part 5 Flashcards

(46 cards)

1
Q

How is gestational diabetes managed (2)?

A
  • Fasting glucose > 7 or 6-7 with complications e.g. macrosomia = insulin +/- metformin
  • Fasting glucose 5.6 - 7 = lifestyle for 1-2 weeks, then metformin
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2
Q

Why is up to date retinal screening important before pregnancy?

A

Glycaemic control rapidly improves at the start of pregnancy due to intensive treatment –> paradoxical worsening of diabetic retinopathy

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3
Q

What is conus medullaris?

A

Compression higher, above the cauda equina
pain is uncommon, symptoms usually symmetrical

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4
Q

Where does CSF flow in the brain (2)?

A
  • Subarachnoid space
  • Ventricles
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5
Q

What two drugs can be used to treat neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A
  • Dantrolene
  • Bromocriptine
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6
Q

How do you calculate the anion gap?

A

(Na + K) - (Cl + HCO3)

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7
Q

What could be seen on a blood gas in those given large volumes of saline?

A

Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

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8
Q

What is the name of the criteria for a screening programme?

A

Wilson and jugner criteria

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9
Q

What are the classical features of croup (5)?

A
  • Barking cough
  • Stridor
  • Fever
  • Coryzal Sx
  • Hoarse voice
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10
Q

What is the dose of dexamethasone for croup?

A

0.15mg/ kg

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11
Q

What is an important criteria requiring admission for croup?

A

Stridor at rest

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12
Q

When does pyloric stenosis usually present?

A

2-4 weeks

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13
Q

Other than exertion, what are some triggers for angina (3)?

A
  • Strong emotions (e.g. anger/ excitement)
  • Lying down (decubitus angina)
  • Cold weather
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14
Q

How does aspirin work?

A

COX 1+2 inhibitor –> thromboxane A2 inhibition –> reduced ability for platelets to aggregate

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15
Q

What is considered to be confused on the CURB-65 score?

A

Abbreviated mental test score </= 8

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16
Q

Why are 4 drugs used to target TB?

A

Prevent antibiotic resistance

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17
Q

How is SIADH treated with medications?

A
  • Demeclocycline
  • Tolvaptan (ADH receptor antagonist)
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18
Q

How is serum osmolality calculated?

A

2 x Na + glucose + urea

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19
Q

Where is vitamin D hydroxylated (2)?

20
Q

What is the name of bone disease in those with renal failure?

A

Renal osteodystrophy

21
Q

What are some precipitants for gout (6)?

A
  • Starting bendroflumethiazide
  • Alcohol
  • Purine rich foods
  • Trauma
  • Infection
  • Dehydration
22
Q

What are some common causes of reactive arthritis (4)?

A
  • Chlamydia trachomatis
  • Salmonella
  • Campylobacter
  • Shigella
23
Q

What is myeloma?

A

Neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells

24
Q

What are the features of myeloma (6)?

A
  • Calcium raised
  • Renal ( AKI/ light chain deposition)
  • Anaemia
  • Bleeding
  • Bone pain
  • Infection (increased risk)
25
What node is commonly affected in tonsillitis?
Jugulodigastric node
26
What is considered a massive blood transfusion?
> 10 units blood/ entire circulating volume within 24 hours
27
What are some late complications of a blood transfusion (3)?
* Iron overload * Graft vs host disease * Infection
28
What is the pathway/ anatomy of the optic nerve to the brain?
Optic nerve --> optic chiasm --> optic tract --> lateral geniculate body --> optic radiation --> visual cortex
29
How is carpal tunnel syndrome managed (3)?
* Wrist splint * Corticosteroid injections * Carpal tunnel release
30
Where are the two types of inguinal hernias in relation to the inferior epigastric vessels?
* Indirect = lateral * Direct = medial
31
How is acute mesenteric ischemia managed prior to surgery (3)?
* Fluid resus * IV heparin * Antibiotics
32
What are the arteries from the femoral artery to the aorta?
Common femoral artery --> external iliac artery --> common iliac artery --> aorta
33
What is becks triad?
* Hypotension * Raised JVP * Muffled heart sounds
34
How quickly are pneumothorax reabsorbed into the body?
1.25% per day
35
What are some complications of ADPKD (5)?
* SAH * Liver cysts * CKD * Hypertension * Mitral valve prolapse
36
What anticoagulant is usually used for bridging regimens/ perioperative use?
LMWH
37
How should patients with 2 unprovoked DVTs be managed?
Usually lifelong anticoagulation
38
What are the two signs in pancreatitis?
* Cullens = bruising around belly button * Grey-turners = bruising along flanks
39
What is the difference in presentation between left and right sided bowel cancer (2)?
* Left = PR bleeding, change in bowel habit, * Right = more insidious (weight loss, fatigue, anaemia)
40
What are the two inherited causes of colon cancer?
* Familial adenomatous polyposis * **Hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer**
41
How is colon cancer staged?
Dukes classification
42
What are 3 causes of midline neck lumps?
* Thyroglossal cysts * Goitre * Dermoid cyst
43
How is postpartum haemorrhage managed (8)?
1. A-E 2. Uterine massage 3. Oxytocin 4. Ergometrine (unless hypertensive) 5. Carboprost (unless asthma) 6. Misoprostol (sublingual) 7. Intrauterine balloon tamponade/ B-lynch suture/ hysterectomy * Tanexamic acid early on
44
What muscles maintain continence in females (2)?
* Pelvic floor * External urethral sphincter
45
How can incontinence be investigated?
Urodynamics
46