Part 91

Question 1

1. Discuss 14 CFR §91.3, “Responsibility and authority of the pilot in command.” (14 CFR 91.3, 121.533)

Answer 1

The PIC of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.
Under 14 CFR §121.533, the PIC of an aircraft is, during flight time, in command of the aircraft and crew and
is responsible for the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and airplane. The PIC has full control
and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation, over other crewmembers and their duties
during flight time, whether or not he or she holds valid certificates authorizing him or her to perform the

duties of those crewmembers.

Question 2

2. 14 CFR §91.9 requires that a current, approved AFM be available onboard the aircraft for guidance to the flight crew during flight operations. Is there an approved substitute for the AFM in a Part 121 or 135 operation?

Answer 2

Yes, Operators may use either the approved AFM or they may develop, obtain approval for, and use a
company flight manual (CFM). A CFM is an approved aircraft flight manual that is developed by, or for, a
specific operator for a specific aircraft type and that is approved by the principle operations inspector (POI),
in accordance with the provisions of §121.141(b) or §135.81(c).

Question 3

4. May portable electronic devices be operated onboard an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.21, 121.306)

Answer 3

Aircraft operated by a holder of an air carrier operating certificate or an aircraft operating under IFR may
not allow operation of electronic devices onboard their aircraft. Exceptions are: portable voice recorders,
hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other device that the operator of the aircraft has
determined will not cause interference with the navigation or communication system of the aircraft on
which it is to be used.

Question 4

3. A pilot may not act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if they have consumed alcohol within
   8 hours or have a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater. If you meet these requirements, are you safe
   to fly? (14 CFR 91.17, AIM 8-1-1)

Answer 4

The regulations prohibit pilots from performing crewmember duties within 8 hours after drinking any
alcoholic beverage or while under the influence of alcohol. However, due to the slow destruction of alcohol, a
pilot may still be under its influence 8 hours after drinking a moderate amount of alcohol.

An excellent rule to follow is to always allow at least 12 to 24 hours from “bottle to throttle,” depending on
the amount of alcoholic beverage consumed.

Note: As a flight crewmember, your employer may have established more restrictive requirements
concerning fitness for duty. Some airlines now require their flight crewmembers to refrain from drinking

alcohol at least 12 hours before they report for work.

Question 5

5. What information must a pilot-in-command be familiar with before a flight? (14 CFR 91.103)

Answer 5

For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, all available information including:
NOTAMs

Weather reports and forecasts

Known ATC traffic delays

Runway lengths at airports of intended use

Alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed
Fuel requirements

Takeoff and landing performance data

Question 6

6. What are the right-of-way rules pertaining to IFR flights? (14 CFR 91.113)

Answer 6

When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is under IFR or VFR, vigilance shall be
maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.

Question 7

7. What is the maximum speed allowed when operating inside Class B airspace, under 10,000 feet and within a
   Class D surface area? (14 CFR 91.117)

Answer 7

Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 feet
above the surface within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated
airspeed of more than 200 knots. This restriction does not apply to operations conducted within a Class B
airspace area. Such operations shall comply with the “below 10,000 feet MSL” restriction: “No person shall
operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL, at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 knots.”

Question 8

8. When operating beneath the lateral limits of Class B airspace, or in a VFR corridor designated through Class B
   airspace, what maximum speed is authorized? (14 CFR 91.117)

Answer 8

No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area designated for an
airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more
than 200 knots (230 MPH).

Question 9

9. What aircraft speed limits are permitted in the following areas? (14 CFR 91.117)
   Turbine-powered, below 10,000 feet MSL?
   Within Class B airspace?
   Beneath Class B airspace?
   Within Class C and D airspace?

Answer 9

a. Turbine-powered, below 10,000 feet MSL—250 knots IAS.

b. Within Class B airspace—250 knots IAS.

c. Beneath Class B airspace—200 knots IAS.

d. Within Class C and D airspace (below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 NM)—200 knots IAS.

Question 10

10. Define the term minimum safe altitude. (14 CFR 91.119)

Answer 10

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or
property on the surface.

Question 11

11, What are the minimum safe altitudes an aircraft may be operated at in the following areas? (14 CFR 91.119)

Answer 11

Congested area—no lower than 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet
of the aircraft.

Other than a congested area—no lower than 500 feet above the surface, except over open water or sparsely
populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel,
vehicle, or structure.

Open water or sparsely populated area—not closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Question 12

12. What regulations pertain to altimeter setting procedures? (14 CFR 91.121)

Answer 12

Below 18,000 feet MSL:

a. The current reported altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft.

b. If there is no station within the area described above, the current reported altimeter of an appropriate
available station.

c. In the case of an aircraft not equipped with a radio, the elevation of the departure airport or an
appropriate altimeter setting available before departure.

Note: If barometric pressure exceeds 31.00 in. Hg, set 31.00 in. Hg; at or above 18,000 feet MSL, set to 29.92

in. Hg. (see AIM 7-2-2)

Question 13

13. When may the pilot-in-command of an aircraft deviate from an ATC clearance? (14 CFR 91.123)

Answer 13

Except in an emergency, no person may, in an area in which air traffic control is exercised, operate an aircraft

Contrary to an ATC instruction.

Question 14

14. When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? (14 CFR
    91.123)

Answer 14

Each PIC who (though not deviating from a rule) is given priority by ATC in an emergency, shall submit a
detailed report of that emergency within 48 hours to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.

Question 15

15. At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine powered or large airplane required to enter the traffic pattern
    for an airport in Class D airspace? (14 CFR 91.129)

Answer 15

A large or turbine-powered airplane shall, unless otherwise required by the applicable distance-from-cloud
criteria, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least 1,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and
maintain at least 1,500 feet until further descent is required for a safe landing.

Question 16

16. At what minimum altitude is a turbine engine powered airplane approaching to land on a runway served by an
    instrument approach procedure with vertical guidance, required to operate at if the airplane is so equipped?
    (14 CFR 91.129)

Answer 16

Operate that airplane at an altitude at or above the glide path between the published final approach fix

and the decision altitude (DA), or decision height (DH), as applicable; or if compliance with the applicable
distance-from-cloud criteria requires glide path interception closer in, operate that airplane at or above the
glide path, between the point of interception of glide path and the DA or the DH.

Question 17

17. You’re in a CRJ-900, performing a visual approach into the primary airport within Class B airspace and
    have inadvertently exited Class B airspace by descending too early or at a rate steeper than the published
    instrument glide path. You’ve been cleared for the visual. Have you violated any regulations? (SAFO 17001, 14

Answer 17

Yes, you violate 14 CFR §91.131. Class B airspace is the controlled airspace surrounding the
nation’s busiest airports and §91.131 states: “Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person operating
a large turbine engine-powered airplane to or from a primary airport for which a Class B airspace area is

designated must operate at or above the designated floors of the Class B airspace area while within the
lateral limits of that area.”

Question 18

18. What are the requirements to operate within Class A airspace? (14 CFR 91.135)

Answer 18

a. Operated under IFR and in compliance with an ATC clearance received prior to entering the airspace.
b. Equipped with instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

c. Flown by a pilot rated for instrument flight.

d. Equipped with:

• A radio providing direct pilot/controller communication on the frequency specified by ATC in the area
  concerned.

+ The applicable equipment specified in 14 CFR §91.215 and §91.225 (transponder regulations and ADS-B
Out).

Question 19

19. What additional equipment is required when operating above Flight Level 240? (14 CFR 91.205)

Answer 19

If VOR navigational equipment is required (appropriate to the ground facilities to be used), no person may
operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 States and the District of Columbia at or above FL240
unless that aircraft is equipped with approved distance measuring equipment (DME) or a suitable RNAV
system.

Question 20

20. What minimum flight visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following
    situations? (14 CFR 91.155)

Class C, D, E

Answer 20

Class C, D, or E Airspace
Less than 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility—3 SM.
Cloud clearance—500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.
At or above 10,000 feet MSL:
Visibility—5 SM.

Cloud clearance—1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 SM horizontal.

Question 21

20. What minimum flight visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR flight in the following
    situations? (14 CFR 91.155)

Class G

Answer 21

1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altitude):

Day:

Visibility—1 SM.

Cloud clearance—clear of clouds.

Night:

Visibility—3 SM.

Cloud clearance—500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.
More than 1,200 feet above the surface but less than 10,000 feet MSL:

Day:

Visibility—1 statute mile

Cloud clearance—500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

Night:

Visibility—3 statute miles

Cloud clearance—500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.

More than 1,200 feet above the surface and at or above 10,000 feet MSL:

Visibility—5 statute miles

Cloud clearance—1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 SM horizontal.

Question 22

21. When operating an aircraft under VFR in level cruising flight at an altitude of more than 3,000 feet above the
    surface, what rules apply concerning specific altitudes flown? (14 CFR 91.159)

Answer 22

When operating above 3,000 feet AGL but less than 18,000 feet MSL on a magnetic course of 0° to 179°,
fly at an odd-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When on a magnetic course of 180° to 359°, fly at
an even-thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet. When operating above 18,000 feet MSL, maintain the
altitude or flight level assigned by ATC.

Question 23

22. What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions? (14 CFR 91.167)

Answer 23

The aircraft must carry enough fuel (considering weather reports, forecasts and weather conditions) to
complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and
fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

Question 24

23. What are the different methods for checking the accuracy of VOR equipment? (14 CFR 91.171)

Answer 24

a, VOT check: -+4°
b. Ground checkpoint -+ 4°

c. Airborne checkpoint: -+6°

d. Dual VOR check: 4° between each other

e. Select a radial over a known ground point: -+6°

A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only the technician performing the test can make an entry in the logbook.

Question 25

24. Before a pilot can operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR, what two conditions must be met? (14 CFR 91.173)

Answer 25

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has filed an IFR flight plan and received an appropriate ATC clearance.

Question 26

25. What minimums are necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Parts 121, 125, 129, and 135? (14 CFR 91.175)

Answer 26

For aircraft operated under Parts 121, 125, 129 or 135, if takeoff minimums are not prescribed under Part 97 for a particular airport, the following minimums apply to takeoffs under IFR for aircraft operating under those parts: a. For two engines or less—1 SM visibility. b. For more than two engines—1/2 SM visibility.

Question 27

26. When is a procedure turn not required? (AIM 5-4-9, 14 CFR 91.175)

Answer 27

A procedure turn is not required when: a. ATC specifies in approach clearance “Cleared straight-in (type) approach.” b. Holding pattern replaces the procedure turn, the holding pattern must be followed. c. Flying a DME arc. d. Radar vectored to final approach course. e. Procedure turn barb is absent in the plan view or the “NoPT” symbol is depicted on the initial segment being used. f. When conducting a timed approach from a holding fix. g. Teardrop procedure turn is depicted and a course reversal is required. Note: If a pilot is uncertain whether the ATC clearance intends for a procedure turn to be conducted or to allow for a straight-in approach, the pilot must immediately request clarification from ATC (14 CFR §91.123).

Question 28

27. When flying an instrument approach procedure, when can the pilot descend below minimum descent altitude (MDA) or DA/DH? (14 CFR 91.175)

Answer 28

No pilot may operate an aircraft below the authorized MDA or continue an approach below the authorized DA/DH unless: a. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers. b. The flight visibility is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used. c. When at least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: + The approach light system (except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the ALS as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable). + The threshold. + The threshold markings. + The threshold lights. + Runway end identifier lights (REIL). + Visual glideslope indicator. + The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings. + The touchdown zone lights. + The runway or runway markings. + The runway lights.

Question 29

28. Convert the following RVR values to meteorological visibility. (14 CFR 91.175)

Answer 29

RVR (feet) | Visibility (SM) 1,600 1/4 2,400 1/2 3,200 5/8 4,000 3/4 4,500 7/8 5,000 1 6,000 1-1/4

Question 30

29. If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA), what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations? (14 CFR 91.177, Part 95)

Answer 30

Minimum altitudes are: a. Mountainous terrain (designated in Part 95)—at least an altitude of 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown. b. Other than mountainous terrain—at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course to be flown.

Question 31

30. Describe the climb procedure when approaching a fix beyond which a higher minimum en route IFR altitude (MEA) exists. (14 CFR 91.177)

Answer 31

A pilot may climb to a higher minimum IFR altitude immediately after passing the point beyond which that minimum altitude applies.

Question 32

31. When may a pilot operate an aircraft below the published MEA? (14 CFR 91.177)

Answer 32

If both a MEA and a minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) are prescribed for a particular route or route segment, a person may operate an aircraft below the MEA down to, but not below, the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of that VOR.

Question 33

32. What cruising altitudes should be maintained while operating under IFR in controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E)? In uncontrolled airspace (Class G)? (14 CFR 91.179)

Answer 33

IFR flights within controlled airspace (Class A, B, C, D, or E) shall maintain the altitude or flight level assigned by ATC. In uncontrolled airspace (Class G), altitude is selected based on the magnetic course flown: Below 18,000 feet MSL: +0° to 179° odd thousand MSL. + 180° to 359° even thousand MSL. 18,000 feet up to but not including 29,000 feet MSL: +0° to 179° odd flight levels. + 180° to 359° even flight levels.

Question 34

33. The full reduced vertical separation minimum (RVSM) flight envelope extends from FL290 upward to what altitude? (14 CFR Part 91 Appendix G)

Answer 34

RVSM airspace extends upward to the lowest altitude of the following: a. FL410 (the RVSM altitude limit); b. The maximum certificated altitude for the aircraft; or c. The altitude limited by cruise thrust, buffet, or other flight limitations.

Question 35

34. How much vertical separation is provided by ATC in RVSM airspace? (14 CFR 91.180)

Answer 35

Within RVSM airspace, ATC separates aircraft by a minimum of 1,000 feet vertically between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.

Question 36

35. Where can a pilot find information on operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace?

Answer 36

14 CFR Part 91 and AC 91-85B, “Authorization of Aircraft and Operators for Flight in RVSM Airspace.” or Jeppesen

Question 37

36. Concerning two-way radio communications failure in VFR and IFR conditions, what is the procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection? (14 CFR 91.185)

Answer 37

In VFR conditions: If the failure occurs in VFR, or if VFR is encountered after the failure, each pilot shall continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable. In IFR conditions: If the failure occurs in IFR conditions, or if VFR conditions are not within range, each pilot shall continue the flight according to the following: a. Route: Assigned by route assigned in last ATC clearance Vectored go direct from point of radio failure to fix, route, airway in vector clearance Expected by route that ATC has advised may be expected. Filed by the route filed in flight b, Altitude (highest of following altitudes for the route segment being flown): Minimum minimum altitude for IFR operations Expected altitude/flight level ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance Assigned altitude/flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance c. Leave clearance limit: + When the clearance limit is a fix from which the approach begins, commence descent or descent and approach as close as possible to the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if one has not been received, as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route. - If the clearance limit is not a fix from which the approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received; or if none has been received, upon arrival over the clearance limit, and proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence descent or decent and approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

Question 38

37. What reports should be made to ATC without a specific request (radar and non-radar)? (14 CFR 91.183, 91.187,AIM 5-3-3)

Answer 38

The pilot must report: Missed approach; request clearance for specific action, such as another approach, alternate airport, etc. Airspeed change; change in average KTAS at cruising altitude of 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater. Reaching a holding fix or point to which cleared; report time and altitude or flight level. Vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level. ETA change when previous estimate in excess of 2 minutes (non-radar). Leaving assigned holding fix or point. Outer marker (OM) inbound or fix used in lieu of the OM (non-radar). Unforecast weather. Safety of flight compromised. VFR on top, when any altitude change is made. Final approach fix inbound (non-radar). Radio malfunction—any loss or impairment of navigation/communication receiver capability. Compulsory reporting points (non-radar). 500 FPM—unable to climb/descend 500 FPM. Remember: MARVELOUS VFR C500

Question 39

38. What are the flight crew and aircraft requirements to operate an aircraft in a Category II or III operation? (14CFR 91.189)

Answer 39

No person may operate a civil aircraft in a Category II or III operation unless: a. The flight crew of the aircraft consists of a PIC and a SIC who hold the appropriate authorizations and ratings prescribed in $61.3; b. Each flight crewmember has adequate knowledge of, and familiarity with, the aircraft and the procedures to be used; and c. The instrument panel in front of the pilot who is controlling the aircraft has appropriate instrumentation for the type of flight control guidance system that is being used.

Question 40

39. What additional equipment is required when operating above Flight Level 240? (14 CFR 91.205)

Answer 40

If VOR navigational equipment is required (appropriate to the ground facilities to be used), no person may operate a U.S.-registered civil aircraft within the 50 States and the District of Columbia at or above FL240 unless that aircraft is equipped with approved DME or a suitable RNAV system.

Question 41

40. What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen on board an aircraft? (14 CFR 91.211)

Answer 41

No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry: a. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, unless, for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is more than 30 minutes, the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen. b. At cabin pressure altitudes above 14,000 feet MSL, unless the required flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at those altitudes. c. At cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 feet MSL, unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen. Note: Different Regulations for part 121/135

Question 42

41. What are the regulations pertaining to the use of supplemental oxygen on board a pressurized aircraft? (14 CFR 91.211)

Answer 42

Above FL250—at least a ten-minute supply of supplemental oxygen, in addition to any oxygen required to satisfy §91.211, is available for each occupant of the aircraft for use in the event that a descent is necessitated by loss of cabin pressurization. Above FL350—at least one pilot at the controls of the airplane is wearing and using an oxygen mask that is secured and sealed that either supplies oxygen at all times or automatically supplies oxygen whenever the cabin pressure altitude of the airplane exceeds 14,000 feet MSL. Note: One pilot need not wear and use an oxygen mask while at or below FL410 if two pilots are at the controls and each pilot has a quick donning type of oxygen mask that can be placed on the face within 5 seconds. Also, if for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave the controls of the aircraft when operating at altitudes above FL350, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to that crewmember’s station.

Question 43

42. What instruments and equipment may not be included in a minimum equipment list? (14 CFR 91.213)

Answer 43

a. Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions. b. Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise. c. Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by Part 91.

Question 44

43. Where is Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment required? (AIM 4-1-20, 14 CFR 91.215, 91.225, 99.13)

Answer 44

In general, the regulations require aircraft to be equipped with an operable Mode C transponder and ADS-B Out equipment when operating: a. In Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace areas; b. Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL; c. Class E airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL; d. Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL (Mode C Veil); and e. Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 NM. f. All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous United States ADIZ. (Mode C transponder equipment required; (ADS-B Out not required at this time.) Note: Civil and military aircraft should operate with the transponder in the altitude reporting mode and ADS-B Out transmissions enabled (if equipped) at all airports, any time the aircraft is positioned on any portion of an airport movement area. This includes all defined taxiways and runways.

Question 45

44, For operations conducted in Class A airspace the aircraft must be equipped with what type of ADS-B Out equipment? (14 CFR 91.225)

Answer 45

Extended squitter ADS-B and Traffic Information Service-Broadcast (TIS-B), operating on the radio frequency of 1090 MHz. This type of ADS-B Out equipment is commonly abbreviated as 1090ES.

Question 46

45. Describe several examples of non-common carriage operations that involve the tansportation of persons or property and may involve compensation, but are conducted under Part 91. (14 CFR 91.501)

Answer 46

Part 91 Subpart F applies to large and turbine-powered multi-engine airplanes and fractional ownership program aircraft. 14 CFR §91.501 sets conditions on the amount and types of compensation for these operations. Examples include: a. Flights conducted by the operator of an airplane for the operator’s own personal transportation, or the transportation of guests, when no charge, assessment, or fee is made for the transportation. b. Carriage of company officials, employees, and guests of the company on an airplane operated under a time sharing, interchange, or joint ownership agreement. c. Carriage of property (except mail) incidental to business (limited compensation for expenses). d. Carriage of a group (with common purpose) when there is no charge, assessment or fee. e. Fractional ownership.

Question 47

46. How many fire extinguishers must be provided for use in crew, passenger, and cargo compartments for a transport category aircraft with a 70-passenger seating capacity? (14 CFR 91.513)

Answer 47

At least one hand fire extinguisher must be provided and located on or near the flight deck in a place that is readily accessible to the flight crew and at least two hand fire extinguishers must be conveniently located in the passenger compartment of each airplane accommodating more than 30 passengers.

Question 48

47. When must the "No Smoking” and “Fasten Seatbelts” signs be turned on? (14 CFR 91.517)

Answer 48

They must be turned on during airplane movement on the surface, for each takeoff, for each landing, and when otherwise considered to be necessary by the PIC.

Question 49

48. Before each takeoff, the pilot-in-command of an airplane carrying passengers shall ensure that all passengers have been orally briefed on what information? (14 CFR 91.519)

Answer 49

a. Smoking. b. Use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses. c. Location and means for opening the passenger entry door and emergency exits. d. Location of survival equipment. e. Ditching procedures and the use of flotation equipment required under § 91.509 for a flight over water. f. The normal and emergency use of oxygen equipment installed on the airplane.

Question 50

49. Explain how an inaccurate passenger count prior to departure could result in violation of multiple Part 91 and 121 regulations. (14 CFR 91.605, 121,189, 121.191, 121.195)

Answer 50

a, If the additional passengers resulted in the takeoff weight exceeding the takeoff weight specified in the AFM, then a pilot could be found in violation of §91.605 (Transport category civil airplane weight limitations) and §121.189 (Turbine engine powered takeoff limitations). b. Weight calculations based on inaccurate data could affect engine performance calculations, including engine-out performance, weight and balance and fuel requirements. A pilot could face violations of: + §121.189—Turbine engine powered; takeoff limitations +§121.191—Turbine engine powered: Enroute limitations: One engine inoperative +§121.195—Turbine engine powered: Landing limitations: Destination airports An inaccurate passenger count could result in a pilot (and operator) facing numerous violations.

Question 51

50. How is the information obtained from cockpit voice recorders (CVR) and flight data recorders used after an accident? (14 CFR 91.609)

Answer 51

Information obtained from the CVR is used to assist in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with the investigation under Part 830. The Administrator does not use the CVR in any civil penalty or certificate action. An operator shall keep the recorded information for at least 60 days or, if requested by the Administrator or the Board, for a longer period.

Question 52

51. When conducting a flight operation of a U.S. registered civil aircraft outside the United States, what general rules apply? (14 CFR 91.703)

Answer 52

Each person operating a civil aircraft of U.S. registry outside of the United States shall: a. When over the high seas, comply with ICAO Annex 2 rules and with §91.117 (aircraft speed), §91.127 (Class E airspace), §91.129 (Class D airspace), and §91.131 (Class B airspace) rules; b. When within a foreign country, comply with the regulations relating to the flight and maneuver of aircraft there in force; c. Except for § 91.117 (aircraft speed), §91.307 (parachute operations), §91.309 (glider towing), §91.323 (increased maximum weights in Alaska), and §91.711 (special rules foreign aircraft), comply with this Part so far as it is not inconsistent with applicable regulations of the foreign country where the aircraft is operated or ICAO Annex 2; and d. When operating within airspace designated as RVSM airspace, comply with § 91.706 (RVSM airspace operations). e. For aircraft subject to ICAO Annex 16, carry on board the aircraft documents that summarize the noise operating characteristics and certifications of the aircraft that demonstrate compliance with this Part and Part 36 (Noise Standards).

Question 53

52. What requirements must be met before conducting operations within RVSM airspace? (AC 91-85, 14 CFR 91.706)

Answer 53

a. Aircraft is RVSM compliant (equipment requirements, maintenance requirements). b. Pilots are trained and knowledgeable in RVSM procedures and operations. c. Aircraft meets RVSM altitude-keeping performance. d. Flight planning meets RVSM requirements.