat
45
What instrument is often used for removal of debris from oral cavity and grasping of soft tissue that is going to be excised?
Hemostat
46
Which instrument is useful for blunt dissection of soft tissues (like in I&D procedures)?
Hemostat
47
What instrument has long, delicate beaks that can be curved or straight?
Hemostat
48
T/F: Cotton pliers are used to handle soft tissue
FALSE They are only used to grab items from tray or prepare packing materials
49
Which instrument is used to hold soft tissue?
Adson forceps Geralds forceps (longer version) (can have teeth or not)
50
Which instrument is used to grasp teeth or fragments of teeth due to its large rounded ends?
Russian forceps (actually designed for soft tissue)
51
Which instrument is used to remove soft tissue like cysts or follicles from the bone?
Molt curettes
52
Name the 4 instruments used to remove bone
Rongeur Bone file Osteotomes Surgical handpiece
53
Which instrument is used to remove small amounts of bone with multiple bites?
Rongeur
54
Which instrument is used to smooth bone edges?
Bone file
55
Which instruments were used to be used to remove bone and section teeth before handpieces?
Monobevel Chisel (remove bone) Bibevel Osteotome (section)
56
What instrument is used to remove bone and section teeth today?
Surgical handpiece
57
Which suction devices are most commonly used in OMFS?
Fraser tips Yankauer tips
58
Which instrument has fine teeth, the needle holder or the hemostat?
Needle holder (hemostats are ridged, would not be good to hold the needle)
59
Which scissor is used for tissue and suturing?
Dean
60
Which instruments are used to hold open the pt's mouth to support mandible and TMJ?
Bite block Molt mouth prep
61
Which instrument is used to luxate teeth and disrupt PDL fibers?
Elevator (straight elevators we use are #301 and #34)
62
What are the 3 major components of elevators?
Handle Shank Blade
63
Name the 5 types of elevators
Straight Spade Pennant ("east/west") Spoon Pick
64
Which instrument is used to extract periodontally involved teeth?
Periotome
65
What are the 3 components of extraction forceps?
Handle Hinge Beak
66
The beaks of extraction forceps are designed to move ____________ along the long axis of roots
apically
67
Extraction forceps displace the center of rotation ____________
apically
68
Which instrument has universal, semi-anatomic, and anatomic varieties?
Extraction forceps
69
What is the maxillary extraction forceps?
150 Cryer Universal
70
What is the mandibular extraction forceps?
151 Cryer Universal
71
What extraction forceps do we use for mandibular molars?
#23 Cowhorn
72
T/F: Dentures function w/ 12-15% efficiency of natural dentition
True
73
The objectives of preprosthetic surgery are to create proper ____________ structures for subsequent placement of prosthetic appliances as well as preserving this _______, particularly in younger patients for a long life with dentures or placement of implants
supporting; bone
74
What are the 3 things to consider for full dentures?
Psychological Anatomical Physiological
75
What do the following characteristics refer to? Adequate bone support “Fixed tissue” under denture No opposing undercuts Adequate ridge relationships and inter-ridge distance Broad ridges (not sharp) Adequate buccal and lingual sulci No displacing muscle attachments Adequate saliva
Ideal edentulous mouth
76
What are 4 types of surgical preps for prostheses?
Alignment of jaws Removal of teeth/roots Osseous surgery Soft tissue surgery
77
Which surgical prep for prostheses includes the following? Minor alveoplasty (sharp areas) Adequate interarch distance Eliminate opposing undercuts (path of insertion) Eliminate tori and exostoses
Osseous surgery
78
Which surgical prep for prostheses includes the following? Release freni Thin/reduce fibrous tuberosities Thin/reduce palatal fibromatosis Trim tissue w/ closure Preserve attached gingiva
Soft tissue surgery
79
Which surgery has the following options? Simple (smooth sharp edges/corners) Interradicular (intraseptal) Radical (horizontal/vertical problems, pre-radiation tx) Preserve attached gingiva
Alveoplasty
80
Remember, the position of the ________ __________ "migrates" towards the crest of the ridge in edentulous patients
mental foramen
81
What surgery is indicated by the following? Chronic irritation Inability to construct prosthesis Opposing undercuts Horizontal/vertical problems
Tori/exostoses removal
82
Which surgery has the following problems? Pneumatization of palatal tori Thin mucosa on mandibular tori
Tori/exostoses removal
83
Which surgery should you use a pressure dressing or splint for the elimination of dead space after the procedure?
Palatal torus removal
84
Always design flaps to preserve __________ _________
attached gingiva
85
Which prosthesis has the following technique? Remove all maxillary and mandibular teeth except maxillary anteriors Perform necessary osseous and soft tissue surgery After adequate healing, take impressions, registrations and construct denture Remove remaining teeth and insert CD/CD Reline after major remodeling occurs (1 – 6 months)
Immediate/interim denture
86
Which prosthesis has the following potential problems? Bone trim difficult or impossible without clear template or trimmed model Fewer teeth extracted the better it works Think about tori, exostoses & freni Keep “stickum” handy
Immediate/interim denture
87
What are the 2 methods for improving the existing ridge?
Osseous Soft tissue
88
Which method for improving the existing ridge? Removal of knife edge or saw-tooth ridges Removal of lingual balconies Lowering of mental foramina Releasing IAN from canal Bone grafts and bone graft substitutes
Osseous
89
Which method for improving the existing ridge? Removal of hyperplastic tissue (epuli) Reposition of muscle attachments Provide more fixed
Soft tissue
90
Generalized hyperplastic enlargement of mucosa and fibrous tissue in the alveolar ridge and vestibular area
Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia (Epulis fissuratum)
91
Typically results from denture irritation
Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
92
Hyperplastic tissue in the palate seen as the result of mechanical irritation in patients who wear prosthetic appliances, have poor OH, use tobacco, or have fungal infections
Papillary hyperplasia of the palate
92
Early lesion will respond to non-surgical tx in the form of tissue conditioning (soft liner), but once extensive fibrosis has occurred, must be excised
Inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia
93
When do you write for an antibiotic?
Visible swelling of face (intraorally or extraorally) Pus coming out of the socket Immunosuppressed pt with infection
94
What is the format for writing a prescription?
Medication Strength Quantity Instructions
95
Which technique? Minimizes wound contamination by pathogenic microbes Use sterile or clean technique Gown, cap, gloves, and mask are utilized Once you start, do not touch anything outside the sterile operative field
Aseptic technique
96
Which technique? Designed to protect the patient from “bugs” of others and yourself (and staff) from the patient’s
Aseptic technique
97
What are the 3 basic surgical necessities?
Access Light Visibility
98
Incisions heal ______ to ______, not end to end
side to side
99
When making an incision, use a sharp blade #_____
15
100
When making an incision, use a _____ grasp with firm continuous stroke. No hesitation cuts
pen
101
When making an incision, cut ____________ to mucosa
perpendicular
102
What are the 2 blood/vascular supply patterns?
Random Axial
103
Which blood/vascular supply pattern? Base must be wider than apex
Random
104
Which blood/vascular supply pattern? Depend on dermal (or submucosal) plexus since there is not a specific vascular supplying
Random
105
Which blood/vascular supply pattern? These are flaps with a specific blood supply
Axial
106
Which blood/vascular supply pattern? Apex may be wider because there is a specific blood supply
Axial
107
What are the flap designs?
Random pattern Envelope Envelope w/ vertical 2 verticals
108
The proper care of flaps includes: Proper design Careful retraction (_______ tissue handling) Debridement Hemostasis Elimination of dead space Close without __________ Suture line over sound _______
gentle; tension; bone
109
What handpiece do you use to cut bone/teeth?
Slow speed
110
Why do we NEVER cut bone/teeth with a high speed handpiece?
Air emphysema
111
What bur do we use to cut bone?
Round bur
112
What bur do we use to cut teeth?
Fissure bur
113
When cutting bone/teeth, use continuous ___________, we do not want to burn the bone
irrigation
114
What do the following help with? Local anesthesia infiltration Direct pressure Ligation of vessels Electrocautery Pressure dressing Hemostatic agents: collagen, cellulose, wax Pro-coagulants: thrombin, TXA, … etc
Hemostasis
115
What do the following help with? Suture similar tissue planes together (layered closure) Pressure dressing for 12-18 hours (fibrin formation) Open packing of cavity Filling dead space with PRP,PRF, antibiotic solution, bone substitutes Drains: suction and gravity
Eliminating dead space
116
T/F: Saline with antibiotic has NOT been proven to be more helpful
True
117
What type of needle do we use to suture?
3/8 circle reverse cutting
118
What are the 5 possible suture materials?
Silk Gut PGA Nylon Vicryl
119
What position the chair be in when preparing for ext?
"V" (prevents pt from sliding off)
120
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Slow, weak pulse Drop in BP and HR Decrease in or loss of consciousness
Syncope
121
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Place supine with head lower than heart Loosen tight clothing around the neck Cool towel on forehead Oxygen Ammonia inhalant
Syncope
122
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Anxiety induced rapid and deep breathing
Hyperventilation syndrome
123
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Position patient comfortably Attempt to “talk patient down” Elevate CO2 levels by rebreathing IV sedation Call EMS if carpopedal tetany, seizures or unconsciousness occurs
Hyperventilation syndrome
124
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Tightness of chest, sensation of constriction Sensation of “weight” on chest Dyspepsia / indigestion Pain radiating to neck / jaw / arms
Angina
125
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Position patient comfortably Oxygen Nitroglycerin (administer up to 3 doses at 2 – 5 minute intervals) Call EMS after third dose or sooner if clinical symptoms warrant
Angina
126
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Rapid pulse Normal or decreased BP Increased RR with shallow respirations Hunger Dizziness, weakness, mental confusion, irritability Nausea/vomiting LOC
Hypoglycemia
127
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Conscious patient: oral sugar Unconscious patient: 50% Dextrose IV – 20-30 cc for children – 50 cc for adults
Hypoglycemia
128
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Itching Swelling of face, hands, eyelids, etc. Rash or hives Nasal congestion, sneezing, respiratory difficulty
Allergic rxn
129
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Mild reaction = immediate physician referral Moderate reaction = oral Benadryl, immediate physician referral Severe reaction = IM Benadryl, consult w/ physician, prepare to tx anaphylaxis
Allergic rxn
130
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Urticaria and development of rash Anxiety and restlessness Respiratory difficulty / wheezing Cyanosis, rapid and weak pulse Severe drop in BP Cardiac arrythmia and arrest
Anaphylaxis
131
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Epinephrine Repeat after 5 minutes if ineffective Place patient supine Benadryl IM Oxygen Emergency airway
Anaphylaxis
132
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Tonic-Clonic convulsions LOC Oozing of saliva
Grand mal seizure
133
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Trance like state Flickering of eyelids Twitching of mouth
Petit mal seizure
134
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Keep patient away from equipment (may need to place on floor to prevent him from injuring himself) Observe patient until he returns to normal state Airway control
Seizure
135
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Excessive thirst Frequent urination Malaise Loss of apetite Fruity breath Nausea Vertigo Coma
Diabetic ketoacidosis
136
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Get emergency help Oxygen Keep patient warm Basic life support
Diabetic ketoacidosis
137
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Wheezing with prolonged expirations Normal or elevated BP Cyanosis
Asthma attack
138
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Patient’s own inhaler Oxygen If no inhaler or if ineffective, epinephine Keep patient semi-erect
Asthma attack
139
Which medical emergency has the following symptoms? Weakness Pallor Perspiration Weak and rapid pulse Hypotension
Addisonian crisis
140
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Oxygen CPR Get help IV solu-cortef
Addisonian crisis
141
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Initial excitement with apprehension, anxiety, tremors, rapid breathing Subsequent depression with stupor, LOC, weak and rapid pulse, weak and rapid respirations, cyanosis, drop in BP, shock
LA toxicity
142
Which medical emergency has the following tx? Place supine Oxygen Monitor vitals CPR Anticonvulsants
LA toxicity
143
Papillary hyperplasia of the palate is an ______________ ___________, it is NOT neoplastic
inflammatory process
144
Tx includes superficial removal if tissue conditioning is unsuccessful
Papillary hyperplasia of the palate
145
Creating more fixed tissue using skin, mucosa, or dermis as a graft
Vestibuloplasty
146
These techniques have a 50% relapse in the maxilla and a 90% relapse in the mandible
Vestibuloplasty
147
Can often be done in conjunction w/ removal of epuli
Vestibuloplasty
148
The need for post-op medication should be thought of ________ in the treatment plan…..not as an afterthought
early
149
T/F: The majority of mild and even some moderate dental pain can be managed with nonprescription or OTC medication
True
150
What type of analgesics? NSAIDs Acetaminophen Aspirin Tylenol w/ codeine
Mild
151
What type of analgesics? Hydrocodone Ultram/ultracet
Moderate
152
What type of analgesics? Oxycodone Morphine Demerol Oxycontin Fentanyl
Potent
153
What does KASPER stand for?
Kentucky All Scheduled Prescription Electronic Reporting
154
You must request Kasper for which drugs?
Class II drugs
155
T/F: You need Kasper for tylenol #3
FALSE (it is not a class II drug)
156
T/F: You need Kasper for hydrocodone
True!
157
T/F: You can call in class II drugs
FALSE (you must request Kasper)
158
How long is Kasper good for?
30 days
159
You can write a _____ day supply of narcotics after a surgical procedure
3
160
What type of infection is most common?
Mixed (anaerobic and aerobic organisms)
161
What are the 4 signs of infection?
Dolor (pain) Rubor (redness) Calor (heat) Tumor (swelling)
162
What are the following symptoms associated with? Dysphagia Odynophagia Stridor Dysphonia Dehydration Fever, fatigue, malaise Trismus Inability to handle secretions
Infection
163
What are the 3 things for a "recipe of infection"?
Portal of entry Virulence Host resistance
164
What are 3 portals of entry for bacteria to cause an infection?
Dental disease Trauma Iatrogenic
165
Which portal of entry? Perio Caries
Dental disease
166
Which portal of entry? Dentoalveolar Fracture Soft tissue damage
Trauma
167
Which portal of entry? Needle tract Endo files Burs
Iatrogenic
168
What are the common reasons for being immunocompromised?
HIV Diabetes Corticosteroids DMARDs Anti-rejection drugs
169
Potential spaces; act as barriers to limit spread of infection in soft tissues
Fascial spaces
170
Can communicate freely, allowing spread of infection from one to another
Fascial spaces
171
Lend themselves to prediction of routes of spread and drainage along strict anatomic lines
Fascial spaces
172
Which fascial space infection is associated with the following signs/symptoms? Pain Swelling Trismus Fluctuance Induration Drainage
Masticator space
173
What are the 5 principles of treating an infection?
1. Maintain airway 2. Remove etiology (involved tooth, etc) 3. Establish drainage through socket or I&D 4. Support systemically (antibiotics, fluids) 5. Post-op care (rinses, follow-ups)
174
What are 4 common difficulties of treating an infection?
LA doesn't work as well Less access (due to swelling, trismus, guarding) Concern for airway Pts in pain are hyperactive/hyperacute
175
Dosing schedule for Amoxicillin
Amoxicillin 500 TID
176
Dosing schedule for Pen VK
Pen VK 500 QID
177
Dosing schedule for Augmentin
Augmentin 875 BID
178
Dosing schedule for Clindamycin
Clindamycin 300 QID
179
What are the 5 things to remember when treating an infection?
Remove the source Drain the pus Change environment Consider antibiotics Refer early if outside comfort level for tx