Performance Flashcards

(42 cards)

1
Q

Regulations relating to T/O performance consist of separate requirements for:

A
  • Runway Length
  • Climb Gradients
  • Obstacle Clearance
  • Tyre Speed
  • Brake Energy
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2
Q

TOD, TOR & ASDA are affected by:

A
  • Pressure Altitude
  • Temperature
  • Wind
  • Aircraft Weight
  • Aircraft T/O Configuration
  • Engine Bleed Configuration
  • Runway Slope
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3
Q

For OEI the required climb gradient in take off segment 2 is:

A

2.4%

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4
Q

For OEI the required climb gradient for take-off segment 4 is:

A

1.2%

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5
Q

ICAO Pans Ops Procedure Design Gradient (PDG) for SIDs should be no more than:

A

3.3%

This is made up of an Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS) of 2.5% + 0.8 margin.

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6
Q

Net Take-Off Flight Path must clear obstacles by a vertical distance of 35ft or by a horizontal distance of:

A

90m + (0.125 x horizontal distance travelled)

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7
Q

If an engine failure occurs between the 800ft thrust reduction altitude and a higher calculated engine out acceleration altitude, flight crew must:

A

Apply TOGA thrust until reaching the calculated engine out acceleration altitude.

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8
Q

In an engine failure, what speeds must be adhered to:

A

Safety speed of V2 must be maintained, unless the engine failure occurred at a speed higher than that, in which case maintain that speed.

Do not exceed V2 + 20kts

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9
Q

A dry runway is:

A

A surface free of visible moisture & not contaminated within the area intended to be used.

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10
Q

When is T/O performance calculated ‘WITHOUT’ the benefit of reversers?

A

On a dry runway

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11
Q

A wet runway is:

A

A surface covered by any visible dampness or water up to & including 3mm deep in the area intended to be used.

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12
Q

When is T/O performance calculated ‘WITH’ the benefit of reversers?

A

On a wet or contaminated runway.

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13
Q

When is flexible take-off prohibited?

A

On a contaminated runway.

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14
Q

What is the maximum allowable reduction in full rated thrust for a Flex Take-Off? (Percentage)

A

25%

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15
Q

When is Flex Take-Off prohibited?

A

On contaminated runways or when dispatching with landing gear extended.

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16
Q

What is a contaminated runway?

A

A surface with a significant portion of it’s surface area covered with a fluid contaminant not considered ‘thin’ (more than 3mm) or a hard contaminant.

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17
Q

What classes as a significant portion of the runway?

A

More than 25% of 1/3 of the runway

18
Q

Fluid contaminants are:

A
  • Wet Snow
  • Dry Snow
  • Standing Water
  • Slush
19
Q

Hard contaminants are:

A
  • Compacted Snow
  • Ice (Cold & Dry)
  • Wet Ice
20
Q

On contaminated runways the screen height is reduced from ___ft to ___ft

A

35 ft to 15ft

21
Q

A fluid contaminant is considered the equivalent to ‘WET’ up to a maximum depth of:

22
Q

Which flight crew are authorised to operate on contaminated runways?

A

Captain only.

23
Q

For snowbanks, the minimum cleared width is:

24
Q

Dispatch from a narrow runway is not allowed if:

A
  • NWS inop
  • More than one brake inop
25
For T/O performance computation actual wind values are multiplied by:
150% for tailwind 50% for headwind
26
MTOW (perf) represents:
The limit weight (based on TOGA) above which performance regulatory requirements cannot be met.
27
For a flex take-off actual performance will be better than calculated for the ASD. The ASD can be reduced by 3% for every 10 degrees difference between ambient & Flex temperatures. Example below:
ASD: 3000m Ambient Temp: 10C Flex Temp: 50C 50 - 10 = 40 40 / 10 = 4.4 4.4 x 3% = 12% 3000 - 12% = 2,640
28
Engine failure during cruise. What is the standard strategy:
- All thrust levers to MCT - Disconnect A/THR - Pull HDG - Determine REC MAX EO - Notify ATC - Set Speed 0.78/300kts - PULL - Set Altitude REC MAX EO - PULL - When V/S becomes <500ft/min set V/S -500ft/min - PULL - A/THR On
29
Engine failure during cruise. What are the memory items for the obstacle strategy?
- All thrust levers to MCT - Disconnect A/THR - Pull HDG - Determine REC MAX EO - Notify ATC - Set Green Dot - PULL - Set Altitude REC MAX EO - PULL - When clear of obstacles return to standard strategy
30
Dispatch Landing Performance determines:
Maximum allowable landing weight permitted based on anticipated weather & runway conditions at ETA
31
In-Flight Landing Performance determines:
The factored landing distance which is used to assess actual margins on LDA based upon actual reported conditions.
32
Regulations relating to landing performance consist of separate requirements for:
- Landing Distance - Go-around Climb Gradient
33
A runway condition report (RCR) must be reported when:
The runway is not dry.
34
The Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) will supply information on:
The Maximum Crosswind for landing (gust included) for a given RWY CC.
35
Below which width is autoland not allowed:
Below 45 metres
36
Autoland is certified for rollout only on Dry & Wet runways. Performance on _____________ was not demonstrated.
Contaminated Runways.
37
Unless specified the Minimum Go-Around gradient is:
2.5%
38
The definition of landing distance available is:
The length of a runway declared available by the appropriate authority suitable for the ground run of a landing aircraft.
39
CONF 3 must be selected as standard unless:
- Forecast tailwind at landing > 10kts - Landing on contaminated runway
40
For Dispatch Landing Performance what type of braking is assumed:
Max Manual
41
For Take-Off performance regulations, reversers are considered inop for:
Dry Runways only
42
For Landing performance regulations, reversers are considered inop for:
Both dry and wet runways. They are only considered operative for Slippery Wet & Contaminated runways.