CDHB Path > Path 2021 > Flashcards

Path 2021 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which is not true?
Fibrothecoma - good prognosis if ascites present
Brenner tumour - often solid
non-gestational choriocarcinoma - highly radiosensitive

A

CCF - non-gestational choriocarcinoma - highly radiosensitive (False)

  • Rx surgery and chemo, don’t think they are radiosensitive (cant find anything on this and the other two options are true). Non gestational worse prog than gestational.
    SCS: agree. Pathoma guy stresses this quite a but in his videos

Fibrothecoma - good prognosis if ascites present T – Ass meigs syndrome – good prog.

Brenner tumour - often solid - T - Transitional cell epithelium solid

**SCS: Meig syndrome = presence of ascites and pleural effusion (tends to be RIGHT sided) with a benign solid ovarian tumour (examples include fibrothecoma, granulosa, Brenner). Less that 1% of ovarian tumours present like this.
Effusion and Ascites resolves after resection.

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2
Q

Downs- least likely?

  • moderately associated with alzheimer’s
  • moderately associated with epicanthal folds
  • moderately associated with myxomatous degeneration of the mitral valve
  • moderately associated with mitral valve prolapse
  • moderately associated with progressive liver fibrosis
A

CCF - Mxomatous MV – no assc

Moderately is a subjective term but -

  • Alzheimer’s – “virtually all” radiopedia (highly assoc).
  • Epicanthal folds – Characteristic phenotype – highly associated
  • Mitral valve prolapse – numbers vary (50-60% on Medscape)
  • Progressive liver fibrosis -does happen in downs but usually secondary to another associated condition eg fatty liver, autoimmune liver disease, and celiac disease.

**SCS: Myxomatous MV degen = marfans

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3
Q

Cystic fibrosis, most likely?

  • minor effect on fertility in males
  • diffuse liver fibrosis
  • CF is a common cause of childhood pancreatitis
  • vitamin B12 deficiency
  • focal biliary cirrhosis develops in 1/3 of patients
A

Answer: Focal biliary cirrhosis develops in 1/3 of patients.

ROBBINS
- most common lethal genetic disease that affects Caucasian populations
- carrier frequency USA 1 in 20.
- lower in AA, asians, hispanics
- AR inheritance pattern, but heterzygote carriers can have respiratory and pancreatic disease.

Clinical features
Pancreas
- 85-90% of patients
- severe cases in older children/adolescents, atrophy of exocrine gland and progressive fibrosis.
- a subset of patients have recurrent bouts of pancreatitis.

Liver
- bile canaliculi plugged by mucous
- ductular proliferation and portal inflamation
- Hepatic steatosis common.
- over time, focal biliary cirrhosis develops in 1/3 of patients
- can eventually involve entire liver, diffuse biliary cirrhosis develops in less than 10% of cases.

Salivary glands
- similar to pancreas, atrophy and fibrosis.

Pulmonary
- most serious complications
- bronchiectasis, lung abscesses
- S. aureus, H. influenzae, P. aeruginosa are 3 most common organisms.

Azoospermia and infertility are found in 95% of males who survive into adulthood.
Congenital bilateral abscence of vas deferens is afrequent finding in these patients.

Meconium ileus
- 5-10% of case present at birht with meconium ileus.

**most common cause of pancreatitis in childhood is trauma.
**malabsorption mainly with Fat-soluble vitamins, not water soluble i.e. B12.

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4
Q

Breast textured implant, which association?

  • anaplastic large cell lymphoma
  • another lymphoma
  • another lymphoma
  • another cancer
  • another thing
A

CCF - - anaplastic large cell lymphoma

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5
Q

Polycythemia rubra vera, most likely to get which complication?

  • myelofibrosis
  • transformation to AML
  • transformation to CML
A

Answer: Myelofibrosis

ROBBINS
Note, “rubra vera” is old term, not used anymore. Just means primary polycythemia vera.

It is a myeloproliferative disorder secondary to a JAK2 point mutation which is found in >95% of cases.

At diagnosis, a moderate to marked increase in reticulin fibers is seen in about 10% of marrows.
Mild organomegaly is common.
Peripheral blood often contains increased numbers of basophils and abnormally large platelets.

High cell turnover gives rise to hyperuricemia, with gout seen in 5-10% of cases.

25% of patients 1st present with DVT, MI or stroke. Budd-Chiari is also prominent.

Late in the course of PCV, often progresses to a spent phase, characterized by extensive marrow fibrosis (myelofibrosis) that displaces hematopoietic cells (15-20% of patients).

This is accompanied by extramedullary hematopoiesis in the spleen and liver with organomegaly.

Transformation to AML is seen in 1-2% of patients.

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6
Q

Bicuspid valve, with progressive exertional dyspnoea, ejection systolic murmur, most likely finding on CXR

  • ascending aorta enlarged
  • calcification of the aortic valve
  • depression of the cardiac apex
  • normal cardiac size
A

Answer: Calcification of the aortic valve.

EH: Fun fact David Smythe has bicuspid arotic valve.

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7
Q

endometrioid carcinoma of ovary?

  • 2% of ovarian tumours are endometrioid type
  • 40% are bilateral
  • 3% endometrioid are associated with synchronous ovarian endometrial carcinoma
A

CCF - 40% bilateral – St8 outta robbins p1023 table 22-6

  • SCS: additional trivia (StDx and Radiopaedia)
  • Endometrioid carcinoma 8-15% of ovarian ca. (second most common).
  • About 1/3 are associated with either endometrial carcinoma or hyperplasia.
  • 1% of endometriomas (endometriosis) have malignant tx to this subtype of ca.
  • Best outcome of all ovarian carcinomas.
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8
Q

Adenomyosis

  • invades/infiltrates along the fallopian tubes and forms ovarian masses
  • diffuse globular enlargement of the uterus
  • well-defined myometrium/endometrium junction
  • no thickening of the myometrium
  • increased risk of cancer
A

Answer (most correct): diffuse globular enlargement of the uterus

ROBBINS
Adenomyosis is presence of endometrial tissue within the uterine wall.

Remains in continuity with the endometrium, signifying downgrowth of endometrial tissue into and between the smooth muscle fascicles of the myometrium

Occurs in 20% of uteri.

Clinical symptoms: menometrorrhagia, colicky dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, pelvic pain.

STATDX
- Firm, large, and globular uterus.
- Rare malignant degeneration to adenocarcinoma.

PATHOUTLINES
Prognosis: Benign, excelling prognosis even if not removed.

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9
Q

Leiomyoma, false?

  • diffuse enlargement of the uterus without nodular contour
  • gestation implanted into leiomyoma, is bad- associated with something bad
A

Answer: ?both

No case of pregnancy implanted into leiomyoma, however Leiomyomas in pregnant women increase the frequency of spontaneous abortion, fetal malpresentation, uterine inertia, and post-partum hemorrhage.

Leiomyoma variants include diffuse leiomyomatosis
- diffuse enlargement of the uterus
- gross pathology: innumerable confluent nodules that are less discrete than typical leiomyoma, causing symmetric uterine enlargement.

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10
Q

placental abruption

  • acutely presents as enlarged placenta
  • echogenic amniotic fluid is only seen with bleeding into the amniotic cavity -
  • marginal placental abruption has clot at the internal os
A

Answer: first and last options correct.

STATDX
Placental abruption = premature separation of placenta.

Etiology
- compromise of vascular structures supporting placenta leads to dissection of blood
- abnormal trophoblast invasion -> rupture of spiral arteries -> premature placental separation
- Intrauterine hypoxia, placental insufficiency.

Associated abnormalities
- Placenta previa (13-14x increase risk for placenta abruption)
- Leiomyoma (2.6x increase risk)

Acute hematoma
- blood often isoechoic to placenta
- may appear as thick placenta (placentomegaly)
- associated echogenic amniotic fluid is common (from clot proteins, large bleed can traverse amniotic fluid).

Marginal Placenta Abruption
- most common type
- hemorrhage from edge of placenta, can see a raised edge in 50% of cases.
- hematoma adjacent to placenta.
- Remote hematoma common, normally infront of os.

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11
Q 
CT - blocked Eustachian tube, fluid in mastoid and middle ear, in a middle aged man, next most appropriate test?
PET-CT
MRI base of skull and neck
Some nuclear medicine scan
Some ultrasound scan
A

CCF - MRI base of skull and neck

*SCS: Nasopharyngeal carcinoma until proven otherwise.

Note this question is incorrectly recalled in the 2021 RD section (says a paed)

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12
Q

[Path?] Crazy paving, least likely

  • PJP
  • PAP
  • mucinous adenocarcinoma
  • respiratory bronchiolitis -ILD
A

CCF - RB

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13
Q 
(path) which is least common hepatitis to cause cirrhosis
Hep B
Hep C
Hep A
Hep E
Alcoholic hepatitis
NASH
Hep D
A

CCF - Hep A

**SCS: Hep E also does not have a chronic state. Can lead to fulminant hepatitis (liver failure w massive necrosis) in pregnancy especially.

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14
Q 
path) Which is least associated with HCC?
Hep A
Hep B
Hep C
Haemochromatosis
Non-alcoholic hepatitis
Wilsons
A

CCF – Hep A

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15
Q 
(path) Which is least likely to cause hepatic deposition of collagen and fibrosis early in its symptomatic course?
Budd Chiari
Veno-occlusive disease
Uncontrolled right heart failure
NASH
Hep C
Hep B
A

CCF – Favour NASH, fibrosis later /endstage feature- but usually asymptomatic early.
Difficult to find time course vs RHF - so not entirely sure - Thoughts?

**SCS: also unsure… this is what I could find:
Budd Chiari: Robbins 10th Ed (small one): “centrilobular fibrosis develops in instances in which the thrombosis is more slowly developing”

Venoocclusive definitely does this.

I Favour RHF (same Robbins as above): “uncommonly with sustained chronic severe CHF, centrilobular fibrosis … develops”

WJI:
additionally HBV not always cirrhotic, HCV develop cirrhosis >6months post infection. Hard to know what this Q is getting at

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16
Q

[PATH] Sarcoid, which is least likely a manifestation?

  • Mikulicz syndrome
  • lacrimal gland inflammation
  • uveitis
  • non caseating epithelioid granulomas in the liver
  • segmental glomerulonephritis
A

CCF – Mikulicz syndrome – v. rare thought to be IGG4 disease with sarcoid tangentially related.
All others direct manifestations.

** SCS: Sarcoid causes granulomatous interstitial nephritis.

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17
Q

Pagets disease of the nipple

  • is a non-specific eczematous reaction caused by many different breast conditions
  • is associated with DCIS in 50%
  • is associated with IDC in 50%
  • is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with breast cancer that can be seen in either breast
A

CCF -
Associated with IDC in 50% (“[ in pagets ]palpable mass present in 50-60% almost all of these have invasive carcinoma” – my guy Robbins”. “quik maffs” -Big Shaq
(DICS higher than 50% (90%))

Stat dx, robbins orange box pg 1057.

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18
Q 
Thymoma, not associated with?
Red cell aplasia
low T cells
Hypogammaglobulinanaemia (this is how it was spelled)
Myaesthenia gravis
Graves disease
A

CCF
low T cells

All below listed on radiopeida
Red cell aplasia – Yes 5%
Hypogammaglobulinanaemia (this is how it was spelled) - Yes
Myaesthenia gravis - Yes
Graves disease Yes
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19
Q

[path] Giant cell arteritis, true?

  • rarely involves MCA
  • rarely involves ophthalmic artery
  • commonly shows continuous involvement of temporal artery
  • causes stenosis of the branches of aortic arch
  • commonly seen in 30-50yo people
A

CCF – Multiple true

  • rarely involves MCA – T (COW rare)
  • rarely involves ophthalmic artery – F (v. common – blindness)
  • commonly shows continuous involvement of temporal artery – F (focal involvement with long segments of relatively normal artery interposed – robbins pg 508). Prob why false negatives are common when we biopsy.
  • causes stenosis of the branches of aortic arch - T – Yes (radiopedia and https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/14674004/).
  • commonly seen in 30-50yo people – F- Older patients over 50, peak 70-80
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20
Q

Renal cystic disease, which is most likely hereditary? (repeat)

  • nephronopthisis
  • medullary sponge kidney
  • adult polycystic kidney disease
  • autosomal recessive PKD
A

CCF

  • AR PKD
  • If question say least likely then MSK.

**SCS: prior recall said NOT hereditary.
Therefore MSK.

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21
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause bilateral ovarian enlargement? (repeat, but with different wording from recalls)

  • serous ovarian tumours
  • mucinous ovarian tumours
  • Brenner
  • dermoid
  • fibrothecoma
A

CCF – Serous ovarian

Pg 1023 robbins

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22
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, most likely associated with? (repeat)

  • assymetric thickening of the left ventricle free walls
  • hypertension
  • diastolic dysfunction
  • normal mitral valve
A

CCF - - diastolic dysfunction - True

  • assymetric thickening of the left ventricle free walls – No, subtypes are Asymmetric (most common) of the septum, Symemtrical, apical, mass like.
  • hypertension - No
  • normal mitral valve - Regurg
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23
Q

MEN1 don’t get which thing? (this question was duplicated in the exam)

  • carcinoid
  • pituitary adenoma
  • islet cell tumour
  • phaeochromocytoma
  • parathyroid adenoma
A

CCF – pheochromocytoma.

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24
Q

Paraganglioma, least likely associated with (this was in the same exam as the question above)?

  • succinate dehydrogenase deficiency
  • Carney triad
  • VHL
  • MEN1
A

CCF – MEN1

**SCS: The most common genetic cause of hereditary paragangliomas are mutations in the succinate dehydrogenase (SDH) subunit (SDHB, SDHD, SDHA or SDHAF2) (radiopaedia)

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25
Renal AML, most likely association? - NF1 - VHL - LAM - TSC was not an option
CCF – LAM 32% of spontaneous LAM Higher in TSC associated LAM
26
"Primitive neuroectodermal tumours of the lower limb bone and soft tissues", most likely? (in the same exam as question above) - clinical presentation mimics osteomyelitis
CCF - Yes EH - I would stab a guess at Ewings - small round blue cell, thought to neuroectoderm - and can present osteomyelitis - fever, raised CRP, anaemia etc.
27
[path] Which is most likely organism to cause orchitis without epididymitis? - treponema pallidum - N. gonorrhoeae - C. trachomatis
CCF - Treponema pallidum – Just ask Syphilis Saj Other isolated orchitis – mumps, CMV and brucellosis. IVM - memory aid: Syphillis Saj has big old nuts but not epididymitis
28
Hashimoto thyroiditis, least likely? - presents with thyrotoxicosis - can be hypothyroid - can cause goitre - risk of Hodgkin lymphoma - risk of MALToma
CCF – risk of Hodgkin Lymphoma least likely - presents with thyrotoxicosis (%5) - can be hypothyroid – most of them - can cause goitre – Yes enlarged common - risk of Hodgkin lymphoma - Rare would be less than 5% and less than NHL (cant find numbers) - risk of MALToma – High association with Non hodkings marginal zone (malt lymphoma) 60-80% increased risk (stat dx)
29
Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma 1) commonly anterior in the nasal cavity 2) arise from the internal maxillary artery 3) equal male and female prevalence 4) common age of presentation 25-35? 5) enhance homogeneously?
CCF –2 or 5. But depends on wording, if it said “supplied from” then 2 (it says supplied from in an Auckland recall). See below Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma 1) commonly anterior in the nasal cavity – No, posteriorly in the SPF region 2) arise from the internal maxillary artery – most commonly do fed from internal maxillary but “arise from” prob no. “Source of fibrovascular tissue in JAF is unknown” – stat dx. 3) equal male and female prevalence – No, pretty much all dudes 4) common age of presentation 25-35? – No, adolescence ave age 15 y/oish , 10-25years on stat dx. 5) enhance homogeneously? – marked enhancement is a feature no doubt. Heterogenous vs diffuse on stat dx, flow voids are prominent. – Varies between homogenous and heterogenous in the literature.
30
Something something maybe superficial soft tissue something, which is the MOST APPROPRIATE initial test? - US - CT - MR - PET-CT - some nuc med study
CCF - USS
31
Osteoporosis, true? - bones which have a higher proportion of marrow relative to cortex are affected worse - equal male and female prevalance in the elderly
CCF - - bones which have a higher proportion of marrow relative to cortex are affected worse – Id go True , more in postmenopausal type. Robbins says “affects bones or portions of bones with increased surface area such as cancellous bone of vertebral body” – pg 1189. Females more affected
32
Ulnar impaction syndrome - associated with negative ulnar variance - leads to osteoarthritic change of the lateral aspect of the scaphoid (or was it lunate?) - associated with scapholunate tears - associated with lunotriquetral tears - associated with... ?scaphoid non-union advanced collapse
CCF- associated with lunotriquetral tears - Yes - associated with negative ulnar variance – No, positive. - leads to osteoarthritic change of the lateral aspect of the scaphoid (or was it lunate?) - associated with scapholunate tears – No mentioned on stat dx associated with lunotriquetral tears – Yes – best answer - associated with... ?scaphoid non-union advanced collapse – Not pariticlarly.
33
mild encephalopathy with a reversible splenial lesion (MERS), which is not a finding on brain MR? - diffusion restriction - FLAIR hyperintensity - subarachnoid haemorrhage - enhancement?
CCF – No enhancement MM - agree Also known as CLOCCs – Cytotoxic lesion of the corpus callosum.
34
Person with watery diarrhoea and hypokalaemia, hypervascular pancreas lesion - Glucagonoma - Somatostatinoma - VIPoma - insulinoma - adenocarcinoma
CCF - VIPOMA **SCS: ‘WDHA syndrome’
35
Person with rash and diabetes, hypervascular pancreas lesion - Glucagonoma - Somatostatinoma - VIPoma - insulinoma - adencarcinoma
CCF - Glucagonoma ** SCS “4Ds syndrome: Dermatitis, Depression, DVT, Diabetes”
36
Person with nasal congestion, imaging shows a soft tissue mass in nasal cavity, enhances, remodels and thins underlying bone, opacified maxillary sinus (not sure on these details)? - mucocele - inverted papilloma - sinusitis
CCF – Inverted papilloma | c.f Mucocele no enhancement, Most common frontal. Sinusits not a mass.
37
Diabetic with nasal symptoms, fever, imaging shows nasal cavity mucosal thickening, no enhancement, fat stranding in the adjacent orbit - chronic fungal sinusitis - acute invasive fungal sinusitis - allergic sinusitis - ?lymphoma
CCF – Acute invasive fungal sinusitis, non enhancement suggests necrosis (radiopeida) Best of the provided options.
38
4yo with prior treated neuroblastoma (didn't specify the stage), liver ultrasound shows 3 new lesions, which were absent on last scan - mets - haemangioma - adenoma
CCF - Mets
39
Wilson disease, false? - autosomal dominant - Kayser-Fleischer rings - High copper in urine
CCF – Autosomal dominant – false. – AR inheritance.
40
Regarding MR contrast Most people with ESRF given it will develop NSF (was this an option?) Gadolinium deposition in the dentate nuclei shown to be associated with higher risk of multiple sclerosis relapse
CCF- - Neither are good options. - Gad does accumulate in DN but no good evidence of increased MS relapse -although more data needed. - Stage 5 CKD (egfr less 15) 1% risk NSF, Stage 4 CKD (egfr less 30) 0.1% risk (RANZCR guidelines).
41
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is most likely to be caused by inhlation of which of the following? - dust mites - pollen - fungal spores
CC - Fungal spores, other two not specifically mentioned on RP. **SCS: repeat. note prior path recalls specifies “thermophilic actinomycetes” as opposed to fungal spores.
42
Which is associated with anti-endothelial antibodies? - Burgers - Churg-Strauss - SLE - Kawasaki
CCF – Kawasaki disease
43
Path: Origin and correct association - Myxopapillary ependymoma and filum terminale - Haemangioblastoma and cervical cord
CCF – Both technically correct. Mxyopapillary ependymoma is the more correct * SCS: huh? Haemangioblastoma most commonly thoracic cord. - CCF - To clarify the answer is mxyopapillary and ependymoma as the CLASSIC association. Heamangioblastoma in cervical cord is also correct as they occur here but not classic location - therefore less correct. (they are thoracic as SCS astutley pointed out).
44
RCC correct - Papillary v hypervascular - Papillary not often multifocal and bilateral - Chromophobe good 5 year prognosis
CCF - Chromophobe good 5 year prognosis – True - Robbins - Papillary v hypervascular – F Less vascular than other types. - Papillary not often multifocal and bilateral – F, “unlike clear cell carcinomas, papillary carcinomas are frequently multifocal in origin”. Robbins p954 - Chromophobe good 5 year prognosis – True - Robbins
45
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma association - BRCA2 - Li-Fraumeni
CCF – BRCA 2 (most common cause of familial pancreatic cancer) SCS: Li Fraumeni- TP53 mutation (tumour supressor gene) Associated malignancies; -sarcomas: osteosarcoma, rhabdomyosarcoma CNS tumours: gliomas, choroid plexus carcinoma, medulloblastoma, neuroectodermal tumours Other: leukaemia, *breast cancer*, adrenal cortical carcinoma
46
FNH - Regress after OCP cessation - B-catenin - Commonly haemorrhage
CCF – | B-catenin pathway is activated in FNH
47
Least likely in metabolic syndrome - HDL - BP - Insulin - Glucose - Central adiposity
CCF – HDL ``` 5 components are Hyperinsulineamia Impaired glucose tolerance Dyslipidemia HTN Central adiposity. ``` **SCS: HDL is “good cholesterol “ right? Reduced in metabolic syndrome.
48
Least likely Wegner’s - Sinusitis - Lung cavity - Glomerulonephritis - Subglottic stenosis - Coronary arteritis
CCF – Coronary artery arteritis
49
Most associated with empty sella - IIH - PML - ADEM
CCF – IIH
50
Least // limbic encephalitis - Often precedes the cancer - Centered in thalamus and BG - // testicular GCT - // lung cancer
CCF - Often precedes the cancer - Often precedes the cancer – paraneoplastic process DUE to cancer (group 1type) - Centered in thalamus and BG – Definite BG (helps differentiate from HSV which spares). Involves the limbic system which includes the thalamus. - // testicular GCT – T (Anti-Ta antibodies) - // lung cancer – True (classic – Anti-Hu antibodies) **SCS trivia: Causes of non-paraneoplastic autoimmune encephalitis includes: - Voltage-gated potassium channel (VGKC) antibody encephalitis - NMDA encephalitis- ( but also assoc. w dermoid tumour/teratoma) - Systemic autoimmune conditions ie SLE
51
Which thyroid cancer // tracheal stenosis - All subtypes - Anaplastic answer
CCF - All could if big enough right. - Anaplastic is locally invasive and aggressive +++ Quick google says papillary can also be invasive so id favour all of them.
52
Congenital heart disease a. Pulmonary atresia causes RVH b. Ostium secundum presents in adults c. Tetralogy of fallot has coarctation
CCF –Ostium secundum presents in adults – Most commonly resents in adult hood. Most common type.
53
H pylori least // a. Gastric adenoc b. MALT c. Hodgkin’s d. Peptic ulcer
CCF – Hodgkins
54
Pre-eclampsia least associated a. Seizures b. HELLP c. Maternal glomerulonephritis
CCF – Seizures – this defines becoming eclampsia EH - I think the answer is maternal glomerulonephritis? I get the definition of eclampsia being seizures, but its so strongly associated with pre-eclampsia. Also don't think you get GN, can't see this in robbins at all, and think you get kidney failure from the endothelial dysfunction and "fibrin deposition in glomeruli" which can cause cortical necrosis. No mention of GN in robins.
55
Rectal cancer invading submucousa a. T0 b. T1 c. T2 d. T3
CCF – T1 T1 submucosa T2 Muscularis propria (into but not thorugh) T3 Through MP into subserosa/perirectal tissue T4 invades other structures
56
Which chemotherapy // urothelial ca a. Cisplatin b. Cyclophosphamide
CCF | - Cyclophosphamide can induce urothelial cancer -TCC
57
Celiac disease incorrect a. Lymphocytic colitis b. MALT c. Steatorrhea from malabsorption
CCF - Lymphocytic colitis IVM: Old robbins; - Incidence of lymphocytic gastritis and lymphocytic colitis is increased in celiac. ?incomplete recall
58
GIST false a. Most common small bowel b. Diagnostic feature KIT c. // NF1 d. Commonly peritoneal mets
CCF - A – Most common small bowel – False. o Most common is stomach (60%) then small bowel (30%) then oesophagus (10%)
59
HNPCC not associated a. Ovarian b. Endometrial c. Testicular d. Hepatobiliary e. Stomach
CCF | - Testicular - radiopeida
60
Mixed Mullerian tumour, true? a. Peak age 20-30 b. 60% 5 year survival c. Heterologous has endocrine, neuroepithelial d. Homologous has endometrioid and mesenchymal
Homologous has endometrioid and mesenchymal-True. Mixed Mullerian tumour aka carcinosarcoma. Can be ovarian or endometrial most common. Wji- agree with all above. So I think answer is d as this is the true answer Monoclonal tumours (same founding cell) with epithelial and mesenchymal. Typically older 6th – 8th decades Aggressive with poor prognosis – 5 year survival 25-30% Homologous referrers to being made from tissues from the organ they are found (uterus). There are heterologous types of MMT but these are made up of rhadomyosarcoma and cartilage type things.
61
Dermoid true a. Mature are in torted ovaries b. Bilateral 2% c. Immature teratomas undergoes malignant degeneration in neurothelial region d. 20% mature have SCC
CCF - Immature teratomas undergoes malignant degeneration in neurothelial region - (The amount of neuroepithelial tissue is related to grade of tumor) - Mature in torted ovaries is also true but not exclusive. - Mature bilat 10-15% 1% malignant transformation – typically SCC but can be others (thyroid carcinoma, melanoma) Both mature and immature can cause torasion.
62
Endometrioid ovarian carcinoma a. 40% bilateral b. 60% with endometriosis
CCF – 40% bilateral(St8 outta robbins g, pg 1023) 15-20% ass w endometriosis.
63
Epiphyseal least likely a. LCH b. Chondroblastoma c. Clear cell chondro d. Paget’s e. GCT
CCF – LCH – “Mainly diaphyseal or metadiaphysis and respects growth plates” RP Paget usually starts at the epiphysis (fun fact)
64
Enchondroma in distal phalanx, true; a. Cortical destruction suggests chondrosarcoma b. Mafucci // glioma c. Enchondroma and chondrosarcoma similar histologically d. Olliers is autosomal dominant
CCF – endochrondroma and chrondrosarsoma similar histologically SCS: LG chondrosarc similar to the enchondroma histologically Olliers is sporadic/non-hereditary Maffuci- venous malformations + short limb
65
JNA a. Internal maxillary artery most common supply b. Anterior nasal cavity c. 20-30y d. Females
CCF – Internal maxillary most common supply
66
Basal type breast cancer is most likely a. BRCA1 b. HER2+
CCF – BRCA 1 Basal type breast cancer by definition is trip neg.
67
Phyllodes most likely a. Doesn’t usually go to the lymph nodes b. Epithelial and stromal metastasises
CCF – doesn’t go to lymph nodes (heamatogenous rather then LN spread - statdx).
68
Whats assoc w diabetes | a. Lymphocytic mastopathy
CCF. – T fax homie
69
Whats most similar to a radial scar a. Tubular carcinoma b. Medullary c. Mucinous d. IDC
CCF – tubular carcinoma
70
CPPD, incorrect a. Assoc w hydroxyapatite b. Primary assoc patellofemopral OA c. Sec ass hyperparathyroidism d. Pseudogout is deposition of CPP crystals
CCF – Assoc w hydroxyapatite a. Assoc w hydroxyapatite - can see anything on this. b. Primary assoc patellofemopral OA - T c. Sec ass hyperparathyroidism – T d. Pseudogout is deposition of CPP crystals - T
71
Chronic subcutaneous lymphedema what is their pleural effusion a. Transudate effusion b. Exudate effusion c. Chylothorax d. Haemothorax
CCF – Transudate – cant see a reason for the others with provided info - but maybe you can? * *SCS: consider Yellow Nail Syndrome. Exudate. - Nail discolouration, - lymphoedema (peripheral/primary) - Pulmonary disease (bronchiectasis, EXUDATIVE pleural effusion)
72
Cryptochidism a. BL 25% b. 10% 5y have it c. Orchiopexy have it d. The descended contralateral testis is almost always normal
a: Louise Rouse (owner of Darran Rouse) says 25% are bilateral. In unilateral cases the contralateral descended testinut is microscopically abnormal and gets cancer
73
Oropharyngeal SCC a. Reducing incidence b. Older adults c. Better prognosis
CCF – not sure of exact question – answers would vary depending on exact wording and type of OPSCC – few key facts around the options below a. Reducing incidence – HPV+ (p16) cancer is increasing, HPV negative cancer is decreasing (less smoking) b. Older adults – typically adults >45 years, but younger with HPV + c. Better prognosis – HPV positive (p16) has rapid growth but responds better treatment and therefore has a better prognosis (90% at 5 years) vs HPV negative shitty response to rx also associated with multiple primaries “field cancerization” (40% at 5 years) – these cancers are now staged differently.
74
Black pigment stone true a. Malabsorption b. Haemolysis c. TPN
CCF - Haemolysis **SCS: TPN = cholesterol stones.
75
Cavernoma false a. Draining vein b. DVA c. Haemosiderin rim
CCF – Draining vein
76
Prostate false a. Transitional zone b. Gleason 9 bad
CCF – Transitional zone False (peripheral zone)
77
Unilocular expansile lesion posterior mandible, no enhancement, roots of 36 and 37 a. OKC b. Giant radicular cyst c. Ameloblastoma d. Dentigerous cyst
CCF - OKC
78
Peutz-Jegher false - Colonic polyp - Brain cancer
CCF - No ass w brain cancer - Hamatomatous polyps
79
. Adenocarcinoma true - Adeno metastasise late - Adeno grows faster than SCC - Adeno with EGFR responds better to treatment
CCF – Presumably this referrers to lung cancer. -Adeno with EGFR responds better to treatment – Stat dx Adeno mets late – I think its variable, can met early. SCC grows faster than adeno and more aggressive
80
What is true - Yolk sac tumor has good prognosis - Embryonal 5-15
CCF - Yolk sac tumour have a good prognosis - (Embryonal 20s-30 age group – Robbins)
81
Type I vs type II endometrial cancer difference
CCF - Type 1 is endometroid type arises from thickened endometrium, younger vs type 2 55-65. Less aggressive, lymphatic spread PTEN Type 2 – senile – older people 65-75, atrophic endometrum aggressive and can move through tube + peritoneal spread. Serous and clear cell types + mixed mullerain types. Tp53
82
Metastatic fat necrosis - Pancreatc Adenocarcinoma - Pancreatic Acinar cell carcinoma - Glucagomona - insulinoma
CCF - acinar cell Also bone infarcts. **SCS: related to Lipase hypersecretion syndrome: +++ Lipase Eosinophilia Fat necrosis- sub cutaneous esp pressue pointson legs MSK pain due to bone infarcts
83
NF1 which is false - Meningioma - Café au lait
CCF - No meningioma **SCS: SCORNFUL, songs 4 FRCR. Diagnositic criteria. ``` S- six + C - cafe au lait spots (on O - optic glioma, osseous lesions (sphenoid wing dysplasia, pseudoarthrosis) R - relative (1st degree) N - Neurofibromas F - Freckles (axillary and inginal) U - nil L - Lisch nodules (iris hamartoma 2+) ```
84
What is true - PXA involves meninges - PXA is grade IV
CCF – involves the meningies | PXA is grade 2/3
85
Osteoarcoma true | - Increased risk with irradiation
CCF. yes
86
Leiomyoma false - Rarely precursor to leiomyosarcoma - Causes smooth enlargement of uterus - Can extend into veins
CCF | - Can cause smooth enlargement of the uterus - False
87
What is false - Urachal remnant is SCC - Schistosomiasis is SCC
Urachal remnant is SCC – False - Adenocarcinoma
88
Psoriatic arthritis false - Calcific tendinitis - Paravertebral ossification - Plantar enthesitis
CCF | - Calcific tendonitis
89
PML bug - JC virus - Measles
CCF – JC virus
90
NMO false - Bilateral optic nerve - Long optic nerve - Periventricular - Short segment spinal cord lesion
CCF – - Short segment spinal cord lesion – False, spans at least 3 vertebral bodies. Bilateral optic nerve – True - Long optic nerve - True - Periventricular - True
91
MS false - Acute lesion has severe axonal degeneration - Subcortical U fibres
EH - "axons are relatively preserved" - p1271 robbins - in active lesions. CCF - Would favour subcortical U fibres as being true (if says involved) o Juxtacortical lesions are apart of the McDonald Criteria - Although it is now understood that Axonal degeneration happens in the acute phase – but the primary issue in the immediate acute phase is myelin related autoimmune destruction and “severe” is a bit of a stretch - false. **SCS: T1 ‘black holes’ suggest chronic disease with axonal damage. Don’t think you see this acutely radiologically. Maybe pathogically…? WJI: disagree Chris. Subcortical U fibres characteristically involved in MS so this is true. (also PML, ADEM, alexander and canavan). Have dual blood supply and slow turnover so relatively spared in cadasil, chronic sv ischaemia as well as HIV encephalopthy XLAD, metachromatic LD
CDHB Path
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