Part 91 Flashcards

(49 cards)

1
Q

Part 91 generally prescribes rules governing operation of aircraft within the United States. This includes airspace over waters within __________ nautical miles of the US Coast (out to 12 nautical miles from the coast for select Part 91 regulations).

A

3 to 12 Nautical miles from the coast.

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2
Q

If a Pilot in Command deviates from a rule during an in-flight emergency, he/she must:

A

Submit a written report to the FAA upon request.

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3
Q

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of civil aircraft if they have consumed alcohol within the previous:

A

8 hours

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4
Q

Any drug or alcohol test requested by the Administrator and taken within __________ hours after acting or attempting to act as a crewmember that indicates the presence of drugs or alcohol may be evaluated in determining a person’s qualifications for airman certificate or possible violations of this chapter and may be used as evidence in legal proceedings.

A

4 hours

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5
Q

Is it ever legal to charge guests of a company for a flight under the provisions of Subpart F?

A

Yes, if the flight is incidental to company business and the charges are limited.

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6
Q

Under the provisions of part 91, subpart F, where must a flashlight with two “D” cell batteries be located for each flight?

A

At the pilot’s station.

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7
Q

To operate under VFR at night on an operation that falls under the regulation of part 91, subpart F, the airplane must be equipped with:

A

All the equipment required for IFR under 91.205(d) and one electric landing light.

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8
Q

If a flight under part 91, subpart F will be over water more than 30 minutes flying time or 100 nautical miles from shore, the aircraft is required to have operational:

A

Two sets of radio communications equipment and at least two independent electronic navigation units.

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9
Q

Under the regulations of part 91, subpart F, what requirements exist for the carriage and availability of fire extinguishers on an airplane accommodating only 5 passengers?

A

No fire extinguisher is required in the passenger compartment, but one must be available on or near the flight deck.

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10
Q

For operations under part 91, subpart F, a crash axe is required on aircraft accommodating more than:

A

19 passengers

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11
Q

Under part 91, subpart F, except for takeoffs and landings, the minimum altitude above the surface which an airplane may be operated under VFR during the daytime is:

A

1000 feet.

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12
Q

For operations under part 91, subpart F, if the airplane is required to be equipped with signs indicating to passengers that smoking is prohibited and that seat belts must be fastened, the crew must turn on those signs:

A

During airplane movement on the surface, for each takeoff, each landing, and when considered necessary by the pilot in command.

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13
Q

For operations under part 91, subpart F, if the aircraft has a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers, carry-on baggage:

A

For operations under part 91, subpart F, if the aircraft has a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers, carry-on baggage:

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14
Q

No person may operate a transport category airplane in air commerce unless that airplane is equipped with an aural speed warning device

A

True, without exception.

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15
Q

Under part 91, subpart G, no person may operate a turbine-engine-powered transport category airplane unless the accelerate-stop distance is not greater than:

A

The length of the runway plus the length of the stopway.

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16
Q

Under part 91, subpart G, no exit may be removed if removal would result in a ratio of maximum number of occupants to approved exits greater than:

A

14:1.

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17
Q

An operator required to have an operable flight recorder under part 91, subpart G must operate it:

A

Continuously from the instant the takeoff roll begins until the completion of the landing roll.

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18
Q

In order to operate a civil aircraft, the airworthiness certificate (or special flight authorization) must be located where in the aircraft?

A

Displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers and/or crew.

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19
Q

Which of the following instruments/equipment is/are required for flights under VFR at night?

A

One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required.

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20
Q

No person may operate without an operable coded radar beacon transponder that meets part 91 capability requirements and without automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability. This requirement applies for all aircraft in what classes of airspace?

A

A, B, and C and in all airspace within 30 NM of an airport listed in Appendix D, section 1 of Part 91.

21
Q

No person may operate any automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment associated with a radar beacon transponder:

A

When deactivation of that equipment is directed by ATC.

22
Q

Aerobatic flight is restricted in where it may be conducted. Which of the following meets the definition of aerobatic flight?

A

An intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.

23
Q

True or false? It is against regulations to intentionally exceed a nose-up or nose-down attitude of 30 degrees relative to the horizon.

A

True, unless each occupant of the aircraft (other than a crewmember) is wearing an approved parachute or the maneuver is accomplished for the purpose of flight testing or training.

24
Q

If an aircraft has undergone maintenance, that aircraft may only be considered airworthy for return to operations when that maintenance has: (Choose the most inclusive correct answer.)

A

Been approved by an authorized person and a maintenance record entry has been made.

25
How often must the transponder be tested and inspected and found to be in compliance?
Within the preceding 24 calendar months.
26
Which of the following instruments/equipment is/are required for flights under VFR at night?
One spare set of fuses, or three spare fuses of each kind required.
27
As a preflight action, for a flight not in the vicinity of an airport of departure, the Pilot in Command must become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. As a minimum, this information must include:
Any known traffic delays, fuel requirements, alternate airports, and weather reports and forecasts.
28
Two aircraft of the same category are converging at about the same altitude. Which aircraft has the right-of-way?
The one to the right has the right-of-way. The one on the left must change course.
29
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B area designated for an airport or in a VFR corridor designated through such Class B airspace at a indicated airspeed of more than:
200 knots.
30
What is the minimum altitude for an airplane flying over a congested area? __________ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of __________ from the aircraft.
1,000 feet; 2,000 feet.
31
For any given operation at higher altitudes, the lowest useable flight level is:
Determined by the atmospheric pressure (current altimeter setting).
32
You're in flight approaching your destination airport, and you've lost radio communications. The air traffic control tower is signaling you with an alternating red and green light. What does this mean?
Exercise extreme caution.
33
Unless otherwise indicated, when approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace, each airplane pilot must:
Make all turns to the left.
34
If taking off from a satellite airport without an operating control tower located in Class D airspace, when must the pilot of a VFR flight contact the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the airspace?
As soon as practicable after departure.
35
For operations through Class C airspace, all pilots must establish two-way radio communications with the ATC facility providing services:
Prior to entering that airspace.
36
According to Part 91, when barometric pressure exceeds or will exceed 31 inches of mercury:
No aircraft may be operated contrary to the requirements established by the Administrator and published in a NOTAM issued under this section.
37
Assuming normal cruising speed, an airplane flying in VFR conditions at night must carry enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and then fly for an additional:
45 minutes.
38
To fly in Class B, C, or D airspace, what is the minimum flight visibility required for flight under VFR?
3 statute miles.
39
When flying in Class E Airspace, the minimum visibility for flight under VFR increases from 3 statute miles to 5 statute miles when at or above:
10,000 feet MSL.
40
Draw the memory aid triangle to memorize VFR cloud clearances.
41
According to 91.157, in order to conduct Special VFR operations in an airplane at night, you must A) have ATC clearance, B) remain clear of clouds, C) have flight visibility of at least 1 statute mile, and/or D) be qualified for instrument flight.
A, B, C, and D.
42
Under which of the following circumstances could you file an IFR flight plan without an alternate airport? The weather is forecast to be consistent all day. It's overcast with a ceiling at least __________ above the airport elevation and visibility of __________.
2,000 feet; at least 3 statute miles.
43
If filing a flight plan under IFR, and no standard or special instrument approach procedure has been published under Part 97 for the selected alternate airport, you may include that alternate in your flight plan as long as appropriate weather reports or forecasts indicate that at the estimated time of arrival the ceiling and visibility:
Would allow for descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
44
If you are conducting a VOR check on the airport surface with an approved test signal, what is the maximum permissible bearing error that would allow for operation under IFR?
Plus or minus 4 degrees.
45
On an instrument approach, you can see the approach light system, but you're not able to see the red terminating bars or the red side row bars. You can, however, see the visual approach slope indicator. With these visual references, you may:
Descend below the DA/DH or MDA and continue the approach.
46
Which of the following can be substituted for an inoperative outer marker? A) authorized DME or VOR fixes, B) compass locator, C) PAR, D) ASR, and/or E) authorized NDB fixes.
A, B, C, D, and E.
47
If en route IFR and no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed, the minimum clearance for other than mountainous terrain should be at least __________ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 nautical miles from the course to be flown.
1,000 feet.
48
A pilot flying under IFR in controlled airspace must report which of the following as soon as possible?
Any unforecast weather conditions.
49
Under which of the following circumstances could you file an IFR flight plan without an alternate airport? The weather is forecast to be consistent all day. It's overcast with a ceiling at least __________ above the airport elevation and visibility of __________.
2,000 feet; at least 3 statute miles.