1
Q
Minimum age to get a remote pilot license
A
16
2
Q
Must report an accident to FAA within ___ calendar days of operation that results in serious injury or property damage over $____
A
10, $500
3
Q
Must pass recurrent test every ___ months
A
24
4
Q
A small UA weighs
A
less than 55 lbs
5
Q
You have ___ days to notify FAA of change of address
A
30
6
Q
Commercial aircraft registration costs $___ and is good for ___ years
A
$5, 3
7
Q
If UA weighs 55 lbs or more it must be registered using the FAA’s __________
A
paper-based registration process
8
Q
Minimum age to register a UAS
A
13
9
Q
Max groundspeed of UAS
A
87 knots or 100 mph
10
Q
Minimum visibility for flying UA
A
3 statute miles
11
Q
UA must be at least ___ft below clouds and at least ____ft horizontally from clouds
A
500 below, 2000 horizontal
12
Q
Max height of UA
A
400’ AGL
13
Q
If UA is flown within a ___ft radius of a structure, the max height is ___ft above the structures uppermost limit
A
400’ radius, 400’ above structure
14
Q
Evening civil twilight is
A
the period of sunset until 30 min after sunset
15
Q
Morning civil twilight is
A
the period of 30 min prior to sunrise until sunrise
16
Q
If you’re flying in one of the two 30-min civil twilight periods your aircraft must be equipped with anti-collision lights capable of being visible for at least ___ miles in all directions.
A
3 miles
17
Q
Blood alcohol level needs to be less than ___% to fly a UAV
A
0.04%
18
Q
At least __ hours need to pass between drinking alcohol and piloting a UA or taking part as a crew member
A
8 hrs
19
Q
It takes __ hrs for 1 mixed drink to go through the body
A
3 hrs
20
Q
If there is any doubt regarding the effects of medication contact _________
A
Aviation Medical Examiner (AME)
21
Q
Look here to get more info on the effects of over the counter meds on flying
A
Aeromedical Factors chapter of the Pilot Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge
22
Q
Rule #1 in any sUAS flight emergency
A
Maintain control of your aircraft
23
Q
[-25] means Class D airspace from the surface
A
up to but not including 2500’ MSL
24
Q
When a Class D airport tower is not in operation, one of the following becomes
applicable
A
a) Class E surface area rules or; b) a combination of Class E rules to
700 feet AGL and Class G rules to the surface.
25
you only need authorization to fly in Class E airspace if it is
“within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E
airspace designated for an airport.” Class E Airspace at the surface is marked by a magenta-dotted circle or set of
lines. If it’s a Class E airport that’s surrounded by a closed off circle or circle
with small extensions, you need authorization. If it’s only an extension area, you
do not need to request authorization but should still exercise extreme caution.
26
When Class E airspace is marked with a fuzzy magenta line it starts at ____' AGL and you [do OR do not] need authorization to fly vertically into this airspace
700', DO NOT
27
If you're looking at a section of the chart without any of the colored airspace circles it's
Class G from the surface to 1200' AGL and then becomes Class E.
28
Prohibited areas are marked with a __ and flying [is/isn't] allowed
P, ISN'T
29
Restricted areas are marked with a __ and flying [is/isn't] allowed
R-#, is allowed with specific permission
30
In a restricted area, you might find
unusual, often invisible, hazards
| to aircraft like artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles
31
Warning areas are similar to restricted areas but marked with a
W
32
Military Operations Areas are marked with ___. To find out if it's hot refer to ______.
MOA, border of the Sectional Chart and then contact controlling agency for more info
33
Alert areas are depicted with an ___ and may contain _____.
A-#, a high volume of pilot
| training or an unusual type of aerial activity
34
A military training route (MTR) is used for
conducting
low-altitude, high-speed flight training at speeds in excess of 250 knots (that's
almost 300 mph). On a Sectional Chart, MTRs are identified as either IFR (IR) or
VFR (VR), followed by a number.
35
MTRs with 4 numbers denote routes flown at
1500' AGL and below
36
MTRs with 3 numbers denote routes flown
with at least 1 segment above 1500' AGL
37
A temporary flight restriction (TFR) is a restriction due to
the movement of government VIPs, special events, natural disasters, or other
unusual events
38
A Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) describes
airspace information that is time-critical
and either of a temporary nature or not sufficiently known in advance to permit
publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications
39
Visual reporting checkpoints are shown on the chart as a _____ and indicates
small magenta flag, higher volume of manned aircraft traffic
40
On a sectional chart all of the altitudes are denoted in ___ unless they are in parentheses
MSL
41
Isogonic lines indicate the magnetic variation which is defined as the
difference between true vs magnetic north
42
A maximum elevation figure (MEF) is the
minimum altitude you can fly in a given quadrangle and still be able to clear all obstacles in that quadrangle including terrain and obstructions.
43
A Victor Airway is a straight line segment that's used to depict
low altitude civilian air traffic
44
Victor airways start at a base of ___' AGL and go up to ____' MSL.
1200' AGL to 18,000' MSL. Designated Class E airspace.
45
Airport runways are labelled with numbers
1 through 36, corresponding to runways compass alignment
46
Runway 9 indicates ___ degrees magnetic and points ___
90, East
47
In an ideal flight pattern aircrafts are taking off and landing into a ____
headwind
48
A manned aircraft pilot should arrive at the proper traffic pattern altitude prior to
entering the traffic pattern. That altitude varies from airport to airport and is
available in the
chart supplement
49
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is to enter ___° at
the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
45
50
If you happen to be operating a fixed-wing unmanned aircraft and are
approaching another, similar-sized fixed-wing unmanned aircraft, both pilots
should alter course to the _____
right
51
According to the FAA, to properly scan for other aircraft in the sky, you should
systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. Imagine
quickly scanning from ____ to _____ in intervals of no more than ___° to make sure
you can efficiently cover the entire sky.
left to right, 10 degrees
52
If the color of an airport icon is blue it [does/doesn't] have a control tower
DOES
53
At sea level, standard air temperature is __ºC (__ºF), and standard air pressure
is ___” Hg, or inches of mercury (__ millibars).
15C, 59F, 29.92"Hg, 1013 mb
54
Density altitude is
the altitude at which your aircraft "feels" like it’s flying
55
Higher density altitude means
thinner air, reduced performance
56
Density altitude increases at
higher elevations, lower atmospheric pressures,
| higher temperatures, and higher humidity
57
Anywhere there is uneven heating of the Earth’s surface, you’ll find
convective
| currents
58
Updrafts are
| likely to occur over areas like
pavement or sand
59
Downdrafts often occur
| over
water or expansive areas of vegetation like a group of trees.
60
Wind shear is
a sudden, drastic change in wind speed and/or direction over a
relatively small area.
61
Wind shear can occur at
all altitudes, in all directions, and
it’s typically characterized by directional wind changes of 180° and speed
changes of 50 knots or more.
62
Always be alert to the possibility of wind shear, particularly when flying in and
around
thunderstorms, areas of low-level temperature inversion, frontal zones,
and clear air turbulence.
63
The dew point, given in degrees, is the temperature at which
the air can hold no
| more moisture, so it’s at 100% humidity.
64
As moist, unstable air rises, clouds
| often form at the altitude where
temperature and dew point reach the same
value. At this point, the air is completely saturated, and moisture begins to
condense out of the air in the form of fog, dew, frost, clouds, rain, hail, or snow.
65
Typically, when the temperature and the dew point converge, you will have
fog
66
Thunderstorms are produced by
Thunderstorms are produced by
67
Thunderstorms form when there is
1) high humidity — sufficient water vapor or moisture ; 2) unstable conditions —
an unstable lapse rate (the lapse rate describes the rate of change of the
temperature as the air increases in altitude); and 3) lifting force — an initial
upward boost to start the process (heat).
68
A squall line is
nonfrontal, narrow band of thunderstorms usually ahead of a
| cold front
69
If you see lenticular clouds, expect
turbulence
70
To pilots, the most dangerous type of cloud is a
cumulonimbus, or
| thunderstorm, cloud
71
In aviation, a ceiling is the lowest layer of clouds reported as being
broken or
| overcast, or the vertical visibility into an obscuration like fog or haze.
72
Unstable air tends to display the following characteristics
cumuliform clouds,
| turbulent air, good visibility, and showery precipitation
73
Stable air tends to display the following characteristics
stratiform clouds,
smooth air, fair-to-poor visibility in haze and smoke, and continuous
precipitation
74
The FAA recommendation is to fly at least ____ feet horizontally from skeletal
structures like radio and television towers to be clear of guy wires.
2,000
75
When a series of judgmental errors leads to a human factors-related accident,
this is sometimes referred to as the
error chain
76
Aeronautical Decision-Making (ADM) is a systematic mental approach to
consistently determine the best course of action in a given situation
77
To prevent the final "link" in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider
Risk Management.
78
Crew Resource Management (CRM) is
the effective use of all available
resources—human, hardware, software and information—prior to and during
flight to ensure the successful outcome of the operation.
79
The Common
| Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) is
a frequency
designated for pilots to communicate with each other directly, air-to-air, while
operating to or from an airport without an operating control tower.
80
UNICOM is the
nongovernment air/ground radio communication station which
may provide airport information at public use airports where there’s no tower or
FSS.
81
When there is no tower, FSS, or UNICOM station on the airport, a manned
aircraft pilot will use the ____ for self-announce procedures
MULTICOM frequency 122.9
82
The Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is
a continuous broadcast of
| recorded aeronautical information in busier airports.
83
The FAA uses Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) for all operations. The term
“___” may also be used to denote UTC.
Zulu
84
If you’re operating a fixed-wing sUAS, the ____ will control the “yaw” of that
aircraft.
rudder
85
When a fixed-wing UA is in straight-and-level, unaccelerated flight, lift equals
____ and thrust equals ____.
weight, drag
86
Load factor =
Total Load Supported by
the Aircraft’s Wings divided by the Actual Weight of the Aircraft and its
Contents
87
When your Center of Gravity is out-of-line, it becomes more difficult to recover
from a ____ and overall more difficult to control your sUAS.
stall
88
A ____ occurs when the smooth airflow over the unmanned airplane’s wing
(propellor) is disrupted, and the lift degenerates rapidly, which can ultimately
cause your aircraft to fall.
stall
89
When the ______ is exceeded, the smooth airflow over the UAs wing will be disrupted, and the lift degenerates rapidly which can ultimately cause the aircraft to fail
critical angle of attack
Part 107 Remote Pilot Exam
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