Pathophysiology

Question 1

A man diagnosed with hypertension has thickening of his left ventricle wall. This adaptive change of his left ventricle is best described as:

• Atrophy
• Hypertrophy
• Hyperplasia
• Metaplasia

Answer 1

-Hypertrophy

Question 2

A cardiac panel helps in the diagnosis of a myocardial infarction and the timing and relative levels of various substances that make up the cardiac panel indicate the severity and duration of an MI.

• True
• False

Answer 2

-True

Question 3

Although adaptation can help strengthen the heart initially to help overcome afterload, eventually if hypertension continues there may be an excess demand on the heart muscle to contract that cannot be met by the available blood supply, causing the heart to fail.

• True
• False

Answer 3

-True

Question 4

Chest pain in Myocardial Infarction is caused by the build-up of the following substance that is formed under anaerobic respiration:

• Oxygen
• Lactic acid
• Glucose
• Carbon dioxide

Answer 4

-Lactic acid

Question 5

Reperfusion injury involves which of the following processes:

• Host inflammatory responses
• Oxygen free radicals attack cellular lipids and proteins
• Damage to cell membranes that may release more free radicals
• Any of the above processes may occur during reperfusion injury

Answer 5

-Any of the above processes may occur during reperfusion injury

Question 6

In myocardial infarction, blood samples contain a variety of substances that have leaked from dead and dying cardiomyocytes, including:

• Troponin 1
• CK-MB
• Myoglobin
• All of the above

Answer 6

-All of the above

Question 7

Chronic ulcerative processes have been attributed to reperfusion injury as a consequence of alternating occlusion of blood flow then return of blood flow that sets off both inflammatory and oxidative stress responses that can cause tissue damage.

• True
• False

Answer 7

-True

Question 8

Reperfusion injury is caused by the formation of:

• Reactive oxygen species
• Oxygen
• Lactic acid
• Calcium

Answer 8

-Reactive oxygen species

Question 9

The most important change related to atherosclerosis that contributes to hypertension would be a(n):

• Decreased radius of the blood vessel
• Decreased viscosity of the blood
• Increased length of the blood vessel
• Increased radius of the blood vessel

Answer 9

-Decreased radius of the blood vessel

Question 10

The heart undergoes which type of adaptation in response to hypertension:

• Atrophy
• Hypertrophy
• Hyperplasia
• Metaplasia

Answer 10

-Hypertrophy

Question 11

Infection with Clostridium perfringens and the release of exotoxins is most likely associated with which type of gangrene?

• Dry gangrene
• Wet gangrene
• Gas gangrene
• Fournier’s gangrene

Answer 11

-Gas gangrene

Question 12

Which of the following treatment approaches for gangrene is best described as the surgical removal of dead and dying tissue?

• Debridement
• Hyperbaric Oxygen Therapy
• Antibiotic Therapy
• Anticoagulants

Answer 12

-Debridement

Question 13

The basic pathological process that underpins gangrene is a lack of oxygen usually due to ischemia.

• True
• False

Answer 13

-True

Question 14

During the reproductive cycle in the female, hormonal stimulation increases the thickness of the endometrial lining of the uterus by increasing the number of epithelial cells. This is an example of the following type of adaptation:

• Atrophy
• Hypertrophy
• Hyperplasia
• Metaplasia

Answer 14

-Hyperplasia

Question 15

During a myocardial infarction, cardiac monocytes are deprived of oxygen and acidosis results in protein denaturation and the cellular outline is preserved. This type of necrosis is best described as:

• Coagulative
• Liquefactive
• Caseous
• Fat

Answer 15

-Coagulative

Question 16

During a focal bacterial infection, destruction of bacteria and immune cells results in the formation of pus. This type of necrosis is best described as:

• Coagulative necrosis
• Liquefactive necrosis
• Caseous necrosis
• Fat necrosis

Answer 16

-Liquefactive necrosis

Question 17

During cell injury:

• Use of anaerobic metabolism increases lactic acid production, which can lead to cellular damage
• Reactive oxygen species are formed and interact with cellular proteins and lipids, causing cellular damage
• Compromise to membrane integrity can allow ions such as calcium to enter the cells, causing cellular damage
• Any of the above can occur during cell injury

Answer 17

-Any of the above can occur during cell injury

Question 18

Cells can die by necrosis or apoptosis. Which of the following characteristics is associated with apoptosis BUT NOT necrosis?

• Autodigestion
• Inflammatory response
• Pyknosis
• Fragmented DNA

Answer 18

-Fragmented DNA

**This was listed as the correct answer, but I thought autodigestion was right based on our midterm

Question 19

Hemosiderin is a golden brown pigment formed from phospholipids and proteins that is observed when cellular membranes degenerate.

• True
• False

Answer 19

-False

Question 20

Normally, the body has anti-oxidant systems to deal with reactive oxygen species. These anti-oxidant systems include superoxide dismutase, which is an enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide into water.

• True
• False

Answer 20

-False

Question 21

Although cellular injury is often reversible, the one characteristic that distinguishes reversible and irreversible cell injury is that irreversible injury is marked by the influx of calcium, which signals cell death.

• True
• False

Answer 21

-True

Question 22

Caseous necrosis involves the release of lipases, which digests fats and forms a soap-like substance as the fats combine with minerals such as calcium and magnesium.

• True
• False

Answer 22

-False

Question 23

Which of the following types of hereditary or familial colon cancer are associated with mutations in DNA repair genes?

• FAP
• HNPCC

Answer 23

-HNPCC

Question 24

Screening tests that measure the presence of blood in the stool include:

• Colonoscopy
• FOBT
• CEA
• All of the above

Answer 24

-FOBT

Question 25

Changes in both oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes are typically required for FAP to develop. - True - False

Answer 25

-True

Question 26

The RB1 gene (pRB) is which kind of gene? - Oncogene - Tumor suppressor gene - DNA repair gene - Telomerase gene

Answer 26

-Tumor suppressor gene

Question 27

Normally the RB1 gene (pARB): - Activates DNA repair proteins, thus makes sure new mutations are not passed on to progeny cells - Arrests the cell cycle to allow DNA repair to take place - Governs the passage of the restriction point in the cell cycle, thus regulates cell proliferation - Initiates apoptosis

Answer 27

-Governs the passage of the restriction point in the cell cycle, thus regulates cell proliferation

Question 28

Germline mutations are inherited, whereas somatic mutations are acquired. - True - False

Answer 28

-True

Question 29

Lung cancer is used to support the initiation, promotion, progression theory of carcinogenesis. According to this theory: - Initiation is a reversible step caused by exposure to cigarette smoke - Promotion is initially reversible, but must follow initiation for tumors to form - Progression involves the mutation of DNA and is an irreversible step - Promotion is associated with metastasis and genomic instability, among other cellular changes

Answer 29

-Promotion is initially reversible, but must follow initiation for tumors to form

Question 30

The most common cause of lung cancer is: - Asbestos exposure - Radon gas - Cigarette smoking - Inherited genetic mutation

Answer 30

-Cigarette smoking

Question 31

Small-cell lung cancer can present as diabetes insipidus since these cells can release aldosterone. - True - False

Answer 31

-False

Question 32

Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML) is associated with expansion of which of the following cell populations: - Erythrocytes only - Lymphocytes only - Granulocytes and Platelets only - Granulocytes, Erythrocytes, and Platelets only

Answer 32

-Granulocytes, Erythrocytes, and Platelets only

Question 33

The phase of CML associated with fewer than 10% of cells in the blood and bone marrow being of the blast form is referred to as: - Chronic phase - Accelerated phase - Blast phase - Remission

Answer 33

-Chronic phase

Question 34

The formation of the Philadelphia chromosome occurs by a chromosomal translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 and results in the activation of tyrosine kinase. - True - False

Answer 34

-True

Question 35

Cancer cells are generally characterized by: - Increased rates of proliferation - The ability to produce telomerase - Poor differentiation or immaturity - Cancer cells are generally characterized by all of the above

Answer 35

-Cancer cells are generally characterized by all of the above

Question 36

Cancer cells are associated with a number of mutations. One gene that is often mutated in cancer cells is the pRB gene. This gene is responsible for: - Causing the cell to pause so that DNA repair can take place - Allowing cells to pass the R point and become committed to completion of the cell cycle - Adding new telomeres to the chromosomes of the cell - Causing phosphorylation of cellular proteins that are responsible for cell division

Answer 36

-Allowing cells to pass the R point and become committed to completion of the cell cycle

Question 37

Mutations in only one allele of these genes (listed below), which normally promote cell growth, is associated with changes associated with cancer. - Tumor suppressor genes - Protooncogenes - DNA repair genes - Genes encoding telomerase

Answer 37

-Protooncogenes

Question 38

Mutations in which type of genes is most generally associated with Hereditary NonPolyposis Colon Cancer (HNPCC)? - Tumor suppressor genes - Protooncogenes - DNA repair genes - Genes encoding telomerase

Answer 38

-DNA repair genes

Question 39

Advanced forms of cancer may involve the spread of the original tumor cells to distant sites within the body. This process is most accurately described as: - Invasion - Angiogenesis - Metastasis - Cachexia

Answer 39

-Metastasis

Question 40

Which of the following tumors would be considered most advanced? - T1N0M0 - T2N1M1 - T3N2M1 - T1N1M1

Answer 40

-T3N2M1

Question 41

Cancer cells from Henrietta Lacks, who died in 1951, still grow in many laboratories in tissue culture. These cells, which essentially continue to divide, are immortalized. - True - False

Answer 41

-True

Question 42

Most mutations associated with cancer are inherited rather than due to environmental exposures - True - False

Answer 42

-False

Question 43

Cancer is genetic, but not necessarily inherited. - True - False

Answer 43

-True

Question 44

In the initiation-promotion theory of cancer, initiation is thought to involve an irreversible mutation in the DNA of a cell. - True - False

Answer 44

-True

Question 45

Cystic Fibrosis (CF) is which kind of genetic disorder? - Autosomal dominant - Autosomal recessive - X-linked dominant - X-linked recessive

Answer 45

-Autosomal Recessive

Question 46

If two parents were each heterozygous for CF and they had a child, what is the chance that the child would have CF disease? - 100% - 50% - 25% - 10%

Answer 46

-25%

Question 47

Newborn screening can detect the common mutation for CF and help provide early interventions to improve nutrition and growth. - True - False

Answer 47

-True

Question 48

Sickle Cell Disease is caused by: - A point mutation in the beta-globin gene - A deletion of the beta-globin gene - A point mutation in the alpha-globin gene - A deletion of the alpha-globin gene

Answer 48

-A point mutation in the beta-globin gene

Question 49

Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is typically associated with: - Occlusion of blood vessels as cells sickle under high oxygen tension - Hemolysis that can result in elevated serum bilirubin - Congestion of the liver and spleen due to inflammation - Autoimmune destruction of the liver and spleen

Answer 49

-Hemolysis that can result in elevated serum bilirubin

Question 50

Hydroxyurea may help reduce sickle cell crisis by increasing fetal hemoglobin production, thus help reduce the occurrence of sickling-related complications. - True - False

Answer 50

-True

Question 51

Which type of genetic disorder typically causes Down Syndrome: - Translocation - Point mutation - Trisomy - Monosomy

Answer 51

-Trisomy

Question 52

A child with Down Syndrome should be evaluated for: - Congenital heart defects - Hearing loss - Polycythemia - All of the above

Answer 52

-All of the above

Question 53

Down syndrome is typically inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. - True - False

Answer 53

-False

Question 54

The inheritance pattern of hemophilia A is: - Autosomal dominant - Autosomal recessive - X-linked - Mitochondrial

Answer 54

-X-linked

Question 55

Based upon the pedigree for a patient who has an affected brother and maternal uncle with, which of the following statements is correct? - His father has hemophilia - His mother is a carrier of the hemophilia trait - His paternal grandfather is a carrier of the hemophilia trait - All of his sisters would be carriers of the hemophilia trait

Answer 55

-His mother is a carrier of the hemophilia trait

Question 56

Depending upon the values for FVIII assays, a person with hemophilia will have different disease severity with more mild disease associated with higher levels of FVIII. - True - False

Answer 56

-True

Question 57

Which of the following terms relates to the concept that as DNA is copied, one original and one newly formed copy of the DNA is inherited together in each of the progeny cells? - Complement base pairing - Semi-conservative replication - Redundancy in the genetic code - Central Dogma

Answer 57

-Semi-conservative replication

Question 58

The kind of genetic mutation that results in the change of an amino acid sequence in the protein sequence is best described as a: - Silent mutation - Missense mutation - Nonsense mutation - Antisense mutation

Answer 58

-Missense mutation

Question 59

Two parents are both carriers of cystic fibrosis have four children. How many would likely be carriers of cystic fibrosis? - 1 - 2 - 3 - 4

Answer 59

-2

Question 60

Which of the following statements is correct about Hemophilia A? - Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder - Hemophilia A is mitochondrially inherited from mother to child - Hemophilia A is generally only found in males because it is carried on the Y chromosome - Hemophilia A is only carried by females with two affected alleles

Answer 60

-Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder

Question 61

Which of the following genetic disorders results in aneuploidy? - Sickle Cell Disease - Hemophilia A - Down Syndrome - Cystic Fibrosis

Answer 61

-Down Syndrome

Question 62

Most genetic disorders of medical importance involve a combination of changes in a number of genes that are either inherited or acquired by environmental influences. Such genetic disorders are best described as: - Single-gene disorders - Chromosomal disorders - Multifactorial disorders - Mitochondrial disorders

Answer 62

-Multifactorial disorders

Question 63

Crossing-over involves the exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes during meiosis. - True - False

Answer 63

-True

Question 64

Reduction of chromosome number from 46 to 23 occurs during meiosis. - True - False

Answer 64

-True

Question 65

The principle of segregation means that genes governing distinct individual traits are separated and inherited independently of one another. - True - False

Answer 65

-False

Question 66

Chromosomes other than the X and Y chromosome are referred to as autosomes. - True - False

Answer 66

-True

Question 67

TSI represents: - Another word for TSH - Antibodies that act like TSH - Antibodies that act like TH - Antibodies that act like TRH

Answer 67

-Antibodies that act like TSH

Question 68

Blood tests from a patient with Graves would reveal: - Decreased levels of TSH - Increased levels of TSI - Increased levels of TH - All of the above

Answer 68

-All of the above

Question 69

TSI functions as an agonist for TSH, because it functions equal to or better than natural TSH in stimulating the release of TH from the thyroid gland. - True - False

Answer 69

-True

Question 70

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is most likely caused by: - Genetic changes - Environmental trigger like viral infection - A combination of genetic predisposition plus an environmental trigger like viral infection - A bacterial infection

Answer 70

-A combination of genetic predisposition plus an environmental trigger like viral infection

Question 71

Ketones: - Are derived from carbohydrates and can be used to fuel the body - Are formed when insulin levels are sufficient to allow glucose uptake by cells - Are acidic and give rise to ketoacidosis in excess - Are derived from proteins as the body tries to fuel itself during starvation

Answer 71

-Are acidic and give rise to ketoacidosis in excess

Question 72

Polyuria results from the osmotic shift that occurs as excess blood glucose is retained in the filtrate, causing water to be retained in the tubule and increasing urine output. - True - False

Answer 72

-True

Question 73

Loss of the mineralcorticoid aldosterone would most likely give rise to which of the following S/S of Addison's Disease. - Low blood pressure - Hypoglycemia - Hyperpigmentation - Increased risk of infection

Answer 73

-Low blood pressure

Question 74

Which of the following statements is correct about Addison's Disease? - Primary adrenal insufficiency is due to lack of ACTH - Primary adrenal insufficiency may be due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland - Primary adrenal insufficiency may be caused by use of prednisone - Secondary adrenal insufficiency is due to lack of cortisol

Answer 74

-Primary adrenal insufficiency may be due to autoimmune destruction of the adrenal gland

Question 75

Elevated cortisol levels associated with Addison's Disease give rise to the elevated ACTH observed in our patient. - True - False

Answer 75

-False

Question 76

Exogenous causes of Cushings Syndrome include: - Pituitary adenoma - Adrenal tumor - Non-pituitary ACTH-secreting tumor - Prednisone use for an autoimmune disease

Answer 76

-Prednisone use for an autoimmune disease

Question 77

The buffalo hump and moon face are most likely associated with which of the following normal functions of cortisol? - Stimulation of gluconeogenesis - Inhibition of anti-stress responses - Activation of anti-inflammatory pathways - Fluid retention

Answer 77

-Stimulation of gluconeogenesis

Question 78

Most cases of endogenous Cushings Syndrome are caused by a pituitary adenoma. This form of Cushings Syndrome is referred to as Cushings Disease. - True - False

Answer 78

-True

Question 79

Excessive growth hormone production in the adult is referred to as: - Acromegaly - Gigantism - Adrenal Insufficiency - Addison's Disease

Answer 79

-Acromegaly

Question 80

Which of the following adrenal cortex hormones is released during response to stress? - Mineralcorticoids - Glucocorticoids - Steroidal Sex Hormones - Epinephrine

Answer 80

-Glucocorticoids

Question 81

Which of the following is an example of hyperthyroidism? - Cretinism - Myxedema - Hashimotos Disease - Graves Disease

Answer 81

-Graves Disease

Question 82

Which of the following is most likely associated with excess production of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? - Rickets - Osteomalacia - Renal Calculi (Stones) - Autoimmune destruction of the parathyroid gland

Answer 82

-Renal Calculi (Stones)

Question 83

The pancreas has a number of endocrine responsibilities including: - Release of insulin, when glucose levels are low to help bring glucose into cells - Release of glucagon, when glucose levels are high to help store glucose by the liver - Release of insulin, when glucose levels are high to help recruit glucose transporters to the cells - Release of glucose, when stores in the pancreas when insulin levels are slow

Answer 83

-Release of insulin, when glucose levels are high to help recruit glucose transporters to the cells

Question 84

Which of the following conditions results from excess thyroid hormone? - Cretinism - Myxedema - Hashimoto's disease - Thyrotoxicosis

Answer 84

-Thyrotoxicosis

Question 85

Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex is best described as secondary adrenal insufficiency. - True - False

Answer 85

-False

Question 86

Individuals suffering from Addison's disease may suffer from hyperpigmentation, since excess ACTH stimulates melanocytes. - True - False

Answer 86

-True

Question 87

Goiter is associated with hypothyroidism, which is the excessive production of thyroid hormone. - True - False

Answer 87

-False

Question 88

A child with growth hormone deficiency would likely be short of stature and overweight for age. - True - False

Answer 88

-True

Question 89

Which of the following statements is correct about Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)? - BPH actually involves a hypertrophy process rather than hyperplasia - BPH often includes urine storage symptoms including urinary frequency and urgency, and nocturia - Incomplete voiding in BPH decreases the risk of a urinary tract infection - BPH is caused by too little testosterone that stimulates the prostate

Answer 89

-BPH often includes urine storage symptoms including urinary frequency and urgency, and nocturia

Question 90

Diagnosis of BPH includes: - Presentation of clinical symptoms often related to urinary frequency or hesitancy - A rectal examination to feel for an enlarged prostate gland - Evaluation of blood for PSA levels, which are often elevated - All of the above may be used to help diagnose BPH

Answer 90

-All of the above may be used to help diagnose BPH

Question 91

Enlargement of the prostate gland compresses the urethral canal making it difficult for urine outflow in benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). - True - False

Answer 91

-True

Question 92

Which of the following scenarios would most likely be associated with primary hypogonadism? - Lack of GnRH production by the hypothalamus - Lack of LH production by the anterior pituitary - Lack of FSH production by the anterior pituitary - Lack of testosterone production by the testes

Answer 92

-Lack of testosterone production by the testes

Question 93

Testosterone is responsible for: - Deepening the voice - Muscular development - Sperm production - All of the above

Answer 93

-All of the above

Question 94

Hypogonadism may be caused by an inherited (congenital) trait or something that happens later in life (acquired) such as injury or infection. - True - False

Answer 94

-True

Question 95

Major symptoms of endometriosis include: - Dysmenorrhea - Chronic pelvic pain - Dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse) - Any of the above

Answer 95

-Any of the above

Question 96

The pathogenesis of endometriosis is believed to involve - Hereditary factors - Exposure to environmental toxins - Compromised immune system - Some combination of hereditary factors, exposure to environmental toxins, and compromise to the immune system

Answer 96

-Some combination of hereditary factors, exposure to environmental toxins, and compromise to the immune system

Question 97

The theory of retrograde menstruation suggests that during menstruation some endometrial material exits the uterus through the fallopian tubes and attaches itself to the peritoneal surface setting up endometriosis. - True - False

Answer 97

-True

Question 98

Typical symptoms of PCOS include: - Excess weight - Loss of menstruation' - Facial hair - All of the above

Answer 98

-All of the above

Question 99

In PCOS, the relationship between insulin and obesity is best described by the phrase: - Insulin resistance leads to excess blood glucose levels that are converted into fat by the liver - Insulin helps glucose get into the adipose cells so that fat stores are increased - Excess insulin leads to increase uptake of glucose - Insulin levels and action are typically normal in a person with PCOS

Answer 99

-Insulin resistance leads to excess blood glucose levels that are converted into fat by the liver

Question 100

Infertility is an important consequence of PCOS and many women with PCOS have difficulty becoming pregnant. - True - False

Answer 100

-True

Question 101

Inflammation of the prostate is best described as: - Enlarged Prostate - Prostatitis - Benign Prostate Hypertrophy - Prostate Cancer

Answer 101

-Prostatitis

Question 102

A man with low sperm count is found to have low testosterone levels. He is given GnRH, which does not change testosterone levels. He is given LH, which raises testosterone levels to normal levels. Based upon this information you can determine that the problem with this man is most likely that his: - Hypothalamus is not releasing GnRH - Anterior pituitary is not releasing LH - Leydig cells cannot produce testosterone - Sertoli cells cannot produce androgen binding proteins

Answer 102

-Anterior pituitary is not releasing LH

Question 103

Painful menstruation is best described by the term. - Amenorrhea - Menopause - Dysmenorrhea - Leiomyoma

Answer 103

-Dysmenorrhea

Question 104

During embryonic development, the nervous system is derived from which of the following primary germ layers? - Ectoderm - Mesoderm - Endoderm - Somatoderm

Answer 104

-Ectoderm

Question 105

During pregnancy there are a number of hormones that help maintain the pregnancy and prepare for delivery and lactation. Which of the following hormones is responsible for increasing maternal metabolism during pregnancy? - Relaxin - Human placental lactogen - Human chorionic thyrotropin - Human chorionic gonadotropin

Answer 105

-Human chorionic thyrotropin

Question 106

Infertility resulting from damage or blockage of the fallopian tubes would most likely be associated with which of the following: - Uterine fibroids - Disorders of the hypothalamus - Endometriosis - Polycystic ovary disease

Answer 106

-Endometriosis

Question 107

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease can be caused by bacterial infections and give rise to infertility. - True - False

Answer 107

-True

Question 108

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by the corpus luteum after fertilization and until the placenta is formed. - True - False

Answer 108

-False

Question 109

Colostrum is a nutrient rich substance secreted from breast tissue before breast milk is formed. - True - False

Answer 109

-True

Question 110

A high sperm count is required for fertility, as many sperm release the contents of their acrosomes to help degrade the zona pellucida. This process best described as a block to polyspermy - True - False

Answer 110

-False

Question 111

Information about touch and pressure that ascends the dorsal columns is carried by the: - Fast myelinated fibers - Fast unmyelinated fibers - Slow Unmyelinated fibers - Unmyelinated fibers

Answer 111

-Fast myelinated fibers

Question 112

Slow pain information is carried on the slowest nerve fibers, called the: - Fast myelinated fibers - Fast unmyelinated fibers - Slow myelinated fibers - Unmyelinated fibers -C-fibers

Answer 112

-Unmyelinated fibers -C-fibers

Question 113

Brown-Sequard results in the loss of pain and temperature sensation on the same side as the lesion along with loss of voluntary motor control on the opposite side of the lesion. - True - False

Answer 113

-False

Question 114

Stroke is defined as: - The rapidly developing loss of brain functions due to a disturbance in the blood vessels supplying blood to the brain - An open head injury - Sudden movement of the brain resulting in a diffuse but transient and reversible injury to the brain - Bruising of the brain during blunt trauma in a closed head injury

Answer 114

-The rapidly developing loss of brain functions due to a disturbance in the blood vessels supplying blood to the brain

Question 115

Stroke may be caused by: - Thrombosis - Embolism - Hypoperfusion - All of the above

Answer 115

-All of the above

Question 116

Stroke is most commonly the result of a traumatic brain injury. - True - False

Answer 116

-False

Question 117

Which statement about multiple sclerosis is true? - Multiple sclerosis is associated with destruction of motor neurons in the peripheral nervous system - Multiple sclerosis involves inflammation and possibly autoimmune destruction of the myelin sheaths of neurons - Multiple sclerosis is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait - Infection with cytomegalovirus in individuals with specific HLA markers has been shown to cause multiple sclerosis

Answer 117

-Multiple sclerosis involves inflammation and possibly autoimmune destruction of the myelin sheaths of neurons

Question 118

Which of the following disease courses for Multiple Sclerosis is associated with episodes of acute worsening with recovery and a stable course between relapses? - Relapsing-remitting - Secondary progressive - Primary progressive - Progressive relapsing

Answer 118

-Relapsing-remitting

Question 119

Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis includes presence of gamma globulin in the cerebral spinal fluid, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of CNS showing patch abnormalities in myelin. - True - False

Answer 119

-True

Question 120

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about Alzheimer's disease (AD)? - AD is a rare form of dementia - AD is highly curable but requires early detection - AD is progressive and eventually leads to death - AD has a rapid onset

Answer 120

-AD is progressive and eventually leads to death

Question 121

Which of the following stages of Alzheimer's disease would most likely be associated with mild forgetfulness, absent-mindedness and occasionally misplacing items? - Pre-dementia - Progressive - Moderate - Late

Answer 121

-Pre-dementia

Question 122

Amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are clearly visible by microscopy in brain tissue from individuals afflicted with Alzheimer's disease. - True - False

Answer 122

-True

Question 123

The region of the brain that contains the hypothalamus is the: - Cerebral hemispheres - Diencephalon - Brain stem - Cerebellum

Answer 123

-Diencephalon

Question 124

Head injuries are often characterized by problems with: - Hypoxia - Increased intracranial pressure - Edema - Any or all of the above

Answer 124

-Any or all of the above

Question 125

Sharp, stabbing pain is relayed through which of the following sensory tracts: - Fast myelinated fibers - Slow myelinated fibers - Fast unmyelinated fibers - Slow unmyelinated fibers

Answer 125

-Slow myelinated fibers

Question 126

The neurotransmitter receptor that is found at parasympathetic postganglionic synapses that can be blocked by atropine is the:: - Nicotinic receptor - Muscarinic receptor - Alpha-adrenergic receptor - Beta-adrenergic receptor

Answer 126

-Muscarinic receptor

Question 127

The neurological disease associated with autoimmune destruction of the myelin basic protein is: - Multiple sclerosis - Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - Huntington's disease - Parkinson's disease

Answer 127

-Multiple sclerosis

Question 128

A temporary and fully resolvable brain injury would best be described by the term: - Stroke - Cerebrovascular accident - Transient ischemic attack - Contusion

Answer 128

-Transient ischemic attack

Question 129

Depression is associated with high levels of neurotransmitters, like serotonin, and may be alleviated by drugs such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). - True - False

Answer 129

-False

Question 130

An aneurysm is localized dilation of a blood vessel, that can rupture and lead to an intracranial bleed. - True - False

Answer 130

-True

Question 131

The medulla is involved in governing both the respiratory and cardiovascular systems. - True - False

Answer 131

-True

Question 132

A man experiences a stroke with left-sided hemiparesis. Based upon this information, you would expect his lesion to be on the left side. - True - False

Answer 132

-False

Question 133

Which of the following statements about asthma is NOT CORRECT? - Asthma is primarily a restrictive respiratory disorder - Increased airway resistance is characteristic of asthma - In asthma, the FEV1/FVC ratio may be decreased from normal - Asthma may be characterized by a hyperinflation of the lungs, which is reflected as an increase in residual volume - Asthma may be associated with symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, shortness of breath, or chest tightness

Answer 133

-Asthma is primarily a restrictive respiratory disorder

Question 134

Which of the following statements about asthma is CORRECT? - Increased airway resistance would result from an increase in airway radius - A beta-agonist would promote bronchoconstriction thus would reduce airway resistance - V/Q mismatching in asthma would generally be characterized as an increase in the shunt fraction - Anti-inflammatory agents like a glucocorticoid would not be beneficial to a patient with asthma, since asthma is a disorder that is not associated with inflammation

Answer 134

-V/Q mismatching in asthma would generally be characterized as an increase in the shunt fraction

Question 135

Hypocapnia occurs as a consequence of hypoventilation, which reduces CO2 levels. - True - False

Answer 135

-False

Question 136

Which of the following statements about Pulmonary Fibrosis is CORRECT? - Pulmonary fibrosis is an obstructive pulmonary disorder - Pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by reduced or restricted airflow through the airways - The parameter of Fick's law of diffusion altered in a person with pulmonary fibrosis is "x" - Persons with pulmonary fibrosis have an increased compliance

Answer 136

-The parameter of Fick's law of diffusion altered in a person with pulmonary fibrosis is "x"

Question 137

Which of the following statements about Pulmonary Fibrosis is NOT CORRECT? - Persons with pulmonary fibrosis have an increased total lung capacity (TLC) - Pulmonary fibrosis may be associated with an inflammatory process that leads to an increase in scar tissue - Reduced PaO2 levels are due to impaired gas exchange - Decreased PaCO2 levels may be a consequence of hyperventilation

Answer 137

-Persons with pulmonary fibrosis have an increased total lung capacity (TLC)

Question 138

When a person with pulmonary fibrosis exercises, the ability to equilibrate oxygen may be compromised by an increased thickness of the respiratory membrane. - True - False

Answer 138

-True

Question 139

A patient with COPD has a "prolonged expiratory phase" to his respirations. In the case of emphysema what is the most likely mechanism that underlies this slowing of forced expiration? - Increased airway resistance due to mucus - Loss of elastic recoil of the lungs - Increased airway resistance due to inflammation - Smooth muscle constriction of the airways

Answer 139

-Loss of elastic recoil of the lungs

Question 140

A patient with COPD has an increased PaCO2 value at 69 mmHg and an increased bicarbonate value at 34 mEq/L. Based upon these values our patient most likely was in: - Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation - Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation - Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation - Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation

Answer 140

-Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation

Question 141

The primary risk factor for COPD is tobacco smoking, but an inherited genetic condition is responsible for a minority of cases. - True - False

Answer 141

-True

Question 142

Which of the following is NOT considered a specific risk factor or indication for pulmonary embolism? - Female - Birth control pill use - Overweight - Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Answer 142

-Female

Question 143

Virchow's triad includes all of the following EXCEPT: - Change in vessel wall - Decreased blood flow - Decreased coagulability of the blood - Increased coagulability of the blood

Answer 143

-Decreased coagulability of the blood

Question 144

One of the most common sources of embolism in pulmonary embolism is deep vein thrombosis of the popliteal vein. - True - False

Answer 144

-True

Question 145

Jason smoked a considerable amount in college. One day, he experienced sharp chest pain and could not catch his breath. His roommate took him to the emergency room where he was diagnosed with a collapsed lung. Based upon the above information, Jason's condition would most likely be described as a: - Tension pneumothorax - Secondary pneumothorax - Spontaneous pneumothorax - Traumatic pneumothorax

Answer 145

-Spontaneous pneumothorax

Question 146

Which of the following would most likely be associated with an increase in lung compliance? - Pulmonary fibrosis - Pulmonary edema - Emphysema - Pneumonia

Answer 146

-Emphysema

Question 147

Jane had a chest infection and was feeling short of breath, experiencing a sharp pain in her chest. Her nurse practitioner detected diminished breath sounds and chest x-ray revealed that Jane was suffering from a pleural effusion. Thoracentesis (a pleural tap) was performed to remove a sample of the fluid causing the effusion, and lymph was detected. Based upon this information, Jane is most likely suffering from a(n): - Hydrothorax - Empyema - Hemothorax - Chylothorax

Answer 147

-Chylothorax

Question 148

Which of the following conditions best describes primary atelectasis? - A baby is born prematurely and lacks surfactant - A man suffers from an airway obstruction caused by a mucus plug - A woman suffers from a pneumothorax caused by a traumatic accident - A man is in a car accident and suffers a vascular injury that results in a pleural effusion

Answer 148

-A baby is born prematurely and lacks surfactant

Question 149

Which of the following scenarios best describes a condition where the amount of dead space is increased? - A woman with pneumonia and mucous plugs - A man with a blood clot that embolizes to the lungs - A child suffering from bronchoconstriction - An elderly man that has pulmonary edema

Answer 149

-A man with a blood clot that embolizes to the lungs

Question 150

Which of the following best describes an obstructive lung disorder? - Decreased compliance - Pulmonary fibrosis - Pulmonary edema - Increased airway resistance

Answer 150

-Increased airway resistance

Question 151

The most important variable governing airway resistance is the radius of the airway. - True - False

Answer 151

-True

Question 152

The Forced Expiratory Volume in one second (FEV1) is often reduced in an obstructive lung disorder like asthma because of increased airway resistance to expiratory flow. - True - False

Answer 152

-True

Question 153

A congenital heart defect that causes venous blood to directly join the arterial circulation (thus bypassing gas exchange in the lungs) would promote hypoxemia. - True - False

Answer 153

-True

Question 154

Smoking is the most common cause of lung cancer. - True - False

Answer 154

-True

Question 155

All of the characteristics below describe the structure of the glomerulus in renal failure EXCEPT one. Identify the characteristic that DOES NOT describe the glomerulus. - Fenestrated capillary endothelium - Incomplete basement membrane - Positively charged basement membrane - Podocytes and slit pores in the tubule epithelial cells

Answer 155

-Positively charged basement membrane

Question 156

Patients with renal failure may: - Suffer from anemia because they are unable to produce sufficient levels of renin - Require calcium supplementation because the kidneys normally activate vitamin D, which is required for the absorption of calcium from dietary sources - Experience both a decrease in hydrostatic pressure as well as an increase in osmotic pressure, which would account for the edema they experience - Have an increased GFR that would account for the elevated creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels

Answer 156

-Require calcium supplementation because the kidneys normally activate vitamin D, which is required for the absorption of calcium from dietary sources

Question 157

A patient with renal failure is likely to also have hyperalbuminemia - True - False

Answer 157

-False

Question 158

Diabetes insipidus: - Is due to a lack of insulin secretion by the pancreas - May be caused by a lack of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH or vasopressin) secretion from the anterior pituitary - May be caused by a decreased ability of the kidney to respond to available ADH - Is characterized by an elevated fasting blood glucose level

Answer 158

-May be caused by a decreased ability of the kidney to respond to available ADH

Question 159

Which of the following statements about diabetes insipidus is CORRECT? - Central diabetes insipidus may be treated by dDAVP, which is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin (or ADH) - Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus may be treated with dDAVP, which is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin (or ADH) - A person with central diabetes insipidus would have a normal level of ADH - Central diabetes insipidus is most often caused by chronic lithium ingestion

Answer 159

-Central diabetes insipidus may be treated by dDAVP, which is a synthetic replacement for vasopressin (or ADH)

Question 160

Excessive urination associated with diabetes insipidus can cause dehydration and potassium losses. - True - False

Answer 160

-True

Question 161

A person with a recent sore throat that subsequently develops glomerulonephritis (GN) would most likely have their GN attributed to: - Bacterial endocarditis - Streptococcal infection - Lupus - Goodpasture's syndrome

Answer 161

-Streptococcal infection

Question 162

Which of the following complications of glomerulonephritis is characterized by a massive loss of proteins? - Acute kidney failure - Chronic kidney failure - High blood pressure - Nephrotic syndrome

Answer 162

-Nephrotic syndrome

Question 163

A kidney biopsy can be used to confirm the diagnosis of glomerulonephritis. - True - False

Answer 163

-True

Question 164

Which of the following would most likely be considered to be an ischemic cause of acute tubular necrosis (ATN)? - Rhabdomyolysis - Heavy metal exposure - Shock - Cisplatin treatment for cancer

Answer 164

-Shock

Question 165

A person with acute tubular necrosis (ATN) most likely would have: - Decreased BUN and serum creatinine levels - Hyperkalemia - Increased urine output - Alkalosis

Answer 165

-Hyperkalemia

Question 166

Blood transfusion reaction can cause acute tubular necrosis (ATN). - True - False

Answer 166

-True

Question 167

Which of the following statements about nephritic and/or nephrotic syndromes is correct? - In nephrotic syndrome there is significant basement membrane damage that allows massive protein losses into the urine - In nephrotic syndrome there is massive red blood cell loss without significant protein loss into the urine - Nephrotic syndrome, but not nephritic syndrome, is characterized by hematuria - Nephrotic syndrome, but not nephritic syndrome, is characterized by fluid retention and edema

Answer 167

-In nephrotic syndrome there is significant basement membrane damage that allows massive protein losses into the urine

Question 168

Renal calculi would be best classified as which of the following types of renal disease? - Pre Renal - Intra Renal - Renal - Post Renal

Answer 168

-Post Renal

Question 169

Which of the following statements about the renin-angiotension system is correct? - The macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus release renin - Angiotensin I is a potent vasoactive substance - Angiotensin Converting Enzyme converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II - Aldosterone is released from the adrenal medulla

Answer 169

-Angiotensin Converting Enzyme converts angiotensin I into angiotensin II

Question 170

Which of the following hormones would most likely cause a decrease in blood volume and decrease mean arterial pressure? - Angiotensin II - Aldosterone - Atrial Naturetic Factor - Antidiuretic hormone

Answer 170

-Atrial Naturetic Factor

Question 171

Jaime is not secreting sufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from her posterior pituitary. Likely she is suffering from: - Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH) - Central (or neurogenic) Diabetes Insipidus - Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus - Renovascular hypertension

Answer 171

-Central (or neurogenic) Diabetes Insipidus

Question 172

Bob is a 68-year-old male with a history of smoking, high cholesterol, and high blood pressure. On physical examination an abdominal bruit is heard. Likely Bob is suffering from: - Diabetic Nephropathy - Chronic Kidney Disease - Renal Cell Carcinoma - Renovascular Hypertension

Answer 172

-Renovascular Hypertension

Question 173

Infection of the kidneys is called cystitis. - True - False

Answer 173

-False

Question 174

Uremic syndrome describes elevated serum levels of nitrogen-containing substances including urea, creatinine, and uric acid. - True - False

Answer 174

-False

Question 175

Spirinolactone acts as a diuretic by inhibiting aldosterone. - True - False

Answer 175

-True

Question 176

Chronic renal failure is often associated with either anemia or calcium imbalances or both. - True - False

Answer 176

-True

Question 177

In MI, death of tissue due to necrosis is best described as: - Ischemia - Infarction - Hypoxemia

Answer 177

-Infarction

Question 178

Vasodilation of coronary vessels to increase blood flow to the heart is best achieved by the use of: - Supplemental oxygen - Nitroglycerine - Metoprolol

Answer 178

-Nitroglycerine

Question 179

Ace inhibitors activate angiotensin II, thus use of an ace inhibitor would result in vasodilation. - True - False

Answer 179

-False

Question 180

Which of the following conditions is a risk factor for hypertension? - Smoking - Diabetes - Obesity - All of the above are risk factors for hypertension

Answer 180

-All of the above are risk factors for hypertension

Question 181

Which of the following substances would directly block the production of angiotension II? - ACE inhibitor - Oral diuretic - Beta-blocker - Calcium-channel blocker

Answer 181

-ACE inhibitor

Question 182

Hypertension decreases the "afterload" or the force against which the heart must pump blood. - True - False

Answer 182

-False

Question 183

Major signs or symptoms of mitral valve stenosis include: - Dyspnea on exertion - Jugular vein distension - Portal hypertension - None, it is usually asymptomatic

Answer 183

-Dyspnea on exertion

Question 184

Treatment of mitral valve stenosis may include: - Anticoagulants - Diuretics - Beta-blockers - Any of the above may be used as part of the treatment of mitral valve stenosis

Answer 184

-Any of the above may be used as part of the treatment of mitral valve stenosis

Question 185

The most common underlying cause of mitral valve stenosis is rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease. - True - False

Answer 185

-True

Question 186

A person with anaphylactic reaction would most likely suffer from which type of shock: - Cardiogenic - Distributive - Obstructive - Hypovolemic

Answer 186

-Distributive

Question 187

In hypovolemic shock, compensation for blood loss can explain a patient's: - Increased heart rate - Decreased heart rate - Decreased blood pressure - Increased hematocrit

Answer 187

-Increased heart rate

Question 188

Shock is any condition that results in a decreased perfusion of vital organs and tissues in the body and can be a life-threatening condition. - True - False

Answer 188

-True

Question 189

Juanita has scar tissue between the pericardial layers around her heart. Juanita's condition would be described as: - Acute pericarditis - Restrictive pericarditis - Pericardial effusion - Cardiac tamponade

Answer 189

-Restrictive pericarditis

Question 190

Narrowing of the left atrioventricular valve would best be described as: - Mitral valve regurgitation - Mitral valve stenosis - Aortic valve regurgitation - Aortic valve stenosis

Answer 190

-Mitral valve stenosis

Question 191

If conduction through the heart were initiated at a site other than the sinoatrial node, the resulting heartbeat would best be described as: - Premature - Inefficient - Blocked - Ectopic

Answer 191

-Ectopic

Question 192

Joe is in a car accident and loses a lot of blood before going into shock. This type of shock would best be classified as: - Hypovolemic shock - Cardiogenic shock - Obstructive shock - Distributive shock

Answer 192

-Hypovolemic shock

Question 193

Venous pathology associated with impaired blood flow including tissue congestion, edema, and impairment of tissue nutrition would best be described as: - Varicose veins - Chronic venous insufficiency - Thromboangiitis obliterans - Venous thrombosis

Answer 193

-Chronic venous insufficiency

Question 194

Which of the following statements is correct regarding hypertension? - Primary hypertension results from any disease condition that increases cardiac output or total peripheral resistance - Secondary or essential hypertension accounts for most of the hypertension - Hypertensive crisis involves a sudden elevation of blood pressure that can be life threatening - Drugs used to treat hypertension are most typically directed at reducing cardiac output

Answer 194

-Hypertensive crisis involves a sudden elevation of blood pressure that can be life threatening

Question 195

Cardiac drugs that block calcium channels primarily work by increasing the contractility of the heart and heart rate. - True - False

Answer 195

-False

Question 196

Ejection fraction is calculated as the stroke volume divided by the end diastolic volume. - True - False

Answer 196

-True

Question 197

Venous thromboses are enlarged tortuous veins. - True - False

Answer 197

-False

Question 198

Vascular disease includes peripheral arterial disease, which typically results from direct injury or inflammation due to a viral infection. - True - False

Answer 198

-False

Question 199

Which of the following factors would most likely contribute to hiatal hernia? - Sedentary lifestyle - Obesity - Laxative use - Being 30 years of age

Answer 199

-Obesity

Question 200

Which of the following agents WOULD NOT likely be used for someone with a hiatal hernia? - Histamine H2 receptor blockers - Proton pump inhibitors - Antacids - Anticholinergic drugs

Answer 200

-Anticholinergic drugs

Question 201

Hiatal hernia is often associated with acid reflux and may simulate angina. - True - False

Answer 201

-True

Question 202

Which of the following tests would directly detect blood in the feces? - Guaiac test - Endoscopy - Urease test - Biopsy

Answer 202

-Guaiac test

Question 203

Which of the following types of bacteria is believed to be the causative agent of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? - Staphylococcus aureus - Streptococcus pyogenes - Camplobacter jejuni - Helicobacter pylori

Answer 203

-Helicobacter pylori

Question 204

A patient with PUD may have anemia because of either blood loss or intrinsic factor. - True - False

Answer 204

-True

Question 205

Individuals with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) typically experience: - Chronic abdominal pain - Bloating - Alteration of bowel habits - Any of the above signs or symptoms may be experienced by someone with IBS

Answer 205

-Any of the above signs or symptoms may be experienced by someone with IBS

Question 206

Which of the following classifications of IBS best describes the form of IBS that occurs after an infection? - IBS-D - IBS-C - IBS-A - IBS-PI

Answer 206

-IBS-PI

Question 207

There is no evidence that stress is related to irritable bowel syndrome. - True - False

Answer 207

-False

Question 208

Individuals diagnosed with celiac disease may suffer from which of the following disorders or conditions? - Osteopenia - Failure to thrive - Anemia - Any of the above may be experienced by an individual with celiac disease

Answer 208

-Any of the above may be experienced by an individual with celiac disease

Question 209

Persons with celiac disease cannot tolerate: - Lactose - Gluten - Peanuts - Eggs

Answer 209

-Gluten

Question 210

Celiac disease involves an autoimmune reaction. - True - False

Answer 210

-True

Question 211

Willy is a 12-year-old with cystic fibrosis. He requires vitamin K supplementation by injection. Most likely James is deficient in vitamin K because: - He lacks vitamin K in his diet - His gut is "sterile", thus he lacks sufficient bacteria to produce vitamin K - He has decreased absorption of vitamin K because of insufficient lipase release from his pancreas - He has a blood clotting condition that has consumed all or most of the vitamin K from his diet

Answer 211

-He has decreased absorption of vitamin K because of insufficient lipase release from his pancreas

Question 212

A person suffering from an esophageal tear comes to the Emergency Department (ED) vomiting up blood. This scenario would best be described as: - Hematemesis - Hematochezia - Melena - Lower gastrointestinal bleed

Answer 212

-Hematemesis

Question 213

Bob is an elderly man with chronic constipation who experiences an acute episode of lower abdominal pain, fever and increased white blood cell count. Radiological images reveal herniation of the colon and there was concern for peritonitis and possible sepsis. Based upon this information, bob is most likely suffering from: - Inflammatory Bowel Disease - Crohn's Disease - Irritable Bowel Syndrome - Diverticulosis

Answer 213

-Diverticulosis

Question 214

Bill is a smoker and obese. He experiences an episode of acute pain and goes to the ED. Radiologic analysis reveals that a small portion of his stomach is above his diaphragm. Likely Bill is suffering from: - Hiatal hernia - Gastritis - Stomatitis - Peptic ulcer disease

Answer 214

-Hiatal hernia

Question 215

Jamie eats a large meal and experiences acute epigastric pain as a consequence of the return of gastric contents into the esophagus. This scenario could describe gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). - True - False

Answer 215

-True

Question 216

James is diagnosed with an esophageal tumor that makes it very difficult to swallow food. His difficulty swallowing would be described as: - Diarrhea - Dysphagia - Vomiting - Constipation

Answer 216

-Dysphagia

Question 217

Jane is suffering from a chronic infection with Hepatitis B virus. Most likely she is suffering from: - Cirrhosis - Peptic ulcer disease - Pancreatitis - Stomatitis

Answer 217

-Cirrhosis

Question 218

Kate experiences significant pain as a consequence of a strangulated small bowel. You should be concerned that this is potentially a serious condition that may be life threatening as a consequence of shock and vascular collapse. - True - False

Answer 218

-True

Question 219

Elderly individuals are at greatest risk of vitamin B12 deficiency. One reason is that the number of chief cells decrease as we age, thus less intrinsic factor is produced since the chief cells produce intrinsic factor. - True - False

Answer 219

-False

Question 220

Use of tobacco and alcohol are associated with oral cancer. - True - False

Answer 220

-True

Question 221

Which bone cells are responsive to parathyroid hormone, produce osteocalcin when stimulated by 1,24- dihydroxyvitamin D, and synthesize osteoid? - Osteoblasts - Osteocytes - Fibrocytes - Osteoclasts

Answer 221

-Osteoblasts

Question 222

What causes the vasomotor instability (hot flashes) that are associated with declining ovarian function with age? - Increased estrogen levels - Decreased thyroxine levels - Rapid changes in estrogen levels - Increased progesterone levels

Answer 222

-Rapid changes in estrogen levels

Question 223

Which of the following cells function to maintain bone matrix? - Osteophytes - Osteocytes - Osteoclasts - Osteoblasts

Answer 223

-Osteocytes

Question 224

A patient presents with a history of heavy smoking and obesity and experiences acute pain. Radiologic studies reveal that a small portion of the stomach is above the diaphragm. This is most likely? - Hiatal hernia - Stomatitis - Gastritis - Peptic ulcer disease

Answer 224

-Hiatal hernia

Question 225

Which of the following is most likely a sign or symptom of acromegaly? - Hyperactivity - Melena - Aphasia - Peripheral neuropathy

Answer 225

-Peripheral neuropathy

Question 226

Hypovolemia that decreases mean arterial pressure normally results in activation of the sympathetic nervous system and the renin-angiotensin system. - True - False

Answer 226

-True

Question 227

The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system compensates for hypovolemic shock by stimulating: - Movement of calcium into vascular smooth muscle, causing vasoconstriction and increasing systemic vascular resistance - B1 adrenergic receptors to increase myocardial contractility, heart rate, and conduction through the atrioventricular node - Aldosterone release, which retains sodium and hence water to increase the blood volume - Antidiuretic hormone from the posterior pituitary to retain potassium and excrete sodium to improve myocardial contractility

Answer 227

-Aldosterone release, which retains sodium and hence water to increase the blood volume

Question 228

Spermatogenesis occurs in the: - Seminiferous tubules - Epididymis - Vas deferens - Testes

Answer 228

-Seminiferous tubules

Question 229

The final common pathway in all shock is: - Impairment of cellular metabolism - Cellular alterations in the vasculature and kidneys - Impairment of urine excretion - Cellular alterations in the heart and brain

Answer 229

-Impairment of cellular metabolism

Question 230

A patient with renal failure is likely to have hypoalbuminemia - True - False

Answer 230

-True

Question 231

Psoriasis may be considered a chronic, genetically determined disease of epidermal proliferation. - True - False

Answer 231

-True ***Sara's test ?I'm not sure I like the genetically-determined wording.

Question 232

Which joint disease is characterized by joint stiffness on movement and joint pain of weight-bearing joints that usually is relieved by rest? - Rheumatoid arthritis - Suppurative arthritis - Osteoarthritis - Gouty arthritis

Answer 232

- Osteoarthritis | * **Sara's test***

Question 233

What is an appropriate treatment for sickle cell disease? - Early spleen removal - Dehydration to prevent vaso-occlusive crisis - Acetaminophen for fever control - Hydroxyurea for Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer 233

- Hydroxyurea for Streptococcus pneumoniae | * **Sara's test***

Question 234

Which of the following minerals are stored in the bones? - Sodium, iron, and selenium - Phosphate, carbonate, and magnesium - Potassium, fluoride, and copper - Zinc, sulfur, and chloride

Answer 234

- Phosphate, carbonate, and magnesium | * **Sara's & Annie's test***

Question 235

Rhabdomyolysis is characterized by: - Paralysis of skeletal muscles resulting from impaired nerve supply - Smooth muscle degeneration resulting from ischemia - Lysis of skeletal muscle cells through the initiation of complement cascade - Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells

Answer 235

- Release of myoglobin from damaged striated muscle cells | * **Sara's test***

Question 236

Urticaria is a result of what type of reaction? - Type I hypersensitivity - Type IV hypersensitivity - Type III hypersensitivity - Type II hypersensitivity

Answer 236

-Type I hypersensitivity

Question 237

What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus? - The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia - Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries - The capillaries contain plaques of lipids that obstruct blood flow - There is increased pressure within capillaries as a result of the elevated glucose attracting water

Answer 237

- The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia * **Sara's test***

Question 238

During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated? - Monocytes - Eosinophils - T lymphocytes - Neutrophils

Answer 238

- Eosinophils | * **Sara's test***

Question 239

The end product of protein metabolism excreted in the urine is: - Glucose - Ketones - Bile - Urea

Answer 239

- Urea | * **Annie's Test

Question 240

Which of the following is the proper histological cell type associated with hashimoto's thyroiditis? - Cells with Orphan-Annie Eye Nuclei - Granulomatous inflammation - Acinar Cells - Hurthle Cells

Answer 240

- Hurthle Cells | * **Annie's test

Question 241

Which of the following is a lab value, neurotransmitter or hormone most likely identified with acromegaly? - Increased T3 - Increased T4 - Excessive growth hormone - Decreased growth hormone

Answer 241

-Excessive growth hormone

Question 242

Removal of substances from the blood into the renal tubule at the peritubular capillaries is best described as which of the following processes? - Reabsorption - Filtration - Excretion - Secretion

Answer 242

- Secretion | * **Annie's Test

Question 243

Innervation of the bladder and internal urethral sphincter is supplied by which nerves? - Tenth thoracic nerve roots - Parasympathetic nervous system - Peripheral nerves - Sympathetic nervous system

Question 244

The part of the nephron where antidiuretic hormone (ADH) primarily acts is the: - Collecting tubule - Proximal convoluted tubule - Loop of Henle - Cortex

Answer 244

- Collecting tubule | * **Annie's test

Question 245

Severe combined immunodeficiency is a disorder that results from the loss of B-cell function as well as T-cell function. - True - False

Answer 245

- True | * *Annie's Test

Question 246

When bone is "resorbed" during the process of growth and repair, the original bone: - Hardens - Is synthesized - Is replaced - Is removed

Question 247

``` Which type of angina results from coronary artery vasospasm and occurs in atypical patterns A. Classic Angina B. Prinzmetal's Angina C. Unstable Angina D. Pleuritic chest pain ```

Answer 247

Prinzmetal's Angina

Question 248

``` The rhythm of the heart is generated by the: SA node AV node Atrium Ventricle ```

Answer 248

SA node (Sinoartrial node)

Question 249

``` To increase oxygen saturation after exertion, a patient with Tetralogy of Fallot will: Lie down Stand up Squat Cough ```

Answer 249

Squat

Question 250

``` Which of the following ECG changes is NOT specific to episodes of angina? ST segment elevation Premature ventricular contractions T-wave inversions Q waves ```

Answer 250

Premature Ventricular Contractions

Question 251

``` How long after a myocardial infarction can the initial troponin level be detected? 1 hour 3 hours 6 hours 8 hours ```

Answer 251

3 hours

Question 252

``` The bacteria responsible for rheumatic fever is: Klebsiella pneumoniae Group A Streptococcus Enterobacter species Escherichia coli ```

Answer 252

Group A Streptococcus

Question 253

``` Which of the following assessment findings correlates with dynamic obstruction of the left ventricle? PVCs Lung hyperinflation Peripheral edema Systolic murmur ```

Answer 253

Systolic Murmur

Question 254

Which of the following cardiac rhythms do not lead to a decrease in cardiac output? Normal sinus rhythm Bradycardia Atrial Fibrillation Atrioventricular block

Answer 254

Normal sinus rhythm

Question 255

The acute inflammatory response in a myocardial infarction is associated with: A decrease in serum cytokine concentrations Depletion of nitric oxide, causing vasoconstriction Vasodilation and increased systemic pressure Cytokine activation and vasodilation with decreased perfusion pressure

Answer 255

Cytokine activation and vasodilation with decreased perfusion pressure

Question 256

Which of the following cardiac rhythms is characterized by P waves that precede each QRS interval? Sinus bradycardia Atrial flutter Ventricle tachycardia Torsades de Pointes

Answer 256

Sinus bradycardia

Question 257

Aortic stenosis may be identified by: A low-intensity, high-pitched murmur A crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur A high-pitched and blowing murmur with a decrescendo configuration A murmur with a rumbling character

Answer 257

A crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur

Question 258

Hypertension is NOT caused by changes in: Heart rate Stroke volume Cardiac output Vascular relaxation

Answer 258

Vascular relaxation

Question 259

The accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity is: Endocarditis Myocarditis Pericardial effusion Cardiomyopathy

Answer 259

Pericardial effusion

Question 260

A pediatric patient with a ventricular septal defect would have which type of murmur? Mid-diastolic Holosystolic Atypical systolic Mid-systolic

Answer 260

Holosystolic

Question 261

Which of the following may be seen in patients with acute coronary syndrome? Resting angina lasting less than 10 minutes in duration New onset angina that markedly limits physical activity Intermittent pleuritic chest pain that occurs with movement Chest pain that occurs at least once a week for 6 weeks

Answer 261

New onset angina that markedly limits physical activity

Question 262

Hypercholesterolemia is one of the major risk factors contributing to the development of: Coronary artery disease Dilated cardiomyopathy Type 1 diabetes Acute renal insufficiency

Answer 262

Coronary artery disease

Question 263

The systemic disease that occurs secondary to untreated Strep throat is: Rheumatic fever Meningitis Mononucleosis Tonsillitis

Answer 263

Rheumatic fever

Question 264

A reduced risk of cardiovascular disease has been associated with aggressive control of: Sodium Potassium Triglycerides Low-density lipoproteins

Answer 264

Low-density lipoproteins

Question 265

Which one of the following produces visible evidence of an underlying problem with reverse venous flow? Cellulitis Bruising Stasis Dermatitis Varicose Veins

Answer 265

Varicose Veins

Question 266

Triglycerides are synthesized by the: Pancreas Liver Kidneys Stomach

Answer 266

Liver

Question 267

In right heart failure due to right ventricular dysfunction: Systemic venous pressure decreases Systemic venous pressure is not affected Systemic venous pressure increases Systemic venous pressure can be increased or decreased

Answer 267

Systemic venous pressure increases

Question 268

Cardiogenic shock in the presence of an acute myocardial infarction typically involves: Decreased stroke volume and increased cardiac output Decreased vascular resistance and decreased cardiac output Increase in systemic vascular resistance and increase in stroke volume Decrease in stroke volume and decrease in cardiac output

Answer 268

Decrease in stroke volume and decrease in cardiac output

Question 269

Which lipoprotein plays a major role in reverse cholesterol transport away from the arteries and back to the liver? HDL LDL Triglycerides Total Cholesterol

Answer 269

HDL

Question 270

In a patient with atrial-septal defect, split heart sounds are due to: Left-to-right shunting of blood Systolic overload of the left ventricle Stenosis of the aortic valve Decreased pulmonary blood flow

Answer 270

Left-to-right shunting of blood

Question 271

Which one of the following causes reactive hyperemia? Raynaud phenomenon Peripheral neuropathy Pulmonary edema Hypotension

Answer 271

Raynaud phenomenon

Question 272

The most common cause of left ventricular hypertrophy is: Heredity Hypertension Pulmonary edema Mitral regurgitation

Answer 272

Hypertension

Question 273

Which one of the following is NOT present in tetralogy of Fallot? Patent ductus arteriosus Ventricular hypertrophy Pulmonary stenosis Ventricular septal defect

Answer 273

Patent ductus arteriosus

Question 274

Which of the following is true about the normal heart function of an infant? The left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood The right ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood The ductus arteriosus closes in the two weeks of birth The pulmonary artery carries oxygen-rich blood to the left ventricle

Answer 274

The left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood

Question 275

Which one of the following is secreted by ventricular myocytes and assists in the diagnosis of heart failure? Atrial natriuretic peptide Brain natriuretic peptide Endothelin Nitric oxide

Answer 275

Brain natriuretic peptide

Question 276

Atherosclerosis in the lower extremities commonly causes: Venous insufficiency Peripheral artery disease Lymphadenopathy Diabetic neuropathy

Answer 276

Peripheral artery disease

Question 277

A congenital heart defect that warrants emergency medical and surgical intervention is: An acyanotic defect that increases pulmonary blood flow A cyanotic defect that decreases pulmonary blood flow A stenotic lesion with poor blood flow from ventricles A cyanotic mixed defect with increased pulmonary blood flow

Answer 277

A cyanotic defect that decreases pulmonary blood flow

Question 278

Diastolic heart failure is a result of impairment in the: Right atrium Left ventricle Right ventricle Left atrium

Answer 278

Left ventricle

Question 279

An elevation of which laboratory finding is indicative of a myocardial infarction? Troponin CK-MB BNP Potassium

Answer 279

Troponin

Question 280

Cardiac preload is defined as the: Amount of vascular resistance that must be overcome on ventricular contraction Pressure exerted on the atria during filling Volume of blood in the atria at the end of diastole Decreased volume of blood in the ventricles during systole

Answer 280

Volume of blood in the atria at the end of diastole

Question 281

Which one of the following conditions is an acute, febrile, immune-mediated disease characterized by vasculitis leading to coronary artery aneurysm? Measles Epstein Barr infection Rocky Mountain spotted fever Kawasaki syndrome

Answer 281

Kawasaki syndrome

Question 282

A variant angina characterized by transient reduction in the luminal diameter within the coronary artery and consistent with ST elevation is: Classic angina Stable angina Prinzmetal's angina Unstable angina

Answer 282

Prinzmetal's angina

Question 283

Which of the following types of angina involves nocturnal symptoms? Classic angina Stable angina Prinzmetal's angina Unstable angina

Answer 283

Unstable angina

Question 284

A patient who is in cardiogenic shock will present with: A high cardiac index Decreased vascular resistance Increased ventricular ejection fraction Mixed venous oxygen saturation

Answer 284

Mixed venous oxygen saturation

Question 285

Which heart condition includes both a systolic and diastolic timed murmur? Pulmonic stenosis Aortic regurgitation Mitral stenosis Tricuspid regurgitation

Answer 285

Tricuspid regurgitation

Question 286

Symptoms of mild heart failure include: Nocturnal dyspnea Hypotension S3 gallop Frothy sputum

Answer 286

S3 gallop

Question 287

Mortality associated with Kawasaki syndrome is most likely related to: Splenomegaly Coronary artery aneurysm Acute renal failure Secondary pneumonia

Answer 287

Coronary artery aneurysm

Question 288

Which of the following is most responsible for the buildup of cholesterol in the arteries, increasing the risk of heart disease and stroke? High-density lipoproteins Low-density lipoproteins Triglycerides Total cholesterol

Answer 288

Low-density lipoproteins

Question 289

Unstable angina is characterized by: Angina with prolonged activity Angina symptoms lasting >6 months Increasing crescendo angina Angina with elevated cardiac markers

Answer 289

Increasing crescendo angina

Question 290

Pediatric patients with tetralogy of Fallot have episodes of bluish skin during crying and feeding that are called: Tachypnea Dyspnea Tet spells Cheyne-Stokes breathing

Answer 290

Tet spells

Question 291

What is the purpose of activation of the sympathetic nervous system, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, and the antidiuretic system in the presence of impaired cardiac pumping and/or filling? Promotion of venous relaxation Production of arterial vasoconstriction Decrease in venous pressure Decrease in ventricular filling

Answer 291

Production of arterial vasoconstriction

Question 292

A mother states that her young child has been squatting after exertion and is easily fatigued. The NP suspects: Aortic stenosis Tetralogy of Fallot Atrial septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 292

Tetralogy of Fallot

Question 293

Which condition is a direct acute cause of pulmonary hypertension, leading to right heart failure? Obstructive sleep apnea Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Pulmonary embolism Pulmonary fibrosis

Answer 293

Pulmonary embolism

Question 294

When atrial fibrillation terminates within 7 days of onset, it is classified as: Longstanding persistent Permanent Paroxysmal Nonvalvular

Answer 294

Paroxysmal

Question 295

Elevated troponin levels are present in: Unstable angina NSTEMI Uncontrolled hypertension Heart failure

Answer 295

NSTEMI

Question 296

Which congenital heart defect involves an abnormal opening between the atria that is expected to close without surgical intervention by 12 months of age? Atrial septal defect Ventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 296

Atrial septal defect

Question 297

Which one of the following is a clinical syndrome that results from any structural or functional cardiac disorder that impairs the ability of the ventricles to fill or eject blood? Heart failure Hypertension Cardiomyopathy Myocardial infarction

Answer 297

Heart failure

Question 298

The formation of an atherosclerotic lesion in the arterial wall is related to high levels of: Cholesterol HDLs LDLs Triglycerides

Answer 298

LDLs

Question 299

Which type of ECG changes may be produced by acute coronary syndrome? ST elevation QT prolongation Dropped P waves Diastolic murmur

Answer 299

ST elevation

Question 300

Which cardiac condition involves thickening of the muscle wall of the right lower chamber of the heart? Ventricular septal defect Ventricular hypertrophy Pulmonary stenosis Patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 300

Ventricular hypertrophy

Question 301

With each heart beat, blood within the left and right ventricle is ejected into the: Left atrium only Aorta and pulmonary artery Anterior descending artery Right coronary artery

Answer 301

Aorta and pulmonary artery

Question 302

When alpha receptors are stimulated, what primary physiologic response is expected: Blood pressure decreases Blood pressure increases Heart rate decreases Heart rate increases

Answer 302

Blood pressure increases

Question 303

In a patient with a ventricular septal defect, blood flows: Through the left ventricle back to the heart To the left atrium and into the lungs To the right ventricle and into the lungs Through the right atrium back to the heart

Answer 303

To the right ventricle and into the lungs

Question 304

Which congenital heart defect is known to cause cyanotic episodes precipitated by crying, feeding, or other activities? Atrial septal defect Ventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 304

Tetralogy of Fallot

Question 305

Sick sinus syndrome is described as the: Failure of the SA node to discharge Junction fibers in the AV node joining with the bundle of His. AV node pacing when the SA node fails to initiate impulse Destruction of the SA node and changes in the nerves and ganglia

Answer 305

Destruction of the SA node and changes in the nerves and ganglia

Question 306

Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is described as: Acyanotic deficits increasing pulmonary blood flow Cyanotic defect that decreases pulmonary blood flow Cyanotic mixed defects with increased pulmonary blood flow Obstructive lesions with poor blood flow from ventricles

Answer 306

Cyanotic mixed defects with increased pulmonary blood flow

Question 307

Which one of the following is NOT a true statement about left-sided heart failure? The heart moves blood from high pulmonary pressure to low systemic circulation pressure Left-sided heart failure causes a decrease in cardiac output and an increase in diastolic pressure Left-sided heart failure results in an increase in left atrial pressure and congestion in pulmonary circulation Capillary filtration pressure exceeds the capillary colloidal osmotic pressure

Answer 307

The heart moves blood from high pulmonary pressure to low systemic circulation pressure

Question 308

A common symptom of a congenital heart defect is: Jugular venous distension Hypertension Central cyanosis Atrial fibrillation

Answer 308

Central cyanosis

Question 309

The heart sound that is NOT auscultated in a patient with aortic stenosis is: Narrowing split S2 Right sternal border thrill Grade III harsh murmur S3 gallop

Answer 309

S3 gallop

Question 310

Patients with acute coronary syndrome typically have plaque erosion, which is characterized by: Cellulose and eosinophils Low-density lipoproteins and monocytes Calcium and leukocytes Hyaluronan and neutrophils

Answer 310

Hyaluronan and neutrophils

Question 311

Which peptide hormone causes vasoconstriction and increases blood pressure? Norepinephrine Epinephrine Angiotensin Vasopressin

Answer 311

Angiotensin

Question 312

The Trendelenburg test is used to assess for: Peripheral neuritis Deep vein thrombosis Arterial insufficiency Varicose veins

Answer 312

Varicose veins

Question 313

A common cause of diastolic heart failure is: Myocarditis Myocardial infarction Dilated cardiomyopathy Hypertension

Answer 313

Hypertension

Question 314

Diastole: Occurs at the end of the cardiac cycle Is the highest pressure in the aorta during relaxation Is the minimum arterial pressure exerted during relaxation and dilation of the ventricles Is the peak pressure that occurs when the ventricles contract

Answer 314

Is the minimum arterial pressure exerted during relaxation and dilation of the ventricles

Question 315

Which one of the following congenital heart defects does NOT depend on left to right shunting through ductus arteriosus for pulmonary circulation? Aortic stenosis Pulmonary atresia Pulmonary stenosis Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 315

Aortic stenosis

Question 316

The amount of pressure that occurs when the ventricles contract is the: Mean arterial pressure Systolic pressure Diastolic pressure Pulse pressure

Answer 316

Systolic pressure

Question 317

A progressive disease of heart muscle that is characterized by ventricular chamber enlargement and contractile dysfunction is: Acute coronary syndrome Cardiac tamponade Dilated cardiomyopathy Thyrotoxicosis

Answer 317

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Question 318

Which one of the following is the cardiac rhythm described as prolongation of the QT interval? Atrial flutter Ventricular tachycardia Torsades de pointes Third-degree AV block

Answer 318

Torsades de pointes

Question 319

The primary function of the heart is: To maintain pressure throughout the cardiovascular system To generate the flow of blood to the right ventricle To pump blood through the body via the circulatory system To excrete carbon monoxide from the blood

Answer 319

To pump blood through the body via the circulatory system

Question 320

Patients with acute coronary syndrome may experience chest pain secondary to: Arterial vasodilation Oxygen demand Potassium depletion Elevated Creatine

Answer 320

Oxygen demand

Question 321

Which of the following is NOT a Virchow's triad risk factor for deep vein thrombosis? Hypercoagulability Endothelial injury Stasis Peripheral nervous system damage

Answer 321

Peripheral nervous system damage

Question 322

Which of the following is not a deficit of tetralogy of Fallot? A hole between the ventricles of the heart A narrowing of the pulmonary valve and artery An enlargement of the triscupid valves A thickening of the ventricle chambers

Answer 322

An enlargement of the triscupid valves

Question 323

The primary cause of cardiogenic shock in a patient with acute MI is: Failure of the ventricle to pump blood adequately Failure of the aortic valve to pump blood adequately Regurgitation of the tricuspid valve Regurgitation of the mitral valve

Answer 323

Failure of the ventricle to pump blood adequately

Question 324

A birth defect characterized by a hole in the septum that separates the two upper chambers of the heart is: Ventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Atrial septal defect Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 324

Atrial septal defect

Question 325

Which of the following statements accurately describes a premature ventricular contraction (PVC)? It is caused by a ventricular ectopic pacemaker It is caused by failure of the AV node to fire It is caused by bifurcation on the bundle of His It is caused by prolongation of the QT interval

Answer 325

It is caused by a ventricular ectopic pacemaker

Question 326

Which of the following conditions may predispose patients to an atypical presentation of myocardial ischemia? Obesity Lupus Diabetes mellitus Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 326

Diabetes mellitus

Question 327

Atrial septal defect results from: Failure of the mitral valve to close properly Failure of the tissue to form between the atria Failure of the vesicles around the atrium vasodilate Failure of the left ventricle to contract

Answer 327

Failure of the tissue to form between the atria

Question 328

Which of the following congenital heart defects causes increased pulmonary blood flow? ``` Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) Atrial septal defect (ASD) Tricuspid atresia (TA) Truncus arteriosus (TA) ```

Answer 328

Atrial septal defect (ASD)

Question 329

Systemic hypotension is defined as a: Mean blood pressure of <50 mmHg Stroke volume of 32 mL/m2 Systolic blood pressure below 25 mmHg Cardiac index of >1.8L/min per m2

Answer 329

Stroke volume of 32 mL/m2

Question 330

Which condition is referred to as "enlarged heart"? Ventricular hypertrophy Patent ductus arteriosus Foramen ovale Ventricular stenosis

Answer 330

Ventricular hypertrophy

Question 331

In a patient with patent ductus arteriosus, where is the murmur best heard? Localized at the left clavicle Apex of the heart Right sternal border Radiating to the axilla

Answer 331

Localized at the left clavicle

Question 332

Increased venous return to the heart leads to: Increased neurohumoral mechanisms Increased stroke volume Decreased central venous pressure Decreased left ventricular end-diastolic pressure

Answer 332

Increased stroke volume

Question 333

Which congenital heart defect results in right to left shunting and requires emergency surgical intervention for survival? Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) Atrial septal defect (ASD) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) Mitral valve regurgitation

Answer 333

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

Question 334

Mean arterial pressure is primarily regulated by changes in cardiac output and: Afterload Increased stroke volume Systemic vascular resistance Heart rate

Answer 334

Systemic vascular resistance

Question 335

Atherosclerosis plaques can cause: Thrombosis Neuropathy Calcium deposits Varicose veins

Answer 335

Thrombosis

Question 336

Which birth defect of the heart is characterized by a hole in the septum that separates the two lower chambers? Ventricular septal defect Patent ductus arteriosus Atrial septal defect Tetralogy of Fallot

Answer 336

Ventricular septal defect

Question 337

Which of the following is NOT associated with acute coronary syndrome? Heart failure Unstable angina ST segment myocardial infarction Non-ST segment myocardial infarction

Answer 337

Heart failure

Question 338

The life-threatening cardiac condition caused by the accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space is: Endocarditis Cardiac tamponade Pericarditis Cardiomyopathy

Answer 338

Cardiac tamponade

Question 339

Which one of the following is NOT an assessment finding in a patient who is experiencing shock? Low urine output End-organ hyperperfusion Poor mentation Hypotension

Answer 339

End-organ hyperperfusion

Question 340

Which one of the following is NOT an underlying cause of obstructed coronary artery blood flow by a thrombus? Acute myocardial infarction Stable angina Sudden coronary death Unstable angina

Answer 340

Stable angina

Question 341

A lung disease characterized by enlargement of the alveolar ducts and air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles is: - Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease - Emphysema - Cystic fibrosis - Asthma

Answer 341

-Emphysema

Question 342

Cystic fibrosis is: - autosomal recessive - autosomal dominant - caused by complex inheritance - caused by X-linked inheritance

Answer 342

-autosomal recessive

Question 343

Acute respiratory consequences of pulmonary embolism include: - Endothelial injury - Turbulence of blood flow - Hypercoagulability - Pulmonary infarction

Answer 343

-Pulmonary infarction

Question 344

Mucus production resulting from hyperplasia of the mucous membranes lining the bronchial wall describes: - Asthma - Chronic bronchitis - Cystic fibrosis - Pneumonia

Answer 344

-Chronic bronchitis

Question 345

Inspiratory stridor with croup suggests narrowing of the: - Bronchioles - Supraglottis - Larynx - Pharynx

Answer 345

-Larynx

Question 346

Inflammation of the bronchioles that results in obstruction of the small airway is: - Pneumonia - Bronchiolitis - Tracheomalacia - Croup

Answer 346

-Bronchiolitis

Question 347

Results from spirometry testing of a 60-year-old man indicate an FEV1/FVC <70%, 30% FEV1 < 80% predicted. Given these results, expected symptoms in this patient would include: - Shortness of breath and pursed lip breathing - Productive cough and dyspnea on exertion - Decreased pulses and peripheral edema - Bradycardia with tachypnea

Answer 347

-Productive cough and dyspnea on exertion | Those findings indicate COPD

Question 348

The system that tries to compensate for acute respiratory acidosis is: - The cardiac system - The renal system - The gastrointestinal system - The hepatic system

Answer 348

-The renal system

Question 349

A child diagnosed with bronchiolitis is at risk for developing: - Chronic sinusitis - Acute otitis media - Asthma - Viral conjunctivitis

Answer 349

-Acute otitis media

Question 350

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a risk factor associated with: - Asthma - Chron's disease - Polycystic ovarian syndrome - Gout

Answer 350

-Asthma

Question 351

Atelectasis is defined as: - Diminished volume in all or a portion of a lung - Bronchial spasms - Chronic obstruction of airflow in the lungs - Bacterial lung infection

Answer 351

-Diminished volume in all or a portion of a lung

Question 352

Which of the following is true about influenza viruses? - One type of influenza virus exists - Influenza viruses are specific to humans - Influenza A cause most human infections - Influenza C is primarily found in animal species

Answer 352

-Influenza A cause most human infections

Question 353

Which of the following statements accurately describes the primary physiologic effect of emphysema? - Airway constriction and hyperresponsiveness of the bronchi - Hyperplasia and thickening of the brachial wall lining - Impedance of airflow due to bronchiole inflammation - Air trapping and loss of elastic recoil in the lungs

Answer 353

-Air trapping and loss of elastic recoil in the lungs

Question 354

Which one of the following symptoms is common in a patient who has asthma? - Inspiratory wheeze - Non-productive cough - Tachycardia - Hyperresonance

Answer 354

-Non-productive cough

Question 355

A hallmark assessment finding in a patient with moderate to severe croup is: - Rhinorrhea - Sore throat - Stridor - Wheezing

Answer 355

-Stridor

Question 356

Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is transmitted via: - Contact with an infected surface - Blood - Respiratory droplet - Any bodily fluid

Answer 356

-Respiratory droplet

Question 357

Annual influenza vaccination is necessary due to: - Active immunity - Passive immunity - Adaptive immunity - Antigenic variation

Answer 357

-Antigenic variation

Question 358

The presence of air or gas in the intrapleural cavity is called: - Pneumonia - Atelectasis - Pleurodynia - Pneumothorax

Answer 358

-Pneumothorax

Question 359

The leading cause of lower respiratory tract infections in infants and young children is: - Human metapneumovirus - Respiratory Syncytial virus - Adenovirus - Parainfluenza virus

Answer 359

-Respiratory Syncytial virus

Question 360

A 14-year-old boy reports cough and chest tightness during exercise. He is most likely experiencing: - Bronchostenosis - Airway wall remodeling - Airway obstruction - Bronchospasm

Answer 360

-Bronchospasm

Question 361

A highly contagious, acute febrile viral illness of the respiratory tract that is associated with significant morbidity and mortality is: - Rhinovirus - Influenza - Norovirus - Respiratory Syncytial Virus

Answer 361

-Influenza

Question 362

An 8-year-old girl has experienced acute, self-limiting symptoms of nasal congestion and hoarseness for 2 days. The NP assesses the upper respiratory tract mucosa and identifies transillumination of the sinuses. These symptoms are consistent with: - Allergic rhinitis - Sinusitis - Pharyngitis - The common cold

Answer 362

-The common cold

Question 363

The most common pathogen that causes pneumonia in young adults is: - Mycoplasma pneumoniae - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Haemophilus influenzae - Human parainfluenza virus

Answer 363

-Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Question 364

Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of pulmonary edema? - Foul-smelling, blood-tinged sputum - Red or green sputum that contains pus - A cough that produces pink, frothy sputum - A frequent cough that is dry and nonproductive

Answer 364

-A cough that produces pink, frothy sputum

Question 365

Hemoptysis is NOT typically associated with: - Pulmonary embolism - Chronic bronchitis - Chronic obstructive lung disease - Neoplasm of the lung

Answer 365

-Chronic obstructive lung disease

Question 366

A common assessment finding in patients with cystic fibrosis is steatorrhea due to: - Hyperalgesia - Pancreatic insufficiency - Short gut syndrome - Increased intestinal mobility

Answer 366

-Pancreatic insufficiency

Question 367

A finding NOT associated with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection is: - Regeneration of epithelial cells lining the alveoli - Infiltration of monocytes and T cells on bronchial arterioles - Penetration of neutrophils between the vascular structures - Proliferation of the bronchiolar epithelium

Answer 367

-Regeneration of epithelial cells lining the alveoli

Question 368

Inflammation of the bronchioles and trachea that usually follows an upper respiratory tract infection in adults is: - Asthma - Bronchiolitis - Pneumonia - Acute bronchitis

Answer 368

-Acute bronchitis

Question 369

In the United States, the leading cause of mortality in infants younger than 1 year is: - Respiratory syncytial virus - Drowning - Motor vehicle crashes - Sudden unexplained infant death

Answer 369

-Sudden unexplained infant death

Question 370

Croup is characterized by: - Hemoptysis with cough - Whooping cough - Barking cough - High-pitched cough

Answer 370

-Barking cough

Question 371

A pediatric patient is being evaluated for complaints of an intense "whooping" cough with posttussive vomiting. Which stage of pertussis is suggested by these symptoms? - Catarrhal - Paroxysmal - Convalescent - Acute

Answer 371

-Paroxysmal

Question 372

An incentive spirometer is used to determine: - Forced expiratory volume in 1 seconds - Peak expiratory flow - Forced vital capacity - Partial pressure of oxygen

Answer 372

-Peak expiratory flow

Question 373

The influenza virus: - May be transmitted before the onset of symptoms - Has an incubation period of 7-10 days - Is transmitted via skin-to-skin contact - Is no longer shed once symptoms begin

Answer 373

-May be transmitted before the onset of symptoms

Question 374

Which statement about respiratory acidosis is CORRECT? - The production of CO2 is progressive and causes hypocapnia - Increased carbon dioxide results in significant hyperkalemia - The bicarbonate partial pressure of the arterial carbon dioxide ratio increases - Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide increases due to rapid production of carbon dioxide and ventilation failure

Answer 374

-Partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide increases due to rapid production of carbon dioxide and ventilation failure

Question 375

An infection of the tracheobronchial tree that causes reversible bronchial inflammation is: - Upper respiratory disease - Bronchitis - Tuberculosis - Pneumonia

Answer 375

-Bronchitis

Question 376

An acute hemodynamic consequence of a pulmonary embolism that may cause significant mortality is: - Pulmonary hypertension - Right ventricular failure - Pleural effusion - Pulmonary infarction

Answer 376

-Right ventricular failure

Question 377

Diagnostic studies to identify cystic fibrosis include a sweat test that measures: - Chloride - Urea - Potassium - Lactic acid

Answer 377

-Chloride

Question 378

Respiratory alkalosis is most commonly caused by: - Hyperventilation - Expiratory wheezing - Bradypnea - Chemical exposure

Answer 378

-Hyperventilation

Question 379

A 2-year-old girl is evaluated for a barking cough. The NP suspects that this cough is a result of: - Subglottic edema - Retropharyngeal abscess - Tracheal deviation - Bronchospasm

Answer 379

-Subglottic edema

Question 380

Which statement about respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is true? - Once infected with RSV, lifetime immunity is established - RSV is only a disease of childhood - Premature infants are more likely to be admitted to the hospital for treatment of RSV - RSV has been associated with morbidity and mortality in patients 65 years and older

Answer 380

-RSV has been associated with morbidity and mortality in patients 65 years and older

Question 381

When educating a parent about the nonpharmacologic management of croup, the NP should recommend: - Chest physical therapy - Use of a cool mist humidifier - Respiratory isolation - Paroxysmal coughing

Answer 381

-Use of a cool mist humidifier

Question 382

Whooping cough is caused by: - Rhinoviruses - Adenoviruses - Bordetella pertussis - Parainfluenza

Answer 382

-Bordetella pertussis

Question 383

Which one of the following cellular elements is NOT involved in the inflammation associated with asthma? - Neutrophils - Monocytes - Eosinophils - Mast cells

Answer 383

-Monocytes

Question 384

The mechanism that prevents the collapse of alveoli by maintaining surface tension is: - Frequent coughing - Shallow breathing - Surfactant - Carbon dioxide exchange

Answer 384

-Surfactant

Question 385

Which factor is NOT included in the Virchow triad, which predisposes a patient to pulmonary embolism? - Endothelial injury - Turbulence of blood flow - Hypercoagulability - Pulmonary infarction

Answer 385

-Pulmonary infarction

Question 386

The most common cause of croup is: - Bordetella pertusis - Parainfluenza virus - Coronavirus - Haemophilus influenzae

Answer 386

-Parainfluenza virus

Question 387

All patients with altered lung function associated with possible COPD should be assessed for airflow obstruction using - Spirometry - CT scan of the chest - A methacholine challenge test - Bronchoscopy

Answer 387

-Spirometry

Question 388

What is the most common virus associated with bronchiolitis? - Coxsackie virus - Influenza B - Respiratory syncytial virus - Enterovirus

Answer 388

-Respiratory syncytial virus

Question 389

A highly contagious acute respiratory illness characterized by paroxysmal cough is: - Respiratory syncytial virus - Pertussis - Bronchitis - Influenza

Answer 389

-Pertussis

Question 390

VQ ratio >0.8 means that: - Ventilation exceeds perfusion - Perfusion exceeds ventilation

Answer 390

-Ventilation exceeds perfusion This is considered Dead Space Frequently associated with pulmonary embolism COPD can cause both types of mismatch

Question 391

VQ ratio <0.8 means that: - Ventilation exceeds perfusion - Perfusion exceeds ventilation

Answer 391

-Perfusion exceeds ventilation This is referred to as a shunt. Commonly occurs with: choking, pneumonia, pulmonary edema, ARDS, Alveolar collapse COPD can lead to both types of VQ mismatch

Question 392

Paroxysmal events associated with abnormal electrical discharges of neurons in the brain are known as: - Neuropathy - Muscle Spasms - Seizures - Tremors

Answer 392

-Seizures

Question 393

Two hallmark symptoms of concussion are: - Nausea and vomiting - Tremor and loss of consciousness - Confusion and amnesia - Headache and dizziness

Answer 393

-Confusion and amnesia

Question 394

Hyperreflexia of the deep tendons may indicate: - Nerve root impairment - Electrolyte imbalance - Myopathies - Hypothyroidism

Answer 394

-Electrolyte imbalance

Question 395

The most common cause of aseptic viral meningitis is: - Aspergillus - Enterovirus - Herpes simplex - Escherichia coli

Answer 395

-Enterovirus

Question 396

In Parkinson's disease, a deficiency exists in which neurotransmitter? - Acetylcholine - Dopamine - Serotonin - Glutamate

Answer 396

-Dopamine

Question 397

Akathisia and bradykinesia occur in patients with Parkinson's disease due to the effect of the disease on the: - Limbic system - Corticobulbar tract - Extrapyramidal system - Corticospinal tract

Answer 397

-Extrapyramidal system

Question 398

Which of the following is a disorder of the spinal roots that results from compression, inflammation, or tearing of the nerve roots at the vertebral canal? - Fibromyalgia - Osteoarthritis - Radiculopathy - Osteoporosis

Answer 398

-Radiculopathy

Question 399

Inflammation of the dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater and underlying cortex that causes increased intracranial pressure is: - Meningitis - Guillain-Barre syndrome - Encephalopathy - Hydrocephalus

Answer 399

-Meningitis

Question 400

An acute, autoimmune, rapidly progressive demyelination of peripheral nerves is known as: - Myasthenia gravis - Guillain-Barre syndrome - Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - Multiple sclerosis

Answer 400

-Guillain-Barre syndrome

Question 401

In a patient with parkonsonism, the loss of autonomic responses to fear and the development of depression is caused by loss of neurons in the: - Corpus striatum - Globus pallidus - Amygdala - Brainstem

Answer 401

-Amygdala

Question 402

In a patient with meningitis secondary to Haemophilus influenzae infection, the history may reveal recent: - Endocarditis - Cellulitis - Sinusitis - Gastroenteritis

Answer 402

-Sinusitis

Question 403

A 35-year-old woman complains of daily or near daily low-to-moderate-intensity headaches for about 4 months. The headaches are occasionally intense and are accompanied by mild photophobia. This is most likely: - Orthostatic headache - Hypnic headache - Chronic migraine - Thunderclap headache

Answer 403

-Chronic migraine

Question 404

When cell death occurs in the frontal lobes of the brain, the patient with Alzheimer's disease may experience: - Neuropathy - Expressive aphasia - Blurred vision - Heat sensitivity

Answer 404

-Expressive aphasia

Question 405

A dysfunction of cranial nerve VI (abducens nerve) would likely result in: - The inability to chew - Lack of tongue movement - Ptosis - Esotropia

Answer 405

-Esotropia Esotropia is a form of strabismus in which one or both eyes turn inward, due to dysfunction of the cranial nerve VI. The patient may experience horizontal diplopia (double vision with objects side by side)

Question 406

The type of seizure that affects both cerebral hemispheres and causes an impairment of consciousness is: - Atypical seizure - Simple partial seizure - Focal seizure - Generalized seizure

Answer 406

-Generalized seizure

Question 407

A diagnosis of meningitis should be considered in the patient who exhibits: - Decreased deep tendon reflexes - Positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs - An intention tremor - Ptosis

Answer 407

-Positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs

Question 408

An irreversible condition that develops as a result of progressive degeneration of the hippocampus is: - Alzheimer's disease - Delirium - Parkinson's disease - Multiple sclerosis

Answer 408

-Alzheimer's disease

Question 409

Which of the following is NOT a likely cause of an embolic stroke? - Air bubbles - Fat globules - Plaque - Elevated blood sugar

Answer 409

-Elevated blood sugar

Question 410

Irritation of or injury to a nerve root that causes pain, numbness, or weakness in the part of the body that is supplied with nerves from that root is known as: - Radiculopathy - Bursitis - Cauda equina - Arthritis

Answer 410

-Radiculopathy

Question 411

A disease that produces sporadic, progressive weakness and abnormal fatigue of voluntary skeletal muscles is: - Botulism - Fibromyalgia - Muscular dystrophy - Myasthenia Gravis

Answer 411

-Myasthenia Gravis

Question 412

Which diagnostic study can be useful in differentiating Alzheimer's disease from dementia with Lewy Bodies? - CT - MRI - EEG - PET scan

Answer 412

-PET scan

Question 413

A transient ischemic attack: - May result in permanent tissue damage - Will resolve within 24 hours - Is confirmed by CT imaging - Will cause a gradual buildup of symptoms over 24 hours

Answer 413

-May result in permanent tissue damage

Question 414

The organism that is LEAST likely to be responsible for community-acquired fungal meningitis is: - Histoplasma - Candida albicans - Cryptococcus neoformans - Coccidioides

Answer 414

-Candida albicans

Question 415

The condition caused by inability of the brain to understand sound despite normal detection of sound by the inner ear is known as: - Conductive hearing loss - Sensorineural hearing loss - Traumatic hearing loss - Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder

Answer 415

-Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder

Question 416

Progressive muscle rigidity, loss of muscle movement, and involuntary tremors are associated with: - Parkinson's disease - Multiple sclerosis - Myasthenia gravis - Spasticity

Answer 416

-Parkinson's disease

Question 417

A decrease in oxygen and glucose to brain tissue that is related to congestion and edema in an affected vessel is caused by: - A thrombus - An embolism - Hypoperfusion - Hemorrhage

Answer 417

-A thrombus

Question 418

Down syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality due to an extra: - Chromosome 15 - Chromosome 18 - Chromosome 21 - Chromosome 23

Answer 418

-Chromosome 21

Question 419

A progressive neurodegenerative disease that destroys motor neurons is: - Multiple sclerosis - Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - Myasthenia gravis - Parkinson disease

Answer 419

-Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Question 420

A disease that is characterized by severe, sharp, unilateral stabbing pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the fifth cranial nerve is: - Trigeminal neuralgia - Neuralgiform headache attacks - Cluster headaches - Giant cell arteritis

Answer 420

-Trigeminal neuralgia

Question 421

A patient with severe herniated disc at the fifth lumbar area is NOT likely to have: - Spinal stenosis - Radiculopathy - Cauda equina - Paralysis

Answer 421

-Paralysis

Question 422

The diagnostic criteria for Alzheimer's disease include: - Impaired ability to remember new information - Visual hallucinations - Cognitive fluctuations - Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder

Answer 422

-Impaired ability to remember new information

Question 423

A risk factor associated with cluster headaches is: - Age between 13 and 18 years - The presence of allergic rhinitis - Menses - Alcohol ingestion by a man

Answer 423

-Alcohol ingestion by a man

Question 424

The hypersensitivity and pain crescendo experienced in conjunction with a migraine attack is thought to be related to the release of: - Catecholamines - Substance P - Enkephalins - Acetylcholine

Answer 424

-Substance P

Question 425

In myasthenia gravis, neuromuscular transmission is blocked by weakened receptor sites at which neurotransmitter? - Dopamine - Serotonin - Acetylcholine - Glutamate

Answer 425

-Acetylcholine

Question 426

A transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia without acute infarction is called: - Transient ischemic attack - Meningitis - Multiple sclerosis - Subdural hemorrhage

Answer 426

-Transient ischemic attack

Question 427

The cause of movement disorders in Parkinson's disease is thought to be related to destruction of cells in the : - Hippocampus - Substantia nigra - Striatum - Corpus callosum

Answer 427

-Substantia nigra

Question 428

The most common cause of ischemia that originates within the brain is: - Giant cell arteritis - Atherosclerosis - Hyperperfusion - Hemorrhage

Answer 428

-Atherosclerosis

Question 429

Which condition is described as a sudden internal or external spinning sensation, often triggered by moving the head quickly? - Tympanic membrane rupture - Cerebral ischemia - Acoustic neuroma - Vertigo

Answer 429

-Vertigo

Question 430

An abnormally excessive curvature of the thoracic spine is known as: - Lordosis - Spondylosis - Stenosis - Kyphosis

Answer 430

-Kyphosis

Question 431

A complex pathophysiologic process that affects the brain and is a result of direct external contact forces is: - Concussion - Seizure - Headache - Posttraumatic stress

Answer 431

-Concussion

Question 432

The leading cause of bacterial meningitis in children and young adults in the United States is: - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Haemophilus influenzae - Campylobacter jejuni - Neisseria meningitidis

Answer 432

-Neisseria meningitidis

Question 433

Autonomic symptoms associated with cluster headaches do NOT include: - Ptosis - Lacrimaton - Rhinorrhea - Epistaxis

Answer 433

-Epistaxis

Question 434

Which of the following patients is at highest risk for having hemorrhagic stroke? - A 54-year-old man with atherosclerosis - A 65-year-old woman with uncontrolled hypertension - A 60-year-old man with atrial fibrillation - A 40-year-old woman with an antithrombin III deficiency

Answer 434

-A 65-year-old woman with uncontrolled hypertension

Question 435

A 34-year-old patient who has experienced a traumatic brain injury and has been diagnosed with retrograde amnesia will NOT: - Remember events that occurred immediately before the head trauma - Remember events that occurred immediately after the head trauma - Learn new information - Recall general knowledge

Answer 435

-Remember events that occurred immediately before the head trauma

Question 436

Guillain-Barre syndrome causes a degeneration of the: - Motor neurons - Dendrites - Myelin sheath - Skeletal muscle

Answer 436

-Myelin sheath

Question 437

Which diagnosis is associated with T cell-mediated destruction of beta cells in the pancreas? - Diabetes insipidus - Type I diabetes mellitus - Type 2 diabetes mellitus - Gestational diabetes

Answer 437

-Type I diabetes mellitus

Question 438

Which one of the following is necessary for linear bone growth in children? - Growth hormone - Renin - Testosterone - Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Answer 438

-Growth hormone

Question 439

In thyrotoxic crisis, T3 and T4 are overproduced, causing hypermetabolism from the overproduction of: - Dopamine - Catecholamines - Epinephrine - Norepinephrine

Answer 439

-Epinephrine

Question 440

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is caused by: - Resistance to insulin action in target tissues - Abnormal insulin secretion - Beta cell destruction - Inappropriate hepatic glycogenesis

Answer 440

-Beta cell destruction

Question 441

Which one of the following is increased in Addison's disease? - Aldosterone - Potassium - Creatinine - Calcium

Answer 441

-Aldosterone

Question 442

Which of the following hormones is NOT essential for normal body growth and maturation in children? - Growth hormone - Insulin - Adrenalin - Androgen

Answer 442

-Adrenalin

Question 443

What percent of beta cells in the pancreas must be destroyed before hyperglycemia develops? - 10 - 20 - 50 - 80

Answer 443

-80

Question 444

An extreme and life-threatening form of thyrotoxicosis is called: - Graves' disease - Thyroid storm - Thyroiditis - Hypothyroidism

Answer 444

-Thyroid storm

Question 445

As a result of prolonged exposure to high levels of cortisol, the patient with Cushing's syndrome is likely to develop - Gynecomastia - Moon facies - Protruding eyes - Fruity smell

Answer 445

-Moon facies

Question 446

In addition to decreased plasma cortisol levels, the laboratory findings of a patient in adrenal crisis would include: - Increased serum sodium - Decreased serum potassium - Decreased serum sodium levels - Decreased blood urea nitrogen levels

Answer 446

-Decreased serum sodium levels

Question 447

In a patient with hyperglycemia, the nurse practitioner knows that hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) will NOT produce: - Dehydration - Glycosuria - High glucose levels - Ketogenesis

Answer 447

-Ketogenesis

Question 448

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin are produced in the: - Adrenal glands - Parathyroid gland - Thyroid gland - Hypothalamus

Answer 448

-Hypothalamus

Question 449

When calcium levels are low, the negative feedback system: - Stimulates the parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone - Stimulates the hormone receptors to release calcium into the serum - Inhibits the transport of calcium levels to the bloodstream - Inhibits the uptake of calcium levels in the bones

Answer 449

-Stimulates the parathyroid gland to release parathyroid hormone

Question 450

The release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary gland is stimulated by reduced circulating volume and: - Decreased serum osmolality - Decreased urine osmolality - Increased serum osmolality - Increased urine osmolality

Answer 450

-Increased serum osmolality

Question 451

A 42-year-old woman complains of palpitations, anxiety and weight loss. Which two lab tests would be most helpful in diagnosing this patient? - Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) - Cortisol and ACTH levels - Insulin-like growth factor and prolactin levels - Free T3 and T4

Answer 451

-Free T3 and T4

Question 452

Acute complications of untreated diabetes insipidus would NOT include: - Hypovolemia - Hypervolemia - Circulatory collapse - Loss of consciousness

Answer 452

-Hypervolemia

Question 453

The macrovascular disease that is the leading cause of death in patients with diabetes is: - Cardiovascular disease - Cerebrovascular disease - Diabetic nephropathy - Peripheral vascular disease

Answer 453

-Cardiovascular disease

Question 454

Patients with hypothyroidism are also likely to have elevated: - Sodium levels - Potassium levels - Lipid levels - Cortisol levels

Answer 454

-Lipid levels

Question 455

A negative feedback system regulates the endocrine system by: - Stimulating hormone production - Increasing the uptake of the target tissue - Increasing the hormone transport system - Inhibiting hormone overproduction

Answer 455

-Inhibiting hormone overproduction

Question 456

Which of the following is NOT a common secondary cause of Type 2 diabetes? - Prolonged physical or emotional stress - Pregnancy - Use of hormonal contraceptives - Autoimmune disease

Answer 456

-Autoimmune disease

Question 457

Which of the following laboratory findings are present after adrenal stimulation in a patient with early stage Addison's disease - Increased sodium levels - Decreased potassium levels - Increased cortisol levels - Increased bicarbonate

Answer 457

-Increased cortisol levels

Question 458

Diabetes is the leading cause of: - Urosepsis - End-stage renal disease - Acute coronary syndrome - Pancreatitis

Answer 458

-End-stage renal disease

Question 459

In a patient with diabetes insipidus, the resorption of water by the renal tubular collecting ducts can lead to: - Increased urine glucose - Increased serum potassium - Increased serum sodium - Increased urine calcium

Answer 459

-Increased serum sodium

Question 460

The most common cause of hypothyroidism is: - Hashimoto's thyroiditis - Graves' disease - Thyroid storm - Abnormal iodine metabolism

Answer 460

-Hashimoto's thyroiditis

Question 461

An autoimmune disorder characterized by abnormal stimulation of the thyroid gland by antibodies that act through normal TSH receptors is: - Celiac disease - Graves' disease - Multiple sclerosis - Sjogren's syndrome

Answer 461

-Graves' disease

Question 462

The characteristic feature of Graves' disease do NOT include: - Hyperthyroidism - Goiter - Orbitopathy - Constipation

Answer 462

-Constipation

Question 463

The thyroid hormone that is responsible for calcium regulation is: - Triiodothyronine (T3) - Thyroxine (T4) - Thyrocalcitonin (Calcitonin) - Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Answer 463

-Thyrocalcitonin (Calcitonin)

Question 464

A patient with an elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level most likely has: - Subacute thyroiditis - Toxic adenoma - Graves' disease - Hypothyroidism

Answer 464

-Hypothyroidism

Question 465

A complication associated with Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes that is NOT a microvascular complication is: - Nephropathy - Neuropathy - Retinopathy - Peripheral arterial disease

Answer 465

-Peripheral arterial disease

Question 466

A simple nontoxic goiter: - Is caused by inflammation - Is likely secondary to a neoplasm - May be enlarged secondary to a lack of iodine in the diet - Is an autoimmune disease process

Answer 466

-May be enlarged secondary to a lack of iodine in the diet

Question 467

The disease caused by hyperfunctioning of the thyroid gland is known as: - Hypothyroidism - Hyperthyroidism - Nontoxic goiter - Hashimoto's disease

Answer 467

-Hyperthyroidism

Question 468

An acute metabolic complication that occurs in patients with diabetes is: - Nephropathy - Retinopathy - Autonomic neuropathy - Ketoacidosis

Answer 468

-Ketoacidosis

Question 469

A 54-year-old patient with diabetes presents with fatigue and the nurse practitioner suspects diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Other symptoms related to DKA include: - Dysuria - Metallic taste in the mouth - Fruity breath - Bradycardia

Answer 469

-Fruity breath

Question 470

In addition to elevated blood glucose levels, the initial laboratory findings in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis would include: - Elevated pH levels - Decreased bicarbonate levels - Decreased potassium levels - Elevated glomerular filtration rate

Answer 470

-Decreased bicarbonate levels

Question 471

Guillain-Barre syndrome is most commonly triggered by recent: - Surgery - Digestive tract infection - Immunization - Acute hepatitis

Answer 471

-Digestive tract infection

Question 472

The most common cause of secondary hypothyroidism is: - Increased secretion of thyrotropin-releasing hormone by the hypothalamus - Low intake of dietary iodine or abnormal iodine metabolism - Increased secretion of thyrotropin hormone by the pituitary gland - Low secretion of thyrotropin hormone by the pituitary gland

Answer 472

-Low secretion of thyrotropin hormone by the pituitary gland

Question 473

The majority of patients with simple goiters are expected to have: - Elevated triiodothyronine (T3) levels - Elevated thyroxine (T4) levels - A euthyroid state - A low level of serum thyroid stimulation hormone

Answer 473

-A euthyroid state

Question 474

Diabetes mellitus is NOT a disorder in the metabolism of: - Carbohydrates - Iron - Fats - Proteins

Answer 474

-Iron

Question 475

Synthesis and secretion of the thyroid hormones depend on the presence of: - Triiodothyronine - Thyroxine - Iodine - Luteinizing hormone

Answer 475

-Iodine

Question 476

People with Graves' disease may experience comorbid diseases including: - Peptic ulcer disease - Iron deficiency anemia - Lupus erythematosus - Thyroid cancer

Answer 476

-Lupus erythematosus

Question 477

The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is: - Cushing syndrome - Precocious puberty - Graves' disease - Menopause

Answer 477

-Graves' disease

Question 478

Which one of the following is NOT a cause of short stature in children? - Turner syndrome - Growth hormone deficiency - Hypothyroidism - Early estrogen and androgen secretion

Answer 478

-Early estrogen and androgen secretion

Question 479

The adrenal glands are responsible for producing - Testosterone - Leukotrienes - Epinephrine - Prostaglandins

Answer 479

-Epinephrine

Question 480

Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex that results in an inadequate release of glucocorticoids is: - Sprue syndrome - Cushing syndrome - Addison's disease - Hypoparathyroidism

Answer 480

-Addison's disease

Question 481

Cushing's disease is characterized by physical abnormalities that occur when the adrenal glands secrete excess: - Triiodothyronine - Glucocorticoids - Oxytocin - Antidiuretic hormone

Answer 481

-Glucocorticoids

Question 482

The most common signs of newly diagnosed diabetes include: - Peripheral neuropathy - Polyuria - Hyperphagia - Blurred vision

Answer 482

-Polyuria

Question 483

The complication associated with Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes that is a macrovascular complication is: - Coronary artery disease - Neuropathy - Nephropathy - Retinopathy

Answer 483

-Coronary artery disease

Question 484

The disorder that is caused by a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone is known as: - Hypercalcemia - Histiocytosis - Type 1 diabetes mellitus - Diabetes insipidus

Answer 484

-Diabetes insipidus

Question 485

Which hormone is NOT one of the four types of trophic hormones released by the anterior pituitary gland? - Follicle-stimulating hormone - Luteinizing hormone - Growth hormone - Thyroid-stimulating hormone

Answer 485

-Growth hormone

Question 486

Symptoms of thyrotoxicosis include: - Hypotension - Bradycardia - Low cardiac output - Cardiac arrhythmia

Answer 486

-Cardiac arrhythmia

Question 487

A common characteristic of a person with Graves' disease is: - Ophthalmopathy - Humped back - Moon face - Peripheral neuropathy

Answer 487

-Ophthalmopathy

Question 488

Hyperglycemia in patients who have Type 2 diabetes can cause: - Anorexia - Hematuria - Thirst - Hyperphagia

Answer 488

-Thirst

Question 489

In the presence of acute adrenal insufficiency, the underproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands may cause the patient to experience: - Hyperglycemia - Hypoglycemia - Hypertension - Headaches

Answer 489

-Hypoglycemia

Question 490

Risk factors that predispose a patient to Graves' disease include: - A family history of Graves' disease in men of the family - Female sex - A history of alcoholism - Being in the first trimester of pregnancy

Answer 490

-Female sex

Question 491

Which one of the following is the likely diagnosis in a 9-month-old baby who presents with a high fever followed by a morbilliform rash that begins centrally and spreads peripherally? - Measles - Roseola - Meningococcemia - Rubella

Answer 491

-Roseola

Question 492

A soft, flesh-colored, bag-like tumor attached to the skin surface by a stalk is known as a: - Cylindroma - Adnexal tumor - Fibroepithelial polyp - Epithelial cyst

Answer 492

-Fibroepithelial polyp

Question 493

Which one of the following statements about impetigo is NOT true? - Impetigo will heal in 2-3 days, even without treatment - Treatment of impetigo will reduce the spread of infection to other people - Bullous impetigo may cause a deep dermal infection - Lesions that persist after 7 to 10 days of antibiotic therapy should be cultured

Answer 493

-Impetigo will heal in 2-3 days, even without treatment

Question 494

Which one of the following cell types is located in the lower part of the epidermis and is responsible for forming new cells to replace squamous cells? - Keratinocyte - Melanocyte - Basal cell - Merkel cell

Answer 494

-Basal cell

Question 495

Fungal infection of the skin is NOT caused by: - Burrowing of mites - Skin-to-skin contact with an infected person - Indirect contact via a contaminated comb - Direct contact with an infected dog

Answer 495

-Burrowing of mites

Question 496

A self-limited, painful dermatomal rash is most likely: - Herpes simplex - Lentigo - Shingles - Folliculitis

Answer 496

-Shingles

Question 497

The most common cause of vitiligo is: - A viral infection - Dermal trauma - Allergic reaction - Autoimmunity

Answer 497

-Autoimmunity

Question 498

Which of the following statements is NOT true about freckles (ephelides)? - Freckles will fade and intensify in cyclic fashion during the winter and summer - Freckles are caused by an increased production of melanin - Freckles are considered a precancerous skin condition - Genetics and sun exposure are both influential in the development of freckles

Answer 498

-Freckles are considered a precancerous skin condition

Question 499

Which one of the following is a condition closely related to urticaria and causes a deeper edema of the dermis and subcutaneous fat? - Angioedema - Eczema - Cellulitis - Urticaria

Answer 499

-Angioedema

Question 500

The primary plaque that appears on the trunk of the body prior to the development of a Christmas tree-patterned rash is called a: - Hive - Tinea patch - Herald patch - Carbuncle

Answer 500

-Herald patch

Question 501

A 6-year-old boy presents with a red facial rash that has a slapped-cheek appearance. This is likely an illness caused by: - Human herpesvirus 6 - Rubeola virus - Parvovirus B19 - Streptococcus

Answer 501

-Parvovirus B19

Question 502

Acanthosis nigricans is most likely to occur on the: - Abdomen - Shins - Axillae - Face

Answer 502

-Axillae

Question 503

A rash that begins as a large circular or oval spot on the trunk of the body, then takes on a Christmas tree-like pattern is most likely: - Dermatophytosis - Pityriasis rosea - Lichen planus - Syphilis

Answer 503

-Pityriasis rosea

Question 504

A neoplasm that arises from cutaneous appendages and is often mistaken for basal cell carcinoma is known as: - Keratoacanthoma - Squamous cell carcinoma - Adnexal tumor - Fibroepithelial polyp

Answer 504

-Adnexal tumor

Question 505

A benign dome-shaped growth with small black dots on the surface of a finger is most likely: - Molluscum contagiosum - A callus - Verruca vulgaris - Melanoma

Answer 505

-Verruca vulgaris

Question 506

The antigen-induced development of pruritic edematous circular plaques is known as: - Contact dermatitis - Eczema - Urticaria - Psoriasis

Answer 506

-Urticaria

Question 507

Common warts (verruca vulgaris) are caused by: - Human papillomavirus - Coxsackievirus - Parvovirus - Herpes simplex

Answer 507

-Human papillomavirus

Question 508

A factor that does NOT typically contribute to the development of nevi is: - Heredity - Degree of sun exposure during childhood - Lightly pigmented skin - Sex

Answer 508

-Sex

Question 509

Mongolian spots are: - A precancerous condition - Not indicative of an underlying disorder - Superficial cysts filled with keratin - A collection of melanocytes in the deeper layers of the skin

Answer 509

-A collection of melanocytes in the deeper layers of the skin

Question 510

Why is it important to reduce heat loss and provide appropriate nutritional support to a patient with burns on more than 40% of the body? - To promote wound healing - To reduce the possibility of heat cramps - To increase the immune system response - To decrease the resting metabolic rate

Answer 510

-To decrease the resting metabolic rate

Question 511

An acute round, tender nodule that becomes a pustule or perifollicular abscess with a single draining point is called: - Folliculitis - Furunculosis - Carbunculosis - Atopic dermatitis

Answer 511

-Furunculosis

Question 512

An annular lesion that has central clearing with an enlarging border is: - Erythema multiforme - Tinea corporis - Annular psoriasis - Impetigo

Answer 512

-Tinea corporis

Question 513

Squamous cell carcinoma is: - Less likely than basal cell carcinoma to metastasize - An uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells arising from the squamous cells in the epidermis - Twice as common in women as men - Only caused by sun exposure

Answer 513

-An uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells arising from the squamous cells in the epidermis

Question 514

Hand, foot and mouth disease is most commonly caused by: - Human parvovirus - Coxsackievirus - Herpes virus - Morbillivirus

Answer 514

-Coxsackievirus

Question 515

Which statement about onychomycosis is NOT true? - Patients seek care for cosmetic reasons, not physical complaints - Onychomycosis may eventually cause paresthesias - Onychomycosis may involve any component of the nail bed - Topical treatments are generally sufficient to cure onychomycosis

Answer 515

-Topical treatments are generally sufficient to cure onychomycosis

Question 516

Hand, foot and mouth disease is most commonly transmitted via: - Contact with oral, fecal, or respiratory secretions - Airborne droplets due to coughing, sneezing or talking - Ingestion of contaminated food and water - Indirect contact or exposure to an affected person

Answer 516

-Contact with oral, fecal, or respiratory secretions

Question 517

Which one of the following conditions is common, characterized by the presence of pruritic papules, macules, and vesicles in various stages of healing? - Measles - Bullous pemphigoig - Varicella zoster - Eczema herpeticum

Answer 517

-Varicella zoster

Question 518

Human herpes virus 3 causes: - Cold sores - Mononucleosis - Roseola - Chickenpox

Answer 518

-Chickenpox

Question 519

Postherpatic neuralgia is: - A side effect of recommended treatment for herpes zoster - Persistent pain for more than 30 days after all shingles lesions have crusted - Recurring herpatic lesions in a secondary dermatome - Numbness along the affected basal ganglion nerve root

Answer 519

-Persistent pain for more than 30 days after all shingles lesions have crusted

Question 520

Which one of the following is an accumulation of edema within the intercellular spaces of the epidermis that results in red papulovesicular lesions that ooze and crust? - Angioedema - Urticaria - Eczematous dermatitis - Cellulitis

Answer 520

-Eczematous dermatitis

Question 521

A child with tinea capitis may be cleared to return to school: - When the infection is completely healed - After 1 week of pharmacologic therapy - When the lesions become dry - After treatment is initiated

Answer 521

-After treatment is initiated

Question 522

Which enzyme is responsible for the invasion of fungus under the skin of a patient with tinea pedis? - Keratinase - Trypsin - Maltase - Flavin

Answer 522

-Keratinase

Question 523

A thick white substance composed of sebum and desquamated epithelial cells on the skin of a premature infant is: - Lanugo - Vernix - Milia - Acrocyanosis

Answer 523

-Vernix

Question 524

Which one of the following is a medication-triggered condition that presents with persistent fever, mucous membrane involvement, and epidermal sloughing? - Bullous dermatosis - Erythema multiforme - Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome - Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Answer 524

-Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Question 525

Cutaneous xanthomas develop due to: - Sun exposure - Repeated trauma to an area - An allergic reaction - Elevated lipoproteins

Answer 525

-Elevated lipoproteins

Question 526

Which virus predisposes patients to shingles? - Epstein Barr virus - Herpes simplex virus - Varicella zoster virus - Cytomegalovirus

Answer 526

-Varicella zoster virus

Question 527

Which of the following statements about shingles is true? - Varicella zoster virus is contagious before the rash appears - The herpes zoster virus is transmitted by indirect contact with the infected patient - Herpes zoster is twice as contagious as the primary varicella virus - Older, immunocompromised, and pregnant patients should avoid contact with anyone who has shingles

Answer 527

-Older, immunocompromised, and pregnant patients should avoid contact with anyone who has shingles

Question 528

Which type of burn is described as blistering, does not blanch with pressure, and is variable in color? - Superficial burn - Deep partial-thickness burn - Full-thickness burn - Fourth-degree burn

Answer 528

-Deep partial-thickness burn

Question 529

Seborrheic dermatitis produces papules and scales on sebum-rich areas of the skin. Sebum is produced by: - Apocrine (sweat) glands - Sebaceous glands - Subcutaneous fatty tissue - Hair follicles

Answer 529

-Sebaceous glands

Question 530

Which of the following is true of Lyme disease? - Lyme disease is spread via infected mosquitoes - Once treated, Lyme disease does not recur - Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi - Lyme disease is best treated with antivirals and corticosteroids

Answer 530

-Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi

Question 531

A burn that is mottled, red, and does not blanch or form blisters is likely a: - First-degree, superficial burn - Second-degree, deep partial thickness burn - Third-degree, full-thickness burn - Fourth-degree, full-thickness burn

Answer 531

-Second-degree, deep partial thickness burn

Question 532

The most immediate concern in a patient with a third-degree burn on more than 20% of the body surface is: - Secondary infection - Hypovolemic shock - Hyperthermic shock - Respiratory acidosis

Answer 532

-Hypovolemic shock

Question 533

A comorbid condition that is NOT typically associated with alopecia areata is: - Vitiligo - Thyroid disease - Seborrheic dermatitis - Atopic dermatitis

Answer 533

-Seborrheic dermatitis

Question 534

Characteristic features of fifth disease do NOT include: - An incubation period of 14 days - A rash in the prodromal period - Exacerbation of rash by sunlight, heat, stress - The development of joint pain in adults

Answer 534

-A rash in the prodromal period

Question 535

The destruction of epithelial cells that causes target-shaped lesions as a result of a hypersensitivity reaction to certain infections and drugs is known as: - Angioedema - Erythema multiforme - Eczematous dermatitis - Stevens-Johnson syndrome

Answer 535

-Erythema multiforme

Question 536

A superficial dermatophytosis that attacks hair shafts on the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes is known as: - Alopecia - Tinea capitis - Seborrheic dermatitis - Pyoderma

Answer 536

-Tinea capitis

Question 537

A premalignant lesion that is associated with a buildup of excess keratin and is usually less than 1 cm in diameter is known as: - Cylindroma - Adnexal tumors - Lentigo - Actinic keratosis

Answer 537

-Actinic keratosis

Question 538

Pain, swelling and redness around the base or the sides of the nail is known as: - Subungual fibroma - Onychomycosis - Paronychia - Pyogenic granuloma

Answer 538

-Paronychia

Question 539

A condition in which hair loss occurs in round patches on the scalp: - Tinea capitis - Trichotillomania - Syphilis - Alopecia

Answer 539

-Alopecia

Question 540

Which one of the following is NOT a result of infection with enterovirus? - Poliovirus - Coxsackievirus - Echoviruses - Epstein Barr virus

Answer 540

-Epstein Barr virus

Question 541

Which of the following is NOT a form of dermatophytosis? - Tinea pedis - Onychomycosis - Tinea capitis - Paronychia

Answer 541

-Paronychia

Question 542

Cells within the epidermis that are primarily responsible for protecting the skin from ultraviolet rays in sunlight are: - Melanocytes - Merkel cells - Langerhans cells - Dendrocytes

Answer 542

-Melanocytes

Question 543

Subungual onychomycosis is the most common form of onychomycosis and it is caused by: - Epidermophyton floccosum - Malassezia furfur - Microsporum canis - Trichophyton rubrum

Answer 543

-Trichophyton rubrum

Question 544

The presence of nymphs and nits on the scalp are indications of: - Dermatophytosis - Folliculitis - Scabies - Pediculosis

Answer 544

-Pediculosis

Question 545

Which of the following is NOT a type of human louse? - Haematopinus - Pediculus capitis - Pediculus corporis - Pthirus pubis

Answer 545

-Haematopinus

Question 546

In addition to pain, a patient with shingles may commonly experience: - Headaches - Dizziness - Motor weakness - Tremors

Answer 546

-Motor weakness

Question 547

The life span of lice is approximately: - 7 days - 10 days - 15 days - 30 days

Answer 547

-30 days

Question 548

A benign epidermal tumor that is a well-demarcated, coin-like, pigmented lesion with a "stuck-on" appearance is known as a: - Fibroepithelial polyp - Seborrheic keratosis - Dysplastic nevi - Lentigo

Answer 548

-Seborrheic keratosis

Question 549

A disease characterized by vesicular lesions on the mouth, an exanthem on the hands and feet, and fever, is known as: - Herpes simplex - Measles - Hand, foot and mouth disease - Kawasaki disease

Answer 549

-Hand, foot and mouth disease

Question 550

The most common tumor arising on sun-exposed sites in older adults is: - Squamous cell carcinoma - Actinic keratosis - Dysplastic nevi - Basal cell carcinoma

Answer 550

-Basal cell carcinoma

Question 551

A chronic, pruritic inflammatory skin disorder characterized by elevated lesions with well-defined boundaries and a silvery-white scale is most likely: - Dermatophytosis - Lichen planus - Pityriasis rosea - Psoriasis

Answer 551

-Psoriasis

Question 552

A benign viral infection that results in multiple rounded, dome-shaped papules is most likely: - Molluscum contagiosum - Acne - Lichen planus - Pyoderma

Answer 552

-Molluscum contagiosum

Question 553

Impetigo may be classified as bullous or nonbullous. Bullous impetigo is described as: - A crusty lesion - An erythematous circumscribed lesion - An elevated done-shaped lesion - A fluid-filled lesion

Answer 553

-A fluid-filled lesion

Question 554

An intensely pruritic skin infestation is most likely caused by the mite: - Pediculus humanus - Sarcoptes scabiei - Demodex folliculorum - Phthyrius pubis

Answer 554

-Sarcoptes scabiei

Question 555

A skin disorder that presents with both papules and scales on any hair-bearing area of the body is: - Atopic dermatitis - Pityriasis rosea - Tinea capitis - Seborrheic dermatitis

Answer 555

-Seborrheic dermatitis

Question 556

Fifth disease is spread via: - Direct contact - Contaminated water - Respiratory droplets - Fecal oral route

Answer 556

-Respiratory droplets

Question 557

Diaper dermatitis is: - Caused by an acidic pH on the skin - A type of irritant contact dermatitis - A result of dehydration - Caused by an allergic reaction to diapers

Answer 557

-A type of irritant contact dermatitis

Question 558

During which phase of menstruation does the endometrium shed and bleeding occur? - Ovulatory - Follicular - Luteal - Endometrial

Answer 558

-Follicular

Question 559

Which of the following is a yeast pathogen associated with vaginitis? - Mycoplasma genitalium - Trichomonas vaginalis - Candida albicans - Herpes simplex virus

Answer 559

-Candida albicans

Question 560

Fibrocystic breast disease is influenced by: - Decreased estrogen and increased progesterone - Estrogen predominance and progesterone deficiency - Increased prolactin and decreased estrogen - Increased progesterone and decreased prolactin

Answer 560

-Estrogen predominance and progesterone deficiency

Question 561

Dysfunctional menstrual cycles are related to alterations in: - Testosterone - Estrogen - Prolactin - Androgen

Answer 561

-Estrogen

Question 562

Which type of adenoma is associated with the highest cancer risk? - Villous adenomas - Hyperplastic polyps - Sessile lesions - Uterine fibroids

Answer 562

-Villous adenomas

Question 563

When an ovum is not fertilized, the corpus luteum stops producing: - Estrogen - Progesterone - Testosterone - Luteinizing hormone

Answer 563

-Progesterone

Question 564

Patients with PCOS are at higher risk for developing - Hypertension - Hypothyroidism - Asthma - Type 2 diabetes

Answer 564

-Type 2 diabetes

Question 565

When evaluating anovulation in a patient with PCOS, the hormone most likely elevated is: - Testosterone - Estrogen - Luteinizing - Follicle-stimulating

Answer 565

-Luteinizing

Question 566

Genitourinary syndrome of menopause (GSM) is associated with: - Increased progesterone - Decreased estrogen - Decreased prolactin - Increased testosterone -

Answer 566

-Decreased estrogen

Question 567

When bone resorption exceeds bone formation in postmonopausal women, they become more susceptible to: - Osteoclastoma - Osteopenia - Osteomalacia - Osteosarcoma

Answer 567

-Osteopenia

Question 568

The main risk factor associated with uterine prolapse is: - Pelvic inflammatory disease - Intrauterine contraceptive use - Tubal ligation - Pregnancy

Answer 568

-Pregnancy

Question 569

When the uterosacral ligament weakens and forms a herniation is called: - Enterocele - Rectocele - Cystocele - Uterine prolapse

Answer 569

-Enterocele

Question 570

In women, the growth of coarse, dark hair in areas not typical for this hair type is a sign of: - Hirsutism - Tinea capitis - Alopecia - Seborrhea

Answer 570

-Hirsutism

Question 571

Which type of suppressor proteins are produced by BRCA1 and BRCA2? - Tumor - Papilloma - Cyst - Abscess

Answer 571

-Tumor

Question 572

The odor associated with bacterial vaginosis can be initiated with the application of: - Isopropyl alcohol - Potassium hydroxide - Hydrogen peroxide - Water

Answer 572

-Potassium hydroxide

Question 573

Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) abnormally metabolize: - Progesterone and luteinizing hormone - Progesterone and estrogen - Luteinizing hormone and androgen - Androgens and estrogen

Answer 573

-Androgens and estrogen

Question 574

Which hormone is elevated during days 1-13 of the menstrual cycle? - Estrogen - Progesterone - Follicle-stimulating hormone - Luteinizing hormone

Answer 574

-Follicle-stimulating hormone

Question 575

Which risk factor may NOT be associated with the development of breast cancer? - Obesity - Large, dense breast tissue - Nulliparity - Short stature

Answer 575

-Short stature

Question 576

A herniation of the bladder into the vagina is termed: - Enterocele - Rectocele - Cystocele - Uterine prolapse

Answer 576

-Cystocele

Question 577

A clinical syndrome resulting from loss of normal vaginal flora, decreased lactobacilli and overgrowth of anaerobic organisms is: - Bacterial vaginosis - Candidiasis - Gonorrhea - Trichomoniasis

Answer 577

-Bacterial vaginosis

Question 578

Hirsutism is due to: - Excess prolactin - Excess testosterone - Excess estrogen - Excess luteinizing hormone

Answer 578

-Excess testosterone

Question 579

The gynecologic disorder that occurs when endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus is: - Pelvic inflammatory disease - Endometriosis - Polycystic ovarian syndrome - Uterine fibroids

Answer 579

-Endometriosis

Question 580

Which breast condition is NOT part of a heterogeneous group of benign breast lesions? - Fibrocystic breast disease - Intraductal papilloma - Fibroadenoma - Luminal A

Answer 580

-Luminal A

Question 581

The milk-producing gland of a woman is the: - Montgomery gland - Mammary gland - Naboth's gland - Sebaceous gland

Answer 581

-Mammary gland

Question 582

Which one of the following is NOT regulated by follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone? - Growth - Prepubertal maturation - Parity - The reproductive cycle

Answer 582

-Parity

Question 583

Which hormone is responsible for breast development? - Prolactin - Testosterone - Estrogen - Luteinizing hormone

Answer 583

-Estrogen

Question 584

Which hormone is responsible for ovulation and the development of the corpus luteum? - Prolactin - Oxytocin - Follicle-stimulating hormone - Luteinizing hormone

Answer 584

-Luteinizing hormone

Question 585

Patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) typically have: - Hypotension - Hyperthyroidism - Hypoglycemia - Hyperinsulinemia

Answer 585

-Hyperinsulinemia

Question 586

Which one of the following is NOT a pathological characteristic of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)? - Excess androgen - Body mass index of 30 or higher - Abnormal insulin resistance - Low luteinizing hormone

Answer 586

-Low luteinizing hormone

Question 587

Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with excessive levels of androgens in women? - PCOS - Premenstrual syndrome - Hirsutism - Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Answer 587

-Premenstrual syndrome

Question 588

Which one of the following statements about bacterial vaginosis is NOT correct? - It is caused by an increase in pH - It is a sexually transmitted disease - The prevalence of BV in the United States is 29.2% - Douching increases the risk for developing BV

Answer 588

-It is a sexually transmitted disease

Question 589

A 34-year old woman complains of fewer than nine menstrual periods in 1 year and no menstrual periods for 3 consecutive months. Which is the most appropriate diagnosis for this woman? - Polycystic ovarian syndrome - Hypoandrogenism - Menstrual dysfunction - Perimenopause

Answer 589

-Menstrual dysfunction

Question 590

Which one of the following is likely to decrease breast cancer risk? - Pregnancy after age 35 years - Late onset of menarche - Early onset of menarche - Regular physical activity

Answer 590

-Regular physical activity

Question 591

Which phase of the menstrual cycle involves the closure of a ruptured follicle after ovum release? - Menstrual - Follicular - Ovulatory - Luteal

Answer 591

-Luteal

Question 592

The most common pelvic tumor is a benign neoplasm of smooth muscle origin that is termed: - A cyst - A polyp - A fibroid - An abscess

Answer 592

-A fibroid

Question 593

Herniation of the rectum into the vagina is termed: - Enterocele - Rectocele - Cystocele - Uterine prolapse

Answer 593

-Rectocele

Question 594

Benign epithelial neoplasms that arise from the epithelial cells lining the colon are: - Fibroids - Polyps - Cysts - Abscesses

Answer 594

-Polyps

Question 595

After ovulation, the corpus luteum predominately secretes which hormone to prepare the uterus for implantation of a fertilized ovary? - Estrogen - Follicle-stimulating hormone - Growth hormone - Progesterone

Answer 595

-Progesterone

Question 596

During the ovulatory phase, which hormone stimulates the follicle to rupture and release the ovum? - Estrogen - Progesterone - Luteinizing - Testosterone

Answer 596

-Luteinizing

Question 597

Which hormone increases during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle to prepare the uterus for ovum fertilization? - Progesterone - Estrogen - Testosterone - Luteinizing hormone

Answer 597

-Estrogen

Question 598

PCOS is associated with clinical findings of obesity due to: - Hypothyroidism - Hyperinsulinemia - Hypoandrogenism - Hyperestrogenism

Answer 598

Hyperinsulinemia

Question 599

Overgrowth of endometrial cells in the lining of the uterus may lead to a(n): - Cyst - Polyp - Fibroid - Abscess

Answer 599

-Polyp

Question 600

Lack of which hormone can cause failure of the ovarian follicles to mature to the point of ovulation? - Cortisol - Testosterone - Androgen - Progesterone

Answer 600

-Progesterone

Question 601

In women, bacteria in the lower genital tract may lead to pelvic inflammatory disease due to: - The effects of estrogen levels on cervical mucus viscosity - Progestin disturbances in the endocervical canal - Sterility of the vaginal ecosystem in the upper genital tract - Vaginal secretion pH of 4.0

Answer 601

-The effects of estrogen levels on cervical mucus viscosity

Question 602

A hormonal disorder in women of reproductive age that causes prolonged menstruation or excessive androgen levels is: - Polycystic ovarian syndrome - Pelvic inflammatory disease - Endometriosis - Cervicitis

Answer 602

-Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Question 603

Uterine prolapse is caused by stretching of the uterine: - Muscle - Tendons - Ligaments - Wall

Answer 603

-Ligaments

Question 604

Which one of the following is sometimes described as nodular, sensitive breasts? - Mastitis - Fibrocystic breast disease - Breast cancer - Fibroadenoma

Answer 604

-Fibrocystic breast disease

Question 605

Which phase of the menstrual cycle begins with a surge in luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone? - Menstrual - Follicular - Ovulatory - Luteal

Answer 605

-Ovulatory

Question 606

An immature female gamete is termed: - A zygote - An oocyte - An embryo - An ovum

Answer 606

-An oocyte

Question 607

The most common reason women have abnormal cervical cytology is infection with: - Trichomoniasis - Human papillomavirus infection - Candida albicans infection - Bacterial vaginosis

Answer 607

-Human papillomavirus infection

Question 608

Which one of the following is a pathogen commonly associated with mastitis? - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Staphylococcus aureus - Mycobacterium haemophilum - Cutibacterium acnes

Answer 608

-Staphylococcus aureus

Question 609

Which one of the following is NOT a complication associated with uterine prolapse? - Incarceration of the uterus - Cystocele - Pelvic inflammatory disease - Ulcer

Answer 609

-Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 610

Which sexually transmitted infection involves a pathogen that lacks a cell wall? - Neisseria gonorrhea - Mycoplasma genitalium - Trichomonas vaginalis - Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer 610

-Mycoplasma genitalium

Question 611

A complication of meningovascular neurosyphilis includes: - Deep vein thrombosis - Hearing loss - Stroke - Dizziness

Answer 611

-Stroke

Question 612

Seroprevalence of herpes simplex virus: - Reflects immunity to the herpes simplex virus - Is only present during active disease - Has no correlation to socioeconomic status, race, or culture - Does not reflect the probability of disease recurrence

Answer 612

-Does not reflect the probability of disease recurrence

Question 613

Which type of syphilis results from inflammation of large arteries in the brain and spinal cord 5 to 10 years after infection? - Asymptomatic - Parenchymatous - Meningovascular - Tabes dorsalis

Answer 613

-Meningovascular

Question 614

Which one of the following is NOT a vector of body lice? - Epidemic typhus - Trench fever - Relapsing fever - Borrelia miyamotoi

Answer 614

-Borrelia miyamotoi

Question 615

During the physical assessment of a 22-year-old man, an NP identifies cutaneous ulcerations on the left lateral aspect of the mouth. The patient states that he has experienced these lesions before. The NP diagnosis: - Herpes simplex virus 1 - Herpes simplex virus 2 - Folliculitis secondary to shaving - Erythema migrans

Answer 615

-Herpes simplex virus 1

Question 616

HIV destroys the immune system by: - Using the DNA of CD4+ cells to replicate itself - Increasing T lymphocytes in the body - Decreasing macrophages that destroy antigens - Using RNA to carry genetic mutation information

Answer 616

-Using the DNA of CD4+ cells to replicate itself

Question 617

Pelvic inflammatory disease is most commonly associated with: - Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae - Escherichia coli and Streptococcus aureus - Haemophilus influenzae and Mycoplasma hominis - Trochomonas vaginalis and Candida albicans

Answer 617

-Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Question 618

Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases increases the risk of HIV transmission? - Chancroid - Gonorrhea - Primary syphilis - Trichomoniasis

Answer 618

-Chancroid

Question 619

Transmission of herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1) is unlikely to be spread via: - Kissing - Oral sex - Vaginal intercourse - Contaminated surfaces

Answer 619

-Contaminated surfaces

Question 620

Which one of the following is NOT a reason that bacteria in the lower genital tract cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? - Variations in immune response - Estrogen levels affecting cervical mucus - Bacterial load of potential pathogens - Barrier protection of the dynamic vaginal ecosystem

Answer 620

-Barrier protection of the dynamic vaginal ecosystem

Question 621

Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease caused by a gram-negative intracellular aerobic diplococcus and results in purulent inflammation of the mucous membranes? - Neisseria gonorrhea - Chlamydia trachomatis - Gardnerella vaginalis - Mycoplasma genitalium

Answer 621

-Neisseria gonorrhea

Question 622

Which one of the following describes the genetic makeup of HIV? - Double-stranded - Negative-sense RNA - Monoploid - Retrovirus

Answer 622

-Retrovirus

Question 623

A 30-year-old woman presents with adnexal and cervical motion tenderness. This suggests a need to test for: - Candidal vulvovaginitis - Bacterial vaginosis - Polycystic ovarian syndrome - Chlamydia infection

Answer 623

-Chlamydia infection

Question 624

Which vaginal organism is considered a normal finding in a healthy woman of childbearing age? - Mobiluncus - Gardnerella - Lactobacillus - Trichomoniasis

Answer 624

-Lactobacillus

Question 625

Which one of the following is an inflammatory disorder of the gynecologic tract caused by ascent of microorganisms from the vagina and endocervix into the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and contiguous structures? - Ectopic pregnancy - Pelvic inflammatory disease - Inflammatory bowel disease - Ovarian cyst

Answer 625

-Pelvic inflammatory disease

Question 626

Which one of the following species is diminished or absent when a patient has bacterial vaginosis? - Gardnerella - Prevotella - Lactobacillus - Mobiluncus

Answer 626

-Lactobacillus

Question 627

Patients with latent syphilis most commonly exhibit: - Lynphadenopathy - Rash on the palms and the foot soles - No symptoms - Fever

Answer 627

-No symptoms

Question 628

Which of the following accounts for CD4+ cell depletion in patients with HIV? - Infection with cytotoxic T cells - Increased reproduction of T cells - Immune activation by lymphocytes - Cytokine invasion of CD4+ cells

Answer 628

-Infection with cytotoxic T cells

Question 629

Which one of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a spirochete that penetrates intact skin or mucous membranes during sexual intercourse? - Gonorrhea - Chlamydia - Syphilis - Herpes

Answer 629

-Syphilis

Question 630

Which of the following are two common aerobic etiologic agents in pelvic inflammatory disease? - Mycoplasma genitalium and Gardnerella vaginalis - Mycoplasma hominis and Haemophilus influenza - Neisserria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis - Streptococcus agalactiae and Mycoplasma genitalium

Answer 630

-Neisserria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

Question 631

Which organism is associated with chancroid? - Treponema pallidum - Haemophilus ducreyi - Haemophilus influenza - Herpes simplex virus

Answer 631

-Haemophilus ducreyi

Question 632

Which of the following is a protozoal pathogen associated with urethritis? - Mycoplasma genitalium - Trichomonas vaginalis - Candida albicans - Herpes simplex virus

Answer 632

-Trichomonas vaginalis

Question 633

Which stage of syphilis is characterized by syphilitic dermatitis? - Primary - Secondary - Tertiary - Latent

Answer 633

-Secondary

Question 634

Syphilis that enters the bloodstream and produces widespread mucocutaneous lesions is: - Primary syphilis - Secondary syphilis - Tertiary syphilis - Neurosyphilis

Answer 634

-Secondary syphilis

Question 635

A newborn is 1 week old. He has developed bilateral mucopurulent discharge, thickened conjunctivae, and slight eyelid swelling. The NP is concerned about: - Viral conjunctivitis - Chlamydial conjunctivitis - Chemical exposure - Blocked tear duct

Answer 635

-Chlamydial conjunctivitis

Question 636

Which type of lice are present in pubic infestation? - Pediculus hmanus var capitis - Pediculus humanus var corporis - Phthirus pubis - Sarcoptes scabiei

Answer 636

-Phthirus pubis

Question 637

Which one of the following is NOT a stage of gonococcal infection? - Systemic dissemination - Local inflammatory response - Local proliferation - Parietal cell surface attachment

Answer 637

-Parietal cell surface attachment

Question 638

During a pelvic examination, the NP observes petechiae on the cervix and suspects: - Bacterial vaginosis - Chlamydia - Gonorrhea - Trichomoniasis

Answer 638

-Trichomoniasis

Question 639

In men, primary syphilis presents as a: - Rash - Chancre - Herpes sore - Pustule

Answer 639

-Chancre

Question 640

Which statement about morbidity and mortality related to herpes simplex virus is NOT correct? - Mortality associated with herpes simplex infection may be related to perinatal infection - Encephalitis has been associated with mortality secondary to herpes simplex virus - An immunocompromised host is more likely to have increased mortality - Pain and discomfort are the most significant issues; mortality is not a concern

Answer 640

-Pain and discomfort are the most significant issues; mortality is not a concern

Question 641

After initial infection, parenchymatous neurosyphilis may develop over a period of: - 2 years - 5 years - 10 years - 15 years

Answer 641

-15 years

Question 642

Untreated chlamydial infection in pregnancy can cause which of the following in a newborn? - Sudden death - Conjunctivitis - Thrush - Osteomalacia

Answer 642

-Conjunctivitis

Question 643

Which of the following is responsible for epidemic typhus? - Pediculus humanus corporis - Sarcoptes scabiei - Phthirus pubis - Ixodoidea

Answer 643

-Pediculus humanus corporis

Question 644

Which of the following is NOT likely a complication of pelvic inflammatory disease? - Ectopic pregnancy - Infertility - Chronic pelvic pain - Amenorrhea

Answer 644

-Amenorrhea

Question 645

Which of the following bacteria are responsible for the development of a chancroid? - Haemophilus ducreyi - Chlamydia trachomatis - Mycoplasma genitalium - Herpes simplex virus

Answer 645

-Haemophilus ducreyi

Question 646

A 75-year-old patient is experiencing progressive confusion and memory deterioration. Which of the following conditions that mimic dementia would be appropriate to test for? - Urinary tract infection - Neurosyphilis - Ischemic stroke - Parkinson's disease

Answer 646

-Neurosyphilis

Question 647

Which one of the following statements about HIV is NOT correct? - HIV is a bloodborne virus - HIV is a sexually transmissible infection - HIV cannot be transmitted during breastfeeding - Shared intravenous drug paraphernalia can cause transmission of HIV

Answer 647

-HIV cannot be transmitted during breastfeeding

Question 648

During which of the following life stages is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) most common? - Prepuberty - Adolescence - Perimenopause - Postmenopause

Answer 648

-Adolescence

Question 649

Which term best describes Chlamydia trachomatis? - Gram-negative anaerobic bacteria - Gram-positive anaerobic bacteria - Gram-negative aerobic bacteria - Gram positive aerobic bacteria

Answer 649

-Gram-negative aerobic bacteria

Question 650

Which one of the following is sexually transmitted? - Pediculus humanus var capitis - Pediculus humanus var corporis - Phthirus pubis - Sarcoptes scabiei

Answer 650

-Phthirus pubis

Question 651

HPV vaccination does NOT prevent HPV infection in the: - Cervix - Ovaries - Vagina - Vulva

Answer 651

-Ovaries

Question 652

Which problem is NOT secondary to a serotype of Chlamydia? - Genital ulcerations - Ocular disease - Infantile pneumonia - Osteomalacia

Answer 652

-Osteomalacia

Question 653

Which of the following diseases is associated with Treponema pallidium? - Granuloma inguinale - Chancroid - Syphilis - Lymphogranuloma venereum

Answer 653

-Syphilis

Question 654

Which statement about herpes simplex virus (HSV) is correct? - HSV-2 causes HPV - HSV-1 causes shingles - HSV-1 causes cold sores - HSV-2 causes chickenpox

Answer 654

-HSV-1 causes cold sores

Question 655

Which of the following is a predisposing factor for the alteration of normal nicroflora in postmenopausal women? - Increased progestin - Decreased progestin - Increased estrogen - Decreased estrogen

Answer 655

-Decreased estrogen

Question 656

Which stage of gonococcal infection transmission involves bacteria attachment to epithelial cells by means of N-methyl phenylalanine? - First - Second - Third - Fourth

Answer 656

-First

Question 657

HIV produces cellular immunity deficiency by depleting: - Macrophages - T lymphocytes - Lymphocytes - Monocytes

Answer 657

-T lymphocytes

Question 658

Which one of the following is a gram-negative, intracellular, aerobic diplococcus sexually transmitted disease in men? - Syphilis - Gonorrhea - Chlamydia - HIV

Answer 658

-Gonorrhea

Question 659

Which one of the following is caused by a single-celled flagellated protozoan and primarily infects the squamous epithelium in the urogenital tract? - Gonorrhea - Chlamydia - Trichomoniasis - Vaginal candidiasis

Answer 659

-Trichomoniasis

Question 660

Which one of the following facilitates bacterial overgrowth in a patient who has bacterial vaginosis? - Alkalization within the vagina - Acidity within the vagina - Increased progestin concentration - Increased estrogen concentration

Answer 660

-Alkalization within the vagina

Question 661

Which one of the following is NOT an area of the body infected by Trichomonas vaginalis? - The vagina - The cervix - The bartholin glands - The ovaries

Answer 661

-The ovaries

Question 662

The type of hernia in which the hernial sac protrudes directly through the abdominal wall in the region of hesselbach triangle is called a(n): - Inguinal hernia - Umbilical hernia - Femoral hernia - Spigelian hernia

Answer 662

-Inguinal hernia

Question 663

An incarcerated hernia in which blood supply to the entrapped bowel has been diminished is referred to as: - Reducible - Direct - Indirect - Strangulated

Answer 663

-Strangulated

Question 664

Which of the following is a diffuse hepatic process characterized by fibrosis and conversion of the normal liver tissues into structurally abnormal nodules? - Hepatitis - Liver cancer - Liver cysts - Cirrhosis

Answer 664

-Cirrhosis

Question 665

Inflammation of the pear-shaped, muscular sac that stores bile is called: - Appendicitis - Cholecystitis - Pancreatitis - Peptic ulcer disease

Answer 665

-Cholecystitis

Question 666

Diarrhea is caused by an incomplete absorption of water from the: - Stomach - Jejunum - Ileum - Large intestine

Answer 666

-Large intestine

Question 667

Which mechanism is NOT associated with the development of jaundice? - Excessive production of bilirubin - Increased hepatocyte uptake - Decreased hepatocellular excretion - Impaired bile flow

Answer 667

-Increased hepatocyte uptake

Question 668

In evaluating a patient with nausea, the differential diagnosis that would include a central nervous system cause is: - Biliary obstruction - Vertigo - Viral gastroenteritis - Gastroesophageal reflux

Answer 668

-Vertigo

Question 669

Factors that lead to reflux do NOT include: - Cigarette smoking - Obesity - Hiatal hernia - Constipation

Answer 669

-Constipation

Question 670

Mechanical and chemical receptors in the GI tract that trigger nausea are communicated to the brain primarily by the: - Vestibulocochlear nerve - Trigeminal nerve - Vagal nerve - Hypoglossal nerve

Answer 670

-Vagal nerve

Question 671

The most common cause of constipation originating outside the colon is a deficiency in: - Fiber - Calcium - Protein - Zinc

Answer 671

-Fiber

Question 672

The most common cause of bilirubin overproduction, resulting in jaundice, is: - Hemolytic anemia - Cirrhosis - Increased erythrocyte production - Cholelithiasis

Answer 672

-Hemolytic anemia

Question 673

One of the many sequelae associated with cirrhosis is hepatic encephalopathy. It is caused by the inability of the liver to: - Detoxify ammonia - Synthesize glycogen - Produce bile - Break down insulin

Answer 673

-Detoxify ammonia

Question 674

The most common cause of infectious esophagitis is: - Helicobacter pylori - Staphylococcus aureus - Herpes simplex virus - Candida

Answer 674

-Candida

Question 675

The most common site for diverticulosis to occur is the: - Jejunum - Small intestine - Sigmoid colon - Ileum

Answer 675

-Sigmoid colon

Question 676

A 46-year-old construction worker seeks evaluation of a protruding mass he noticed after lifting a heavy rock. He is now experiencing pain with coughing. The history and symptoms are suspicious for: - Femoral hernia - Inguinal hernia - Umbilical hernia - Hiatal hernia

Answer 676

-Inguinal hernia

Question 677

Hemolytic disease of the newborn may lead to accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin in the brain, which can cause kernicterus. A characteristic of unconjugated bilirubin is that it: - Is not soluble in water - Is soluble in water - Increases bile production - Is lipid soluble

Answer 677

-Is not soluble in water

Question 678

A complication NOT commonly associated with Chron's disease is: - Anal fistulas - Intestinal obstruction - Vitamin B12 deficiency - Peritonitis

Answer 678

-Peritonitis

Question 679

Which of the following is associated with the development of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia? - Excessive production of bilirubin - Reduced hepatocyte uptake - Impaired conjugation of bilirubin - Impaired bile flow

Answer 679

-Impaired bile flow

Question 680

Diverticulosis is common where diets are low in: - Fat - Fiber - Protein - Carbohydrates

Answer 680

-Fiber

Question 681

Which type of hernia involves a bulging of the stomach through the diaphragm and into the chest? - Inguinal hernia - Umbilical hernia - Hiatal hernia - Epigastric hernia

Answer 681

-Hiatal hernia

Question 682

A 50-year-old man is being evaluated for complaints of an umbilical mass that cannot be reduced by manipulation. The nurse practitioner suspects: - Incarcerated hernia - Colon cancer - Abdominal aortic aneurysm - Cholecystitis

Answer 682

-Incarcerated hernia

Question 683

The backflow of gastric or duodenal contents into the esophagus is known as: - Gastroesophageal reflux - Cholelithiasis - Esophageal spasm - Peptic ulcer disease

Answer 683

-Gastroesophageal reflux

Question 684

Five neurotransmitter sites are important in the vomiting reflex. The neurotransmitter NOT associated with vomiting reflex are: - Dopamine - Serotonin - Histamine - Glutamine

Answer 684

-Glutamine

Question 685

A cluster of vascular tissue, smooth muscle, and connective tissue lining the anal canal is known as: - Condyloma acuminatum - Rectal prolapse - Hemorrhoids - Proctitis

Answer 685

-Hemorrhoids

Question 686

Hepatic steatosis develops as a result of: - Hepatocyte swelling and necrosis - The accumulation of neutrophils around hepatocytes - Diffuse nodularity and fibrosis of hepatocytes - Accumulation of lipid droplets in hepatocytes

Answer 686

-Accumulation of lipid droplets in hepatocytes

Question 687

Gastrointestinal infections with helicobacter infection cause: - A decreased production of gastric acid - An increased production of gastric acid - A decrease in the pH of gastric acid - An increase in the pH of gastric acid

Answer 687

-A decreased production of gastric acid

Question 688

The pancreatic enzymes amylase and lipase are inactivated when the pH is below: - 5 - 6 - 7 - 8

Answer 688

-5

Question 689

Extraintestinal manifestations of Chron's disease include: - Heart failure - Pedal edema - Cholelithiasis - Splenomegaly

Answer 689

-Cholelithiasis

Question 690

Acute inflammation and autodigestion in the pancreas lead to an elevation in: - Liver enzymes and metabolic markers - Amylase and lipase levels - Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase - Lactate and blood glucose

Answer 690

-Amylase and lipase levels

Question 691

Which one of the following is NOT an enzyme produced in the pancreas? - Amylase - Protease - Lipase - Pepsin

Answer 691

-Pepsin

Question 692

A hiatal hernia occurs when a defect in the diaphragm permits protrusion of the: - Transverse colon - Esophagus - Stomach - Small intestine

Answer 692

-Stomach

Question 693

Which statement about Chron's disease is true? - Chron's disease affects the mucosal layer of the intestine only - Granuloma development is not associated with Chron's disease - Chron's disease only affects the entire small intestine - Chron's disease is characterized by mucosal ulceration and inflammation anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract

Answer 693

-Chron's disease is characterized by mucosal ulceration and inflammation anywhere along the gastrointestinal tract

Question 694

A patient with early satiety, small volume emesis, and bloating is most likely experiencing: - Gastroenteritis - Gastroparesis - Constipation - Reflux

Answer 694

-Gastroparesis

Question 695

Normal function of the pancreas does NOT include the ability to: - Produce digestive enzymes - Decrease the serum concentration of fatty acids - Neutralize gastric acid in the duodenum - Produce insulin

Answer 695

-Decrease the serum concentration of fatty acids

Question 696

Macular degeneration causes a loss of: - Peripheral vision - Total vision - Night vision - Central vision

Answer 696

-Central vision

Question 697

The most common fungal pathogen associated with otitis externa is: - Histoplasma - Aspergillus - Cryptococcus - Pneumocystitis

Answer 697

-Aspergillus

Question 698

A group of disorders characterized by elevated intraocular pressure is: - Glaucoma - Conjunctivitis - Uveitis - Keratitis

Answer 698

-Glaucoma

Question 699

Which one of the following is the eye condition in which objects in close proximity are clear and objects in the distance are blurry? - Hyperopia - Astigmatism - Myopia - Presbyopia

Answer 699

-Myopia

Question 700

Which form of glaucoma is characterized by a slow rise in intraocular pressure? - Congenital - Open-angle - Angle-closure - Partial-angle

Answer 700

-Open-angle

Question 701

Sensorineural hearing loss is due to dysfunction of the: - External canal - Pinna - Inner ear - Cranial nerve IV

Answer 701

-Inner ear

Question 702

Light that is focused behind the retina causes the visual disturbance known as: - Hyperopia - Astigmatism - Myopia - Presbyopia

Answer 702

-Hyperopia

Question 703

The failure of one or both eyes to achieve normal visual acuity despite normal structural health is called: - Myopia - Presbyopia - Amblyopia - Hyperopia

Answer 703

-Amblyopia

Question 704

The immediate symptom response in allergic conjunctivitis is due to the rupture of: - Neutrophils - Mast cells - Epithelial cells - Lymphocytes

Answer 704

-Mast cells

Question 705

Infection of the palatine tonsils may become severe quickly because: - They are made up of granular tissue - They are salivary glands - The area is composed of loose connective tissue - A rich blood supply is present in the area

Answer 705

-The area is composed of loose connective tissue

Question 706

The principal mediator in allergic rhinitis is: - Cytokine - Lysosomal enzyme - Prostaglandin - Histamine

Answer 706

-Histamine

Question 707

Lymphadenopathy associated with a peritonsillar abscess will be evident in: - Supraclavicular nodes - Posterior cervical lymph nodes - Submandibular lymph nodes - Anterior cervical lymph nodes

Answer 707

-Anterior cervical lymph nodes Positioned in front of the neck. Responsible for lymph fluid that drains from the back of the pharynx, throat, thyroid gland, and tonsils.

Question 708

Which autoimmune disorder is characterized by dry eyes and dry mouth? - Celiac disease - Sjogren's syndrome - Lupus - Type 1 diabetes

Answer 708

-Sjogren's syndrome

Question 709

An inflammation of the nasolacrimal sac that is caused by nasolacrimal duct obstruction or infection is termed: - Conjunctivitis - A colobomas - Dacryocystitis - Leukocoria

Answer 709

-Dacryocystitis

Question 710

A factor that may affect the onset and severity of presbycusis is: - Asian ethnicity - Use of earphones - Hypertension - Pinnal damage

Answer 710

-Hypertension

Question 711

Viral rhinitis is typically transmitted to the paranasal sinuses through: - Nose blowing - Sniffling - Coughing - Sneezing

Answer 711

-Nose blowing

Question 712

What is the term for hemorrhage into the anterior eye chamber as a result of iris rupture? - Hyphema - Blepharitis - Dacryostenosis - Subconjunctival hemorrhage

Answer 712

-Hyphema

Question 713

Complications of acute otitis media can include: - Presbycusis - Mastoiditis - Tympanic membrane rupture - Otitis externa

Answer 713

-Mastoiditis

Question 714

Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of epiglottitis? - Staphylococcus aureus - Respiratory syncytial virus - Moraxella catarrhalis - Haemophilus influenza type b

Answer 714

-Haemophilus influenza type b

Question 715

The process that is NOT associated with the progression of mastoiditis is: - Hyperemia of the mucosal lining of the mastoid air cells - Transudation and exudation of fluid within the cells - Temporal bone reconstruction and increased septal vascularity - Cell wall loss with coalescence into abscess cavities

Answer 715

-Temporal bone reconstruction and increased septal vascularity

Question 716

Which of the following produces and releases leukotriene C4 and histamine into tear fluid during allergic response? - Eosinophils - Basophils - Neutrophils - Monocytes

Answer 716

-Eosinophils

Question 717

Mastoiditis is most commonly caused by: - Staphylococcus aureus - Mycobacterium - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answer 717

-Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 718

Fluid accumulation in the middle ear without evidence of infection is called: - Acute otitis media - Otitis externa - Mastoiditis - Otitis media with effusion

Answer 718

-Otitis media with effusion

Question 719

Peritonsillar abscess is a complication of: - Allergic rhinitis - Tonsillitis - Laryngitis - Dental infection

Answer 719

-Tonsillitis

Question 720

Thrush is most commonly caused by: - Aspergillus flavus - Candida albicans - Cryptococcus neoformans - Magnaporthe grisea

Answer 720

-Candida albicans

Question 721

Which one of the following helps prevent infection by maintaining the acidic environment of the ear canal? - Antihelix - Acoustic meatus - Cerumen - Middle ear fluid

Answer 721

-Cerumen

Question 722

Persistent overflow of tears over the lower lid margin is: - Aqueous tear deficiency - Epiphora - Keratoconjunctivitis sicca - Blepharitis

Answer 722

-Epiphora

Question 723

Subjective tinnitus is thought to be caused by: - Increased turbulence through the hair follicles - Muscle spasms of the stapedius - Abnormal neuronal activity - Turbulent flow in blood vessels

Answer 723

-Abnormal neuronal activity

Question 724

Which of the following vaccines protects against the pathogen that is primarily responsible for epiglottitis? - Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib) vaccine - Influenza vaccine - Diptheria, tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) vaccine - Rotavirus (RV) vaccine

Answer 724

-Haemophilus influenza type B (Hib) vaccine

Question 725

Epstein-Barr virus is NOT spread via: - Kissing - Contaminated food - Sharing eating utensils - Sexual contact

Answer 725

-Contaminated food

Question 726

Normal intraocular pressure is: - 2-5 mm Hg - 5-10 mm Hg - 10-23 mm Hg - 25-40 mm Hg

Answer 726

- 10-23 mm Hg

Question 727

The most common etiologic agent of the common cold is: - Parainfluenza virus - Adenovirus - Rhinovirus - Coronavirus

Answer 727

-Rhinovirus

Question 728

Entropion is defined as: - An inward turning of the lower eyelid - An outward turning of the lower eyelid - Drooping of the eyelid - A retracted eyelid with a wide-eyed stare

Answer 728

-An inward turning of the lower eyelid

Question 729

When a tooth is avulsed, a solution of amino acids and vitamins capable of inactivating enzymes that are harmful to peridontal ligament cells should be utilized. Which one of the following is the most commonly used solution? - Hank's balanced salt solution - Isotonic saline - Milk - Saliva

Answer 729

-Milk

Question 730

The most common cause of otitis externa is: - Hearing aid use - Seasonal allergies - Swimming - Foreign body

Answer 730

-Swimming

Question 731

In patients who have allergic rhinitis, sneezing and itching are due to: - Mucous gland hypoactivity - Vasodilation - Stimulation of sensory nerves - Presence of drug bodies

Answer 731

-Stimulation of sensory nerves

Question 732

The inability of ossicles to properly conduct sound in the ear is described as a(n): - Conductive hearing loss - Sensorineural hearing loss - Auditory dyssynchrony - Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder

Answer 732

-Conductive hearing loss

Question 733

Recurrent epistaxis in children is most often caused by: - H. influenzae - Platelet disorders - Staphylococcus aureus - Iron deficiency

Answer 733

-Staphylococcus aureus

Question 734

The most common pathogen associated with otitis media is: - Staphylococcus aureus - Streptococcus pneumoniae - Pseudomonas aeruginosa - Escherichia coli

Answer 734

-Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question 735

Which of the following is a cause of conductive hearing loss? - Acoustic neuroma - Cerumen impaction - Toxoplasmosis - Meniere's disease

Answer 735

-Cerumen impaction

Question 736

An acute inflammation in the supraglottic region of the oropharynx is most likely: - Tonsillitis - Pharyngitis - Epiglottitis - Peritonsillar abscess

Answer 736

-Epiglottitis

Question 737

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1 is more commonly associated with: - Shingles - Impetigo - Orofacial lesions - Genital lesions

Answer 737

-Orofacial lesions

Question 738

Local nasal irritation that causes blood vessels to become exposed and break is likely to cause: - Epistaxis - Nasal congestion - Orofacial pain - Nausea

Answer 738

-Epistaxis

Question 739

Which of the following symptoms is associated with the initial appearance of measurable histamines in a patient with allergic rhinitis? - Coughing - Fever - Sneezing - Nasal congestion

Answer 739

-Sneezing

Question 740

Which one of the following processes does NOT transform sound waves into something that can be heard? - Vibration of tympanic membranes - Fluid vibrations in the cochlea - Stimulation of the hair cells of the organ of Corti - Interpretation of sound by the cochlear nerve

Answer 740

-Interpretation of sound by the cochlear nerve

Question 741

The primary site of inoculation by rhinovirus is the: - Nasopharyngeal sphincter - Nasal mucosa - Retromolar trigone - Buccal cavity

Answer 741

-Nasal mucosa

Question 742

Which one of the following is NOT a potential sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis? - Acute glomerulonephritis - Peritonsillar abscess - Toxic shock syndrome - Meningitis

Answer 742

-Meningitis

Question 743

A nontraumatic inflammation or irritation of the connective tissue of the eye is: - Conjunctivitis - Blepharitis - Iritis - Uveitis

Answer 743

-Conjunctivitis

Question 744

Inflammation or infection of the eyelids associated with bacterial infection, dry eyes, and/or rosacea is: - Blepharitis - Sebaceous cell carcinoma - Chalazion - Hordeolum

Answer 744

-Blepharitis

Question 745

Erythema, edema and narrowing of the diameter of the external auditory canal is most likely related to: - Acute otitis media - Mastoiditis - Labrynthitis - Otitis externa

Answer 745

-Otitis externa

Question 746

Which one of the following statements is true about the lacrimal excretory system? - The lacrimal excretory system does not usually become infected - Occlusion of the lacrimal excretory system results in a chalazion - The lacrimal excretory system collects tear film and drains it into the nasal cavity - The lacrimal excretory system causes dacryostenosis

Answer 746

-The lacrimal excretory system collects tear film and drains it into the nasal cavity

Question 747

The early allergic response is mediated by: - Cytokines - Mast cells and basophils - Neutrophils and mononuclear cells - Macrophages and immunoglobulin G

Answer 747

-Mast cells and basophils

Question 748

The majority of epistaxis episodes occur in the anterior portion of the septum, which is known as: - The superior nasal conchus - Kiesselbach's plexus - The sphenoethmoidal recess - The superior nasal meatus

Answer 748

-Kiesselbach's plexus

Question 749

An inflammation or infectious process in the mucous membrane of a newborn's eye is: - Neonatal conjunctivitis - Dacryostenosis - Orbital cellulitis - Congenital glaucoma

Answer 749

-Neonatal conjunctivitis

Question 750

An abnormal growth of squamous epithelium in the middle ear and mastoid is: - Melanoma - Otosclerosis - Osteoma - Cholesteatoma

Answer 750

-Cholesteatoma

Question 751

Which immunoglobulin is responsible for the symptoms in a patient who has allergic rhinitis? - IgE - IgM - IgE - IgA

Answer 751

-IgE

Question 752

A nonspherical curvature of the cornea or lens of the eye that causes light to focus at different points is called: - Nystagmus - Astigmatism - Hyperopia - Presbyopia

Answer 752

-Astigmatism

Question 753

Transmission of rhinovirus: - Is not possible from a contaminated object - Is highly likely even with brief exposures to infected people - May occur via hand-to-hand contact - Is most likely to occur before the patient is symptomatic

Answer 753

-May occur via hand-to-hand contact

Question 754

The inability of the brain to interpret sound that enters the ear normally is called: - Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder - An acoustic neuroma - Sensorineural hearing loss - Conductive hearing loss

Answer 754

-Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder

Question 755

Hearing loss that occurs due to the tympanic membrane's inability to vibrate in response to sound is known as: - Sensorineural hearing loss - Conductive hearing loss - Auditory dyssynchrony - Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder

Answer 755

-Sensorineural hearing loss

Question 756

A nonmalignant synovial swelling of the popliteal fossa resulting from distention of the gastrocnemial-semimebranous bursa is: - A Baker's cyst - A lipoma - A hematoma - A xanthoma

Answer 756

-A Baker's cyst

Question 757

A 54-year-old woman reports left wrist stiffness at rest and with movement. An X-ray of the left wrist identifies joint space narrowing, bony erosion in the joint, and reduced bone density surrounding the joint. What is the probable diagnosis? - Bursitis - Osteoarthritis - Systemic lupus - Rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 757

-Rheumatoid arthritis

Question 758

Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency in: - Iron - Vitamin D - Phosphate - Vitamin C

Answer 758

-Vitamin D

Question 759

Which of the following is a physical assessment test to assist in the diagnosis of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease? - Ortolani's sign - Ely's test - Lachman test - Trendelenburg sign

Answer 759

-Trendelenburg sign

Question 760

The principal cellular mediators of inflammation are: - Monocytes - Leukocytes - Eosinophils - Neutrophils

Answer 760

-Leukocytes

Question 761

Which one of the following is NOT an underlying neuromuscular disorder that causes developmental dysplasia of the hip? - Cerebral palsy - Myasthenia gravis - Myelodysplasia - Arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

Answer 761

-Myasthenia gravis

Question 762

The pathologic hallmark of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis is: - Inflamed synovial tissue - Osteophyte development - Subchondral sclerosis - Popliteal cyst rupture

Answer 762

-Inflamed synovial tissue

Question 763

Finkelstein maneuver is a test to assist in the diagnosis of: - Carpal tunnel syndrome - Epicondylitis - DeQuervain's tenosynovitis - Bursitis

Answer 763

-DeQuervain's tenosynovitis

Question 764

At what age is maximal bone mass attained? - 20 years - 30 years - 40 years - 50 years

Answer 764

-30 years

Question 765

Which one of the following is associated with slipped capital femoral epiphysis in a pediatric patient? - Osteoporosis - Osteoarthritis - Osteonecrosis - Osteopenia

Answer 765

-Osteonecrosis

Question 766

The pediatric orthopedic condition best described as osteonecrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis due to interrupted vascular supply that results in ischemia and alteration in cartilage growth is: - Toxic synovitis - Legg-Calve-Perthes disease - Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia - Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

Answer 766

-Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

Question 767

The orthopedic finding of metatarsalgia and callus formation in the plantar area of the MTP joint is called: - Phalangeal exostosis - Bursitis - Hammer toe deformity - Arthritis

Answer 767

-Hammer toe deformity

Question 768

The condition characterized by low bone density and deterioration of bone tissue is: - Osteoporosis - Osteosclerosis - Osteoarthritis - Osteosarcoma

Answer 768

-Osteoporosis

Question 769

Displacement of the femoral head that produces instability of the growth plate is called: - Slipped capital femoral epiphysis - Osgood-Schlatter disease - Legg-Calve-Perthes disease - Patellofemoral stress syndrome

Answer 769

-Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

Question 770

Which risk factor is commonly associated with the trigger of a gouty attack? - Smoking - Hyperlipidemia - Alcohol use - Sedentary lifestyle

Answer 770

-Alcohol use

Question 771

In which condition does the femoral head partially displace during a pediatric physical assessment? - Dislocated hip - Subluxable hip - Acetabular dysplasia - Bursitis of the hip

Answer 771

-Subluxable hip

Question 772

Progressive destruction of the articular cartilage and subchondral bone causing joint pain is: - Rheumatoid arthritis - Tendonitis - Pseudogout - Osteoarthritis

Answer 772

-Osteoarthritis

Question 773

Anterior dislocation of the hip is called: - Teratologic dislocation - Dislocatable hip - Subluxable hip - Acetabular dislocation

Answer 773

-Teratologic dislocation

Question 774

A pathologic alteration in the musculotendinous origins of the extensor carpi radialis brevis muscle and longus tendons as a result of overuse is: - Lateral epicondylitis - Synovitis of the elbow - Cubital tunnel syndrome - Bursitis

Answer 774

-Lateral epicondylitis

Question 775

Which of the following is NOT a result of nerve compression associated with carpal tunnel syndrome? - Disorders of the intraneural microcirculation - Lesions of the myelin sheath and axon - Osteomalacia of the surrounding bones - Alteration in supporting connective tissue

Answer 775

-Osteomalacia of the surrounding bones

Question 776

A 50-year-old woman reports morning joint stiffness that lasts less than 1 hour and resumes after activity. During physical examination, the NP detects crepitus. This symptom indicates: - Rheumatoid arthritis - Bursitis - Tendonitis - Osteoarthritis

Answer 776

-Osteoarthritis

Question 777

A congenital deformity of the foot that causes plantar flexion is: - Metatarsus adductus - Talipes equinovarus - Stress fracture - Plantar fascitis

Answer 777

-Talipes equinovarus

Question 778

Which one of the following conditions is the entrapment neuropathy that causes mechanical compression and local ischemia damage to the median nerve? - Carpal tunnel syndrome - Cervical radiculopathy - De Quervain's tenosynovitis - Peripheral neuropathy

Answer 778

-Carpal tunnel syndrome

Question 779

The posterior fontanelle of the newborn: - Is a circle-shaped junction between the two parietal bones of the skull - Usually closes at about 4 months of age - Closes as a result of ossification and turns to bone tissue - Should be bulging until the first month of life

Answer 779

-Closes as a result of ossification and turns to bone tissue

Question 780

Synovial fluid does NOT: - Reduce the friction between articular cartilage of synovial joints during movement - Provide nutrition to the avascular articular cartilage - Regenerate bone epiphyses - Aid in shock absorption

Answer 780

-Regenerate bone epiphyses

Question 781

The agents responsible for bone resorption in the process of bone remodeling are: - Myeloid stem cells - Mesenchymal cells - Osteoclasts - Osteoblasts

Answer 781

-Osteoclasts

Question 782

Which orthopedic condition produces joint pain and inflammation due to deposition of monosodium urate crystals into joints? - Rheumatoid arthritis - Gout - Septic joint - Cellulitis

Answer 782

-Gout

Question 783

Stabilizing the pelvis with one hand and adducting the opposite hip by applying a posterior force is known as: - Galeazzi's sign - Ortolani's sign - Barlow's maneuver - McMurray's sign

Answer 783

-Barlow's maneuver

Question 784

The most common site of curvature in a patient with scoliosis is: - The left cervical spine - The right lumbar spine - The left lumbar spine - The right thoracic spine

Answer 784

-The right thoracic spine

Question 785

The bone that is most frequently fractured at birth is the: - Femur - Clavicle - Coccyx - Ulna

Answer 785

-Clavicle

Question 786

An X-ray of the right knee in a 10-year-old boy reporting right knee pain shows calcified thickening and heterotopic ossification of the tibial tuberosity and soft tissue swelling. What is the diagnosis? - Patellofemoral syndrome - Osgood-Schlatter disease - Neoplasm of the tibia - Bursitis of the tibial plateau

Answer 786

-Osgood-Schlatter disease

Question 787

Rickets is a disorder caused by: - Inadequate vitamin D - Inadequate calcium - Inadequate phosphate - Inadequate sodium

Answer 787

-Inadequate vitamin D

Question 788

Which of the following substances may be associated with the production of crystals in the joints of a patient with gout? - Uric acid - Calcium - Ammonia - Sodium

Answer 788

-Uric acid

Question 789

Osteoporosis prevention involves a recommended intake of: - Progestin and vitamin D - Calcium and vitamin D - Magnesium and calcium - Estrogen and progestin

Answer 789

-Calcium and vitamin D

Question 790

The skeletal disorder characterized by loss of total bone mass and increased bone fragility is termed: - Rickets - Osteomalacia - Osteopenia - Osteoporosis

Answer 790

-Osteoporosis

Question 791

In the case of septic arthritis secondary to septicemia, bacteria initially deposit in the: - Bone - Synovial membrane - Cartilage - Skin

Answer 791

-Synovial membrane

Question 792

The major clinical manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is: - Joint swelling - Deep tendon hyporeflexia - Decreased range of motion - Ecchymosis in the affected side

Answer 792

-Joint swelling

Question 793

Which orthopedic condition is described as an abnormality of the epiphyseal ossification of the tibial tubercle? - Patellofemoral syndrome - Neoplasm of the tibia - Osgood-Schlatter disease - Avulsion of the tibial tubercle

Answer 793

-Osgood-Schlatter disease

Question 794

Which one of the following diseases is associated with neuromuscular scoliosis? - Fibromyalgia - Spinal stenosis - Cerebral palsy - Multiple sclerosis

Answer 794

-Cerebral palsy

Question 795

A lateral deviation of the spinal column that may cause rotation or deformity in the vertebrae is termed: - Scoliosis - Osteoporosis - Legg Calve Perthes disease - Osgood Schlatter disease

Answer 795

-Scoliosis

Question 796

The most common cause of a septic arthritis is: - Staphylococcus aureus - Klebsiella pneumoniae - Group A Streptococcus - Corynebacterium

Answer 796

-Staphylococcus aureus

Question 797

Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the tertiary stage of syphilis? a. A single painless lesion, chancre, on the genital area b. Absence of symptoms c. Rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles d. Poor muscle coordination

Answer 797

d. Poor muscle coordination | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 798

Which stage of syphilis includes findings of a symmetrical, reddish-pink, non-itchy rash on the trunk and extremities, including the palms and soles of the feet? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Latent d. Tertiary

Answer 798

b. Secondary | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 799

Which type of virus causes oral and genital lesions through sexual contact? a. Chancroid b. Herpes simplex virus (HV-1) c. Herpes zoster d. Syphilis

Answer 799

b. Herpes simplex virus (HV-1) | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 800

Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) is caused by infection with a protozoan parasite? a. Chlamydia b. Genital herpes c. Trichomoniasis d. Syphilis

Answer 800

c. Trichomoniasis | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 801

Which stage of syphilis is described as having serologic proof of infection without symptoms of disease? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Latent d. Tertiary

Answer 801

c. Latent | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 802

A chancre is defined as a: a. group of small scattered vesicles b. painless ulceration c. papule of many shapes d. non-tender penile indurated nodule

Answer 802

b. painless ulceration | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 803

Which gynecological assessment finding includes a fish-like odor with white vaginal discharge on physical presentation and clue cells on microscopic exam? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Trichomoniasis d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)

Answer 803

d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV) | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 804

Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) in men causes a yellowish discharge from the penis, accompanied by itching and burning? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Trichomoniasis d. Syphilis

Answer 804

b. Gonorrhea | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 805

Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) can lead to serious neurological conditions if left untreated? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Trichomoniasis d. Syphilis

Answer 805

d. Syphilis | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 806

What is the most commonly reported sexually transmitted disease (STD) in the United States? a. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) b. Syphilis c. Chlamydia d. Gonorrhea

Answer 806

c. Chlamydia | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 807

Which of the following is NOT considered a sexually transmitted disease (STD)? a. Chlamydia b. Gonorrhea c. Trichomoniasis d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)

Answer 807

d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV) | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 808

Which is NOT a type of diagnostic test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. Antibody test b. Combination antibody and antigen test c. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) d. Nucleic acid tests (NATs)

Answer 808

c. Cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 809

Which sexually transmitted disease (STD) is known as a 'silent' infection and often lacks abnormal physical examination findings? a. Syphilis b. Chlamydia c. Trichomoniasis d. Bacterial vaginosis

Answer 809

b. Chlamydia | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 810

Hairy leukoplakia may be associated with: a. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) b. Addison's disease c. Cushing's disease d. Diabetes

Answer 810

a. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 811

What is the sexually transmitted disease (STD) caused by infection with Haemophilus ducreyi and characterized by painful necrotizing genital ulcers? a. Herpes simplex virus b. Chancroid c. Syphilis d. Herpes zoster

Answer 811

b. Chancroid | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 812

When examining the external genitalia of a female patient, excoriations and itchy, small, red maculopapulares were noted. These lesions may be suggestive of: a. Genital herpes b. Pediculosis pubis c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Genital warts

Answer 812

b. Pediculosis pubis | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 813

What type of cells are found on the wet mount slide of a patient with bacterial vaginosis (BV)? a. Lactobacilli b. Yeast cells c. Clue cells d. White blood cells

Answer 813

c. Clue cells | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 814

What cluster of differentiation 4 (CD4) lab result suggests that a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? a. 150 cells/mm3 b. 300 cells/mm3 c. 500 cells/mm3 d. 650 cells/mm3

Answer 814

a. 150 cells/mm3 | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 815

What is the gold standard method for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis (BV)? a. Bimanual examination b. Urine culture c. Gram stain d. Rectal examination

Answer 815

c. Gram stain | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 816

Which genital infection can cause cervicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), tubal factor infertility, and ectopic pregnancy in women if untreated? a. Chlamydia b. Syphilis c. Trichomoniasis d. Bacterial vaginosis (BV)

Answer 816

a. Chlamydia | * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI

Question 817

Which of the following signs and symptoms are consistent with genital warts? a. Pain or itching in the genital area and the presence of small, red papules or vesicles b. Small, flesh-colored or grey lesions and itching in the genital area c. Presence of vaginal or penile discharge d. Painful bowel movements, anal itching, and painful or swollen testicles or abnormal menstrual bleeding.

Answer 817

b. Small, flesh-colored or grey lesions and itching in the genital area * APEA QUIZ BANK -STI