Part 16 Flashcards

(36 cards)

1
Q

Drugs to be given if STEMI is diagnosed

A

In the absence of contraindications, all patients should be given
- aspirin
- P2Y12-receptor antagonist. Clopidogrel was the first P2Y12-receptor antagonist to be widely used but now ticagrelor is often favoured as studies have shown improved outcomes compared to clopidogrel, but at the expense of slightly higher rates of bleeding. This approached is supported in SIGN’s 2016 guidelines. They also recommend that prasugrel (another P2Y12-receptor antagonist) could be considered if the patient is going to have a percutaneous coronary intervention
- unfractionated heparin is usually given for patients who’re are going to have a PCI. Alternatives include low-molecular weight heparin

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2
Q

Choice of thrombolytics in STEMI

A
  • tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) has been shown to offer clear mortality benefits over streptokinase
  • tenecteplase is easier to administer and has been shown to have non-inferior efficacy to alteplase with a similar adverse effect profile
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3
Q

Examples of tissue plasminogen activators

A

alteplase, reteplase, and tenecteplase

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4
Q

What should be done following administration thrombolysis in STEMI

A

An ECG should be performed 90 minutes following thrombolysis to assess whether there has been a greater than 50% resolution in the ST elevation
- if there has not been adequate resolution then rescue PCI is superior to repeat thrombolysis
- for patients successfully treated with thrombolysis PCI has been shown to be beneficial. The optimal timing of this is still under investigation

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5
Q

Glycaemic control in ACS

A
  • in 2011 NICE issued guidance on the management of hyperglycaemia in acute coronary syndromes
  • it recommends using a dose-adjusted insulin infusion with regular monitoring of blood glucose levels to glucose below 11.0 mmol/l
  • intensive insulin therapy (an intravenous infusion of insulin and glucose with or without potassium, sometimes referred to as ‘DIGAMI’) regimes are not recommended routinely
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6
Q

A 72-year-old man with a history of chronic heart failure secondary to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is reviewed. He was discharged two weeks ago from hospital following a myocardial infarction. An echocardiogram done during his admission showed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40% but did not demonstrate any valvular problems.

Despite his current treatment with furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin and simvastatin he remains short of breath on minimal exertion such as walking 30 metres. On examination his chest is clear and there is minimal peripheral oedema. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Stop aspirin
Refer for cardiac resynchronisation therapy
Switch carvedilol to bisoprolol
Add angiotensin-2 receptor blocker
Add an aldosterone antagonist

A

Add an aldosterone antagonist

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7
Q

Mrs Layton, a 29-year-old lady presents to the emergency department one evening with hypoxia, tachypnoea and tachycardia (110bpm). She reports a sudden onset of breathlessness starting this afternoon and reports coughing up small amounts of blood. She is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), and has flown back to the UK from Australia 4 days ago. She tells you that she has an allergy to contrast medium.

On examination, she is tachypnoeic and has left sided crackles on auscultation of her chest.

Her chest x-ray shows nothing focal or acute.

You are concerned that she might have a pulmonary embolus (PE) but radiology inform you that they will not perform a V/Q scan out of hours and would need to wait until tomorrow morning for this.

Which of the following would be most appropriate next step?

  • Start the patient on treatment dose apixaban whilst awaiting a V/Q scan the next day
  • Perform a CT chest without contrast
  • Perform a CT pulmonary angiogram and give the patient fluids before and after the scan
  • Perform a CT pulmonary angiogram whilst infusing hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine
  • Start the patient on prophylactic dose low-molecular weight heparin whilst awaiting a V/Q scan the next day
A

Start the patient on treatment dose apixaban whilst awaiting a V/Q scan the next day

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8
Q

A 54-year-old man presents with fatigue. On examination, there is a soft diastolic murmur, heard loudest in the second intercostal space on the right. He has a blood pressure of 162/65 mmHg.

What is the most likely cause of the murmur? What would each of these sound like

Aortic regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Mitral stenosis
Pulmonary regurgitation

A

Aortic regurgitation - wide pulse pressure

Aortic stenosis would present with a systolic murmur with narrow pulse pressure

Mitral regurgitation would present with a systolic murmur loudest over the mitral valve.

Mitral stenosis would present with a diastolic murmur but it would be loudest over the mitral valve and would not have the characteristic wide pulse pressure.

Pulmonary regurgitation would present with a diastolic murmur but it would be the loudest over the 2nd intercostal space on the left and would not have the wide pulse pressure.

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9
Q

Areas of auscultation

A

Ao(R)tic: to the right
Pu(L)monary: to the left
T(R)icuspid: to the right (of left chest)
Mitra(L): to the left (of left chest region)

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10
Q

A 71-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an abnormal cardiac rhythm. After various unsuccessful attempts of restoring normal cardiac rhythm, the team decides to administer him a drug. After the administration, he complains of severe chest pain, which is self-limiting and terminates quickly.

What drug has this patient been given?

Adenosine
Amiodarone
Atropine
Flecainide
Glyceryl trinitrate

A

Adenosine

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11
Q

Mechanism of action of adenosine

A
  • causes transient heart block in the AV node
  • agonist of the A1 receptor in the atrioventricular node, which inhibits adenylyl cyclase thus reducing cAMP and causing hyperpolarization by increasing outward potassium flux
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12
Q

Half life of adenosine

A
  • adenosine has a very short half-life of about 8-10 seconds
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13
Q

How should adenosine be administered?

A

ideally be infused via a large-calibre cannula due to it’s short half-life, followed by a flush and raising arm

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14
Q

Side effects of adenosine

A
  • Transient flushing or feeling warm
  • Chest pain (which can be intense)
  • Bronchospasm
  • can enhance conduction down accessory pathways, resulting in increased ventricular rate (e.g. WPW syndrome)
  • arryhtmias
  • Dry mouth
  • Dyspnea
  • Feeling of impending doom/ death
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15
Q

Drugs that can enhance o block effects of adenosine

A

The effects of adenosine are enhanced by dipyridamole (antiplatelet agent) and blocked by theophyllines

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16
Q

Antimuscarinics side effects

A

Common or very common
Constipation; dizziness;blurred vision, urinary retention, drowsiness; dry mouth; dyspepsia; flushing; headache; nausea; palpitations; skin reactions; tachycardia; urinary disorders; vision disorders; vomiting

Rare or very rare
Angioedema; confusion (more common in elderly)

17
Q

Side effects of atropine

A

visual sensitivity to light, blurred vision, dry eyes, hyperthermia, movement disorders, speech disorders, abdominal distension, taste loss, dysphagia, dry mouth, constipation, and decreased sweating

18
Q

A 72-year-old woman with a 30 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes for review. She was diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (secondary to diabetes) 8 years ago and has seen declining renal function since. Her current medication includes ramipril 10mg od, amlodipine 10mg od, simvastatin 40mg on and Novomix 30 insulin bd.

Her most recent renal function tests show the following:

Na+ 139 mmol/l
K+ 5.3 mmol/l
Urea 10.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 123 µmol/l
eGFR 40 ml/min/1.73m²

Blood pressure in clinic is 156/88 mmHg and this is confirmed on a second reading. What should be done regarding her blood pressure medication?

Add bisoprolol
Add indapamide
Add doxazosin
Add spironolactone
Add an angiotensin II receptor blocker

A

Add indapamide

19
Q

A 35-year-old man is on the acute medical unit with a new diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. He is on cardiac monitoring, and the emergency buzzer is pulled after he is noted to become very tachycardic. An ECG shows a regular, broad complex tachycardia. The patient has a GCS of 15, blood pressure is 123/81mmHg and he reports feeling well.

What is the most appropriate management?

Defibrillation
IV adenosine
IV amiodarone
IV atropine
Synchronised cardioversion

A

IV amiodarone

20
Q

A 63-year-old man attends GP for a hypertension review. His home readings show that his average blood pressure is currently 164/98mmHg. He feels generally well in himself, clinical examination is normal and previous investigations have shown no obvious underlying cause for his hypertension.

Recent blood tests are as follows;

Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 88 µmol/L (55 - 120)

He is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide.

Which would be the most appropriate medication to add for management of this patient’s hypertension?

Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker
Furosemide
Hydralazine
Indapamide
Spironolactone

A

Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

21
Q

A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents to his GP for a health review. He works as an accountant and reports being in good health over the last few months with no illnesses. His past medical history includes hypertension for which he is taking ramipril 10mg daily. There is no history of allergies.

His ambulatory blood pressure readings showed serial measurements of 156/90mmHg, 161/92mmHg and 158/91mmHg.

What is the next most appropriate step in the management of this patient?

Doxazosin
Increase ramipril dose
Indapamide
Losartan
Spironolactone

22
Q

You are doing a medication review on a 79-year-old man. His current medications include aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol and co-codamol. Which one of the following is it most important to avoid prescribing concurrently?

Colchicine
Digoxin
Simvastatin
Tramadol
Atenolol

23
Q

Side effects of beta blockers

A
  • bronchospasm
  • cold peripheries
  • fatigue
  • sleep disturbances, including
  • nightmares
  • erectile dysfunction
24
Q

Contraindications to beta blockers

A

uncontrolled heart failure
asthma
sick sinus syndrome
concurrent verapamil use: may precipitate severe bradycardia

25
Indications of beta blockers
Indications angina post-myocardial infarction heart failure arrhythmias atrial fibrillation hypertension infarction. thyrotoxicosis migraine prophylaxis anxiety
26
A 62-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 3-month history of headaches. She has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medications. Her blood pressure is 168/102 mmHg, confirmed on ambulatory blood pressure monitoring with an average of 155/98 mmHg. Her BMI is 28 kg/m². Blood tests show total cholesterol 6.2 mmol/L and HDL 1.1 mmol/L. Her QRisk3 score is calculated as 15%. What is the most appropriate first-line management? - Amlodipine, atorvastatin, and lifestyle advice - Ramipril, atorvastatin, and lifestyle advice - Bendroflumethiazide, atorvastatin, and lifestyle advice - Amlodipine, lifestyle advice, and review in 3 months - Ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, and lifestyle advice
Amlodipine, atorvastatin, and lifestyle advice is the correct management for this patient. According to NICE guidelines, patients aged 55 years or older with stage 2 hypertension (clinic BP ≥160/100 mmHg and ABPM average ≥150/95 mmHg) should be started on a calcium channel blocker (CCB) such as amlodipine as first-line therapy. This patient is 62 years old with confirmed stage 2 hypertension (168/102 mmHg in clinic and 155/98 mmHg on ABPM). Age is a key determinant in the choice of initial antihypertensive therapy, with CCBs being more effective in older patients. Additionally, with a QRisk3 score of 15%, which indicates a high 10-year cardiovascular risk (>10%), statin therapy with atorvastatin is indicated for primary prevention. Lifestyle advice including salt reduction, weight loss, increased physical activity, and moderation of alcohol intake is essential alongside pharmacological management.
27
One of your elderly patients is admitted to hospital with digoxin toxicity. Which one of her other medications is most likely to have precipitated this? Doxycycline Aspirin Diltiazem Atorvastatin Bisoprolol
Diltiazem may cause precipitation of digoxin toxicity It significantly reduces the renal and non-renal clearance of digoxin, leading to increased serum digoxin concentrations. Additionally, diltiazem can reduce digoxin secretion in the renal tubules. The combination of these mechanisms can result in digoxin levels rising by 20-50%, potentially leading to toxicity, particularly in elderly patients who may already have reduced renal function.
28
You are reviewing the results of an ambulatory blood pressure monitor (ABPM) for a 67-year-old man with suspected hypertension. In the meantime you have arranged an ECG, blood tests and a urine dipstick, all of which have been within normal limits. His 10-year cardiovascular risk is 8% according to QRISK. The ABPM results show an average daytime reading of 146/92 mmHg. What is the most appropriate course of action? Start treatment with a calcium channel blocker Start treatment with a thiazide-like diuretic Start treatment with an ACE inhibitor Repeat the ABPM Diagnose stage 1 hypertension and advise about lifestyle changes
Diagnose stage 1 hypertension and advise about lifestyle changes This patient therefore has stage 1 hypertension. As they are < 80 years they should be considered for treatment but as their 10-year cardiovascular risk if < 10% no action is needed
29
A 51-year-old man presents four weeks after being discharged from hospital. He had been admitted with chest pain and thrombolysed for a myocardial infarction. This morning he developed marked tongue and facial swelling. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible? Atorvastatin Isosorbide mononitrate Atenolol Aspirin Ramipril
Ramipril
30
Mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors
inhibits the conversion angiotensin I to angiotensin II → decrease in angiotensin II levels → to vasodilation and reduced blood pressure → decrease in angiotensin II levels → reduced stimulation for aldosterone release → decrease in sodium and water retention by the kidneys - renoprotective mechanism: * angiotensin II constricts the efferent glomerular arterioles * ACE inhibitors therefore lead to dilation of the efferent arterioles → reduced glomerular capillary pressure → decreased mechanical stress on the delicate filtration barriers of the glomeruli * this is particularly important in diabetic nephropathy
31
How are ACE inhibitors activated?
ACE inhibitors are activated by phase 1 metabolism in the liver
32
A 79-year-old woman is reviewed. She has taken bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg od for the past 10 years for hypertension. Her current blood pressure is 150/94 mmHg. Clinical examination is otherwise unremarkable. An echocardiogram from two months ago is reported as follows: Ejection fraction 38%, moderate left ventricular hypertrophy. Minimal MR noted What is the most appropriate next step in management? - Increase bendroflumethiazide to 5mg od - Stop bendroflumethiazide + start frusemide 40mg od - Add ramipril 1.25mg od - Stop bendroflumethiazide + start ramipril 1.25mg od - Add amlodipine 5mg od
Add ramipril 1.25mg od
33
Whilst at a restaurant you notice a middle-aged man starting to cough and splutter. You go over to him and ask him if he is choking. He responds that he thinks it was a bit of steak 'going down the wrong way'. What is the most appropriate first-step? Call for an ambulance Give up to 5 abdominal thrusts Encourage him to cough Give up to 5 back-blows Take any loose fitting dentures out
The correct answer in this scenario is to encourage him to cough. Since the man is able to speak and cough, it indicates that his airway is not completely obstructed. Encouraging him to cough can help to clear the obstruction and resolve the choking episode. This should be done before attempting more invasive techniques or calling an ambulance
34
Choking management
- The first step is to ask the patient 'Are you choking?' - If the victim speaks, answers yes, coughs, and is able to breath, then this indicates partial airway obstruction, likely mild - If the victim is unable to speak, responds by nodding, unable to breath, breathing sounds wheezy, attempts at coughing are silent, or is unconscious, this indicates severe airway obstruction - If mild airway obstruction, encourage the patient to cough, if not helping, attempt more invasive maneuvers - If severe airway obstruction and is conscious: give up to 5 back-blows if unsuccessful give up to 5 abdominal thrusts if unsuccessful continue the above cycle If unconscious call for an ambulance start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
35
A 62-year-old man is admitted with palpitations. He has no chest pain, physical examination is normal apart from tachycardia and he is haemodynamically stable. Cardiac monitoring shows a regular, monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia. A 12-lead electrocardiogram does not show any features of myocardial ischaemia. His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus and previous percutaneous coronary intervention to his left anterior descending, right coronary and circumflex arteries. Which of the following management options is contraindicated in this scenario? Adenosine Amiodarone Magnesium sulphate Vagal manoeuvres Verapamil
The correct answer is verapamil. The most likely diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia (VT). Verapamil is contraindicated in VT as intravenous administration of a calcium channel blocker can precipitate cardiac arrest.
36
Drugs contraindicated in VT
AV nodal blockage (verapamil, beta blocker etc) of conductions originating in the ventricles is contraindicated as it can cause ventricular fibrillation