PERFORMANCE (ALL) Flashcards by Matías Van Hooydonck

According Regulation EU 965/2012, “Performance class B aeroplanes” means aeroplanes powered by (1) ___ engines with a maximum operational passenger seating configuration of (2) ___ and a maximum take-off mass of (3) ___.

(1) jet engine, (2) 9 or more, (3) more than 5700 kg

(1) propeller, (2) nine or less, (3) 5700 kg or less

(1) propeller, (2) 20 or more, (3) more than 5700 kg

(1) jet engine, (2) 20 or more, (3) 5700 kg or less

(1) propeller, (2) nine or less, (3) 5700 kg or less

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With regard to CS-23 and CS-25, the “take-off flight path” (gross flight path) is:

the minimum flight path with a gradient an airplane should follow to achieve a minimum obstacle clearance.

the actual flight path as demonstrated by the manufacturer including safety margins.

the actual flight path as demonstrated by the manufacturer excluding safety margins.

the actual flight path as demonstrated by the manufacturer reduced by a factor dependent on the number of engines.

the actual flight path as demonstrated by the manufacturer excluding safety margins.

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With regard to CS-25 certification requirements for large aeroplanes, which of the following statements is correct?

“gross flight path” is the actual flight path demonstrated by the manufacturer with NO safety margins
“net flight path” is the actual flight path demonstrated by the manufacturer reduced by safety factor dependent on the number of engines.

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

1 is correct, 2 is correct

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According CS-Definitions, an “an area beyond the take-off runway (…) for use in decelerating the aeroplane during an abortive take-off” is defined as:

Brake area

Runaway ramp

Stopway

Clearway

Stopway

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According Regulation EU 139/2014, the “Take-off distance available” means…

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided.

the length of the active runway distance beyond threshold.

the distance of the active runway plus the distance to an obstacle of 50 ft height.

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway, if provided,

the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway, if provided.

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The pilot of a single engine aeroplane has determined the climb performance.

When carrying an additional passenger in a single-engine aircraft, the climb performance will be…

increased

decreased

unaffected

decreased or increased, depending on the take-off path

decreased

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If aerodrome pressure altitude decreases, the…

accelerate-Stop Distance increases.

take-Off Distance Required increases.

take-Off Distance Required decreases.

take-Off Ground Run increases.

take-Off Distance Required decreases.

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Increasing atmospheric pressure will result in…

increased landing distance, decreased go-around performance.

increased landing distance and go-around performance.

decreased landing distance and go-around performance.

decreased landing distance, increased go-around performance.

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When the actual landing mass is higher than planned, the…

landing distance remains the same.

threshold speed will be higher.

approach path will be steeper.

landing distance will be longer.

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An aeroplane with reciprocating engines flies at a constant angle of attack, mass and configuration.

Should the altitude increase, the power required will…

decrease and the TAS will also decrease.

not change but the TAS will increase.

increase and the TAS will increase by the same percentage.

increase but the TAS will not change.

increase and the TAS will increase by the same percentage.

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If the gross mass of a piston engine aeroplane is increased, to keep the angle of attack, configuration and altitude constant…

an increase in airspeed and power is required.

an increase in power and a decrease in airspeed is required.

an increase in airspeed is required, but power setting should be kept constant.

a higher drag coefficient is required.

an increase in airspeed and power is required.

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If the gross mass of a piston-engine aeroplane increases, to keep the angle of attack, configuration and altitude constant, the…

lift/drag ratio must be increased, but the drag must remain the same.

airspeed must be increased, but the drag must remain the same.

airspeed must be increased, resulting in increased drag.

airspeed must be decreased, resulting in increased drag.

airspeed must be increased, resulting in increased drag.

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Select the correct definition for Density Altitude:

The altitude reference to the standard datum plane.

Height above ground.

Airfield Elevation converted to Pressure Altitude, then corrected for ‘Non-standard’ Temperature.

The altitude read directly from the altimeter.

Airfield Elevation converted to Pressure Altitude, then corrected for ‘Non-standard’ Temperature.

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The Angle of Climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will be…

the same.

increased at a small flap setting, and decreased at a large flap setting.

smaller.

larger.

smaller.

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Which of the following parameters decrease the take-off ground run?

decreasing take-off mass
increasing take-off mass
increasing density
decreasing density
increasing flap tilt angle
decreasing flap tilt angle
increasing pressure altitude
decreasing pressure altitude

1, 3, 5 and 7

2, 3, 5 and 7

2, 4, 6 and 8

1, 3, 5 and 8

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Regarding straight and level flight at a given speed, drag (1) ___ with (2) ___ aeroplane mass.

(1) increases, (2) increasing

(1) does not change, (2) any change in

(1) decreases, (2) more

(1) increases, (2) less

(1) increases, (2) increasing

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To maximize Specific Range (or Specific Air Range), the TAS must be (1) ___ and the Fuel Flow must be (2) ___.

(1) low, (2) high.

(1) high, (2) low.

(1) high, (2) high.

(1) low, (2) low.

(1) high, (2) low.

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The term “specific range” can be understood as…

the ground speed (GS) multiplied with the total fuel flow (FF).

the distance (NM) an airplane can travel with given unit mass of fuel (kg).

the ground speed (GS) divided by a given unit mass of fuel (kg).

the distance (NM) an airplane multiplied with the average fuel flow (FF).

the distance (NM) an airplane can travel with given unit mass of fuel (kg).

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In a Turbojet, the tangent from the origin of the Power Required against TAS curve, depicts the speed for…

maximum specific range.

most critical angle of attack.

minimum power.

maximum endurance.

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In level flight of a piston engine aeroplane without turbo charger the maximum indicated air speed can be reached at the…

optimum cruise altitude.

aerodynamic ceiling.

lowest possible altitude.

service ceiling.

lowest possible altitude.

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Under which conditions can the maximum speed in horizontal flight be reached?

When the maximum thrust equals the total drag

When the thrust equals minimum drag

When the thrust equals the maximum drag

When the thrust remains constant with increasing speed

When the maximum thrust equals the total drag

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The point of minimum Drag Coefficient/Lift Coefficient is... at the lowest point of the drag curve. at the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve. on the 'back side' of the drag curve. at VMO.

at the lowest point of the drag curve.

In straight horizontal steady flight, at speeds below that for minimum drag... the aeroplane cannot be flown manually. lower speed requires higher thrust. the aeroplane can only be controlled in level flight. higher speed, but still below that for minimum drag, requires higher thrust.

lower speed requires higher thrust.

To achieve maximum range with a headwind, the airspeed should be... reduced to the maximum speed for gust penetration. higher than the maximum range cruise speed with no wind. equal to the maximum range cruise speed with no wind. lower than the maximum range cruise speed with no wind.

higher than the maximum range cruise speed with no wind.

With regard to jet-engines, "Specific Fuel Consumption (SFC)" can be understood as: Fuel mass (kg) for unit of producible thrust (N). Unit of producible thrust (N) per fuel consumption (kg). Product of fuel flow (kg/h) and unit of producible thrust (N). Fuel flow (kg/h) for unit of producible thrust (N).

Fuel flow (kg/h) for unit of producible thrust (N).

At constant mass and Mach number, for a higher altitude... a higher angle of attack is required. a lower lift coefficient is required. a lower drag coefficient is required. a lower angle of attack is required.

a higher angle of attack is required.

For a jet transport aeroplane, the advantage of Maximum Range Speed is... Minimum drag. Longest flight time. Minimum specific fuel consumption. Minimum fuel flow.

Minimum specific fuel consumption.

Aircraft: Turbojet Speed Regime: Max. Range Cruise Cruise Level: Below Optimum If altitude is increased, the Specific Range will... first increase and then decrease. remain the same. increase only in still-air conditions. decrease.

first increase and then decrease.

With regard to propeller-driven aeroplanes, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Maximum endurance is NOT affected by any wind component. 2. Speed for maximum endurance is reached at minimum power (VMP) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

1 is correct, 2 is correct

An aeroplane is in steady descending flight (descent angle 3°) with T = Thrust, D = Drag and W = Weight. The balance of forces acting on the aeroplane is: T - W cos 3° = D T - D = W sin 3° T + W sin 3° = D T - D = W cos 3°

T + W sin 3° = D

With regard to obstacle accountability area of performance class B multi-engine piston aeroplanes, the dimensions of the obstacle accountability area start with a semi-width at the end of TODA of 90 m. If the wing span is less than 60 m, then at least (1) ___ is the semi-width to be used. The area expands at a rate of (2) ___ x horizontal distance D travelled from the end of TODA. (1) 60 m + wing span, (2) 0.125 (1) 60 m + 1/2 wing span, (2) 0.125 (1) 90 m + wing span, (2) 1.25 (1) 90 m + 1/2 wing span, (2) 1.25

(1) 60 m + 1/2 wing span, (2) 0.125

With regard to a twin-engine piston aeroplane with all engines operating (AEO) and the information given below, calculate the clearance over the obstacle, assuming minimum prescribed climb gradient: Airport elevation: 700 ft Obstacle elevation: 950 ft Distance of the obstacle from DER: 2500 m Departure procedure: initially on runway track, no specific climb reuqirements in SID 1028 ft 1078 ft 128 ft 78 ft

128 ft

Which conditions affect the runway in use for take-off? Standard pressure altitude, wind components, airport elevation, runway slope and outside air temperature. Standard pressure altitude, wind components, airport elevation, runway slope and standard temperature. Pressure altitude, wind components, airport elevation, runway slope and standard temperature. Pressure altitude, wind components, airport elevation, runway slope and outside air temperature.

Pressure altitude, wind components, airport elevation, runway slope and outside air temperature.

The benefits of using a "derated take-off" with Performance Class A aeroplanes on contaminated runways are... V1 may be reduced to allow for better deceleration performance and shorter Accelerate-Stop Distance. The risk of engine failure is reduced, and safety margins in take-off performance are increased. new Minimum Control Speeds (VMCG, VMCA) can be established, possibly allowing for better take-off performance. V1 may be increased to allow for better take-off performance and shorter Take-Off Distance.

new Minimum Control Speeds (VMCG, VMCA) can be established, possibly allowing for better take-off performance.

With regard to take-off with a Medium-Range Jet Transport aeroplane, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Field Length Limiting Take-Off Mass (FLLTOM) is a limiting factor on short runways. 2. Field Length Limiting Take-Off Mass (FLLTOM) decreases with higher flap/slat setting. 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Drift-down Requirements after an engine failure in a multi-engine aircraft take into account... obstacle clearance in the descent to new cruise altitude. max. flight path gradient in the descent. landing mass limit at the alternate. actual engine thrust at the engine failure altitude.

obstacle clearance in the descent to new cruise altitude.

With regard to climb with constant Mach number below the tropopause in ISA conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. EAS decreases. 2. CAS decreases. 3. TAS increases. 1 and 2. 1 and 3. 2 and 3. 1, 2 and 3.

1 and 2.

Before departure, the Performance Software gives for departure the following calculated options: 1. Take-Off from RWY 24, TORA 2200 m, take-off path over flat terrain, 5 KT tailwind: Max Allowed Take-Off Mass 78.4 t 2. Take-Off from RWY 06, TORA 2300 m, take-off over 230 ft obstacle at 4200 m, 5 KT headwind: Max Allowed Take-Off Mass 77.3 t The stated limitations for the runways are... field-length-limited: influence of tailwind results in higher Take-Off mass, with no regard to obstacle situation. obstacle-limited: since obstacles may have a larger influence even when compared to a tailwind take-off. climb-limited: due to countable factors of 50% headwind and 150% tailwind, tailwind situation allows higher take-off mass. brake-energy-limited: tailwind take-off results in lower ground speeds allowing for higher take-off mass.

obstacle-limited: since obstacles may have a larger influence even when compared to a tailwind take-off.

According AMC CS-25.125 (c) determining landing distance, the earliest point at which wheel brakes may be applied... with only the main wheels firmly on the ground, assuming the nose gear cannot be lower safely. upon initial ground touch of the main gear. with only the main wheels firmly on the ground, permitting the nose gear to touch down safely. after the nose gear has touched town.

with only the main wheels firmly on the ground, permitting the nose gear to touch down safely.

Level, dry, paved runway, Zero wind, Anti-skid operative. With all other factors constant, the field length limited Landing Mass will be increased by... a downhill slope a headwind wet conditions inoperative anti-skid

a headwind

Aircraft Performance Class A Turboprop Runway Length at Destination 2200 m Runway condition Wet The landing distance required from the Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) for a dry runway should be at maximum: 1247 m 1339 m 1775 m 1540 m

1339 m

To reduce the risk of hydroplaning on landing... normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique should be used. the landing should be postponed until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists. a "positive" landing should be made with maximum reverse thrust and braking as quickly as possible. maximum reverse thrust should be used, and braking below the hydroplaning speed.

a "positive" landing should be made with maximum reverse thrust and braking as quickly as possible.

If airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet runway, the landing distance be increased by... 12 % 20 % 15 % 17 %

15 %

In a Turbojet the Wet Landing Distance is the Demonstrated Landing Distance plus... 41 %. 78 %. 92 %. 67 %.

92 %.

The correct statement regarding Turbojets is... when determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60 % of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry. an anti-skid system malfunction does not effect the required landing field length. the required landing field length is the distance from 50 ft to the full stop point. in any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when calculating the required landing field length.

when determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60 % of the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry.

According CS-25.119, for certification, requirements for landing climb performance assume engines at the power or thrust that is available (1) ___ after initiation of movement of the power or thrust controls from the (2) ___ to the (3) ___power or thrust setting. (1) 8 seconds, (2) minimum flight idle, (3) go-around (1) 2 seconds, (2) descent power setting, (3) max continious (1) 2 seconds, (2) descent power setting, (3) go-around (1) 8 seconds, (2) minimum flight idle, (3) max continious

(1) 8 seconds, (2) minimum flight idle, (3) go-around

On a Commercial Flight the Landing Distance Available for a Turbojet is 2400 m. The Landing Mass must allow for landing within... 1440 m 900 m 1955 m 1250 m

1440

The information in the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart pertains to... The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes. The Mach number values at which both Low Speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes. The value of maximum operating Mach number at various masses and power settings. The value of the Mach number at which low speed and high speed stall occur at various masses and power settings.

The Mach number values at which both Low Speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.

In case an airplane turns in clean configuration for final approach with speed too high, the correct sequence of actions to get back to the approach profile is: 1. Reduce speed to VLO 2. Extends Flaps 3. Extend Gear 4. Initiate descent 4 - 1 - 3 - 2 2 - 1 - 3 - 4 1 - 3 - 2 - 4 3 - 1 - 2 - 4

1 - 3 - 2 - 4

According CS-25.121 (d), for certification, the one-engine inoperative gradient of climb during approach is demonstrated with: climb speed established with 1.4 VSR or more. remaining engine at Max Continious Thrust. the actual landing weight. landing gear retracted.

landing gear retracted.

Continuous Descent Arrivals (CDA) allow the aeroplanes to stay longer at (1) ___ altitude and operation at (2) ___ thrust setting. (1) higher, (2) higher. (1) lower, (2) higher. (1) lower, (2) lower. (1) higher, (2) lower.

(1) higher, (2) lower.

For a Class A aeroplane, to avoid obstacles during the driftdown after an engine failure (whenever a measurably positive climb cannot be achieved), a vertical clearance of ___ must be ensured. 1000 ft 2500 ft 2000 ft 50 ft

2000 ft

An aeroplane descends from FL410 to FL270 at the cruise Mach Number and from FL270 to FL100 at the IAS achieved at FL270. With idle thrust, clean configuration and disregarding compressibility effects, the angle of descent in the first segment will (1) __ and in the second segment will (2) ___. (1) Remain constant (2) Decrease (1) Increase (2) Decrease (1) Decrease (2) Increase (1) Increase (2) Remain constant

(1) Increase (2) Remain constant

The Landing Mass could be limited by the missed approach Climb Limits with... all engines operative in the approach configuration. one engine inoperative in the approach configuration. all engines operative in the landing configuration. one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.

one engine inoperative in the approach configuration.

With regard to step climb procedure, which of the following statements is correct? 1. A step-climb should be initiated when approximately 2000 ft below Optimum Altitude to increase range. 2. A step-climb should NOT be initiated when a stronger headwind component at higher altitudes over-compensated the higher fuel burn at lower altitude. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is correct

When descending at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet... increases, because the lift coefficient increases. increases, because the lift coefficient decreases. remains constant, because the Mach number does not change. decreases, because the lift coefficient decreases.

increases, because the lift coefficient decreases.

In a glide at constant Mach Number, the Lift Coefficient decreases because... Aircraft Mass decreases. Glide Angle increases. TAS decreases. IAS increases.

IAS increases.

Following an engine failure above the one-engine inoperative ceiling, the relevant procedure to follow is called... Drift Down. Long Range Cruise Descent. Continuous Descent Approach. Emergency Descent.

Drift Down.

In ISA conditions, a climb at constant Mach No. in the troposphere, will result in the TAS... Increasing. Decreasing. Remaining independent of the Mach No. Remaining constant.

Decreasing.

With regard to buffet-onset during climb, which of the following statements is correct? 1. High speed buffet may occur around VMO/MMO when deviating from straight flight. 2. Fuel efficiency can be increased by step-climbing to the 1.3 buffet limit altitude. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

1 is correct, 2 is correct

The highest cost-index for (1) climb, (2) cruise and (3) descent is represented in which speed schedule? 1) 330 kt / M0.80, (2) M0.78, (3) M.82 / 330 kt 1) 290 kt / M0.76, (2) M0.79, (3) M.79 / 290 kt (1) 310 kt / M0.78, (2) M0.80, (3) M.80 / 310 kt (1) 330 kt / M0.80, (2) M0.82, (3) M.82 / 330 kt

(1) 330 kt / M0.80, (2) M0.82, (3) M.82 / 330 kt

Stepped Climb on long-distance flights is recommended... only if the headwind is less or the tailwind is greater than forecast at high altitude. to fly a profile close to the optimum altitude as the aeroplane mass reduces. to fly a profile close to the tropopause. only for the operation of piston-engined aeroplanes.

to fly a profile close to the optimum altitude as the aeroplane mass reduces.

Compared to the Speed for Max. Range, the Long Range Cruise speed is... dependent on the density altitude and the mass. dependent on the outside air temperature and the net mass. lower. higher.

higher

Using a higher Cost Index for a given mass will result in... a higher cruise Mach No. a lower cruise Mach No. better long range performance. increased range.

a higher cruise Mach No.

When should a flight be operated at an altitude considerably lower (4000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude? If considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected at the lower altitude. Only if less tailwind can be expected at the lower altitude. Only if the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude. Only if a greater headwind can be expected at the lower altitude.

If considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected at the lower altitude.

The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet [1] ___ with increasing mass and [2] ___ altitude. [1] decreases, [2] increasing [1] decreases, [2] is independent of [1] increases, [2] increasing [1] increases, [2] is independent of

[1] decreases, [2] increasing

With regard to climb with constant IAS below the tropopause in ISA conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. EAS increases. 2. TAS increases. 3. Mach number increases. 1, 2 and 3. 2 and 3. 1 and 3. 1 and 2.

2 and 3.

The maximum operating altitude for an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin... Is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation. Depends on aerodynamic ceiling. Depends on the outside air temperature. Is certified for four-engine aeroplanes only.

Is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.

Which of the following statements regarding the optimum altitude is correct? An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the most economic result. An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because the occurrence of Mach buffet is likely. An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases steadily during flight. An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is the most economical altitude.

An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because optimum altitude increases steadily during flight.

In a Turbojet the optimum Long Range Cruise altitude... always equals the powerplant ceiling. increases when the aeroplane mass decreases. decreases when the aeroplane mass decreases. depends only on the OAT.

increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.

On a long distance flight the mass decreases steadily due to fuel consumption, resulting in... increasing specific range and a decreasing optimum altitude. increase in the speed to compensate for the lower mass. increasing specific range and an increasing optimum altitude. decreasing specific range and an increasing optimum altitude.

increasing specific range and an increasing optimum altitude.

At the optimum cruise altitude the... cabin altitude of 8000 ft, maintained up to this height, must be regulated. speed for high speed buffet as TAS is at a maximum. fuel flow is a maximum. best specific range can be achieved.

best specific range can be achieved.

The advantage of Long-Range Cruise speed is... It reaches the specific range with a headwind. It is the cruise-climb speed for one engines inoperative. that the higher speed achieves 99 % of the maximum still-air range. It is the best speed for economy.

that the higher speed achieves 99 % of the maximum still-air range.

Higher Pressure Altitude in ISA conditions... decreases the field length limited take-off mass. increases the climb limited take-off mass. does not affect take-off mass. decreases the take-off distance required.

decreases the field length limited take-off mass.

The optimum cruise altitude will increase when the... tailwind component decreases. aeroplane mass decreases. aeroplane mass increases. OAT increases.

aeroplane mass decreases.

Climbing at constant IAS and constant mass the drag... increases initially and then decreases. remains almost constant. decreases slightly. increases significantely.

remains almost constant.

Climbing at a constant IAS, the most likely Operational Speed Limit to be reached is... V2 VMO VS VMC

VMO

The climb schedule is 300/0.78. At the crossover altitude of 29200 ft (ISA): The rate of climb decreases as climb performance at a constant Mach No. is considerably reduced. During the acceleration to 0.78 M, the rate of climb is zero. The rate of climb increases as the Constant IAS Climb is replaced by the Constant Mach No. Climb. The effect is not noticeable as the TAS (460 kt) at 300 kt IAS and 0.78M are the same at ISA temp.

The rate of climb increases as the Constant IAS Climb is replaced by the Constant Mach No. Climb.

Long Range Cruise' is a flight procedure providing for a... 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range. 1% higher IAS than the IAS for maximum specific range. specific range approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed. specific range approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed.

specific range approximately 99% of maximum specific range and a higher cruise speed.

The speeds of a jet aeroplane from low to high are... Vs, maximum endurance speed, maximum angle of climb speed. Vs, maximum angle of climb speed, maximum range speed. Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed. Vs, long range speed, maximum range speed.

Vs, maximum angle of climb speed, maximum range speed.

With regard to climb with constant Mach number above the tropopause in ISA conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. When climbing with a higher Mach number at a given angle of climb, the rate of climb increases. 2. The EAS, CAS and TAS decrease with further climb. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

During a climb at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the (1) climb angle and the (2) pitch angle change? (1) reduces, (2) decreases (1) remains constant, (2) increases (1) reduces, (2) remains constant (1) increases, (2) decreases

(1) reduces, (2) decreases

With regard to differences in performance data derived from Electronic Flight Bag (EFB) and those derived from conventional Regulated Take-Off Mass (RTOM) tables, which of the following statements is correct? 1. EFB tables are more accurate because the computer can consider more parameters than RTOM tables. 2. RTOM tables are older, but still provide valid information for performance calculations. 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

1 is correct, 2 is correct

A tyre speed limited take-off can be a result of [1] ___ runway elevation and a [2] ___. [1] high, [2] headwind [1] low, [2] headwind [1] low, [2] crosswind [1] high, [2] tailwind

[1] high, [2] tailwind

If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, a downhill slope will... increase the maximum take-off mass. increase the take-off distance required. decrease the maximum take-off mass. not affect the maximum take-off mass.

not affect the maximum take-off mass.

A higher outside air temperature (OAT) causes... a decreasing take-off distance. a decreasing brake energy limited take-off mass. an increasing climb limited take-off mass. an increasing field length limited take-off mass.

a decreasing brake energy limited take-off mass.

With regard to "improved climb" procedure, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Increased V2 (improved climb) procedure may be used in case take-off mass is field-length limited. 1. Increased V2 (improved climb) procedure may be used in case take-off mass is NOT tyre-speed limited. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

With regard to Performance Class A Take-Off, compared to a conventional take-off, an improved climb take-off will result in... an increase in both V2 and Take-off Distance Required. a higher flap setting to increase climb performance. a reduced flap setting to improve climb performance. a reduced V2 to get earlier lift-off, increasing obstacle clearance.

an increase in both V2 and Take-off Distance Required.

With regard to possible hazards that have to be considered and checked by the crew when using "improved climb" procedure, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Hazards in using "fast V1" with "increased V2" procedure are reduced stopping margins in case of rejected take-off. 2. In case of using "increased V2" procedure, tyre speed and max. brake-energy speed will not be exceeded. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is correct

With regard to different configurations for take-off, when compared to clean configuration, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Lower or no flap setting is recommended in case of obstacles at some distance from the runway to achieve a steeper climb gradient. 2. Higher flap setting decreases ground roll distance and increases Climb Limited Take-Off Mass. 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

Max. Brake Release Mass values in Zero Wind of a CS-25 certified aeroplane are: Flap Setting 5° 15° 25° Runway Limitation (kg) 66000 69500 71500 2nd Segment Climb Limitation (kg) 72200 69000 61800 Wind correction: Headwind +120 kg / kt Tailwind - 360 kg / kt With 5 kt tailwind, the Max. Brake Release Mass and corresponding Flap Settings are: 72200 kg, 25° 67200 kg, 15° 68200 kg, 25° 67200 kg, 15°

67200 kg, 15°

Reduced Take-Off Thrust should NOT be used when... obstacles are far away from the end of the runway. the runway is contaminated. it is night. the runway is dry.

the runway is contaminated.

With regard to different configurations for take-off, when compared to clean configuration, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Higher flap setting decreases Runway Length Limited Take-Off Mass. 2. Higher flap setting decreases Climb Limited Take-Off Mass. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

When comparing "reduced (flex)" and "derated thrust" setting for take-off, which of the following statements is correct? 1. "Reduced (flex)" setting keeps TOGA setting available. 2. "Reduced (flex)" setting may be used on contaminated runways. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

The temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked prior each take off... to check if the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted. to avoid the overheating of the brakes which would not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off. to ensure that the brake wear is not excessive. to ensure that the wheels have appropriately warmed up.

to avoid the overheating of the brakes which would not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off.

Which statement about using "reduced take-off thrust" is correct? It improves engine life and reduces operating costs. Should not be used at very low temperatures (OAT). Only permitted if take-off mass is more than the performance limited take-off mass. Can be used with headwind component of at least 10 kt on take-off.

It improves engine life and reduces operating costs.

When should Reduced Take-off Thrust usually NOT be used? Wet runway At night With inoperative anti-skid At ISA +15° C

With inoperative anti-skid

The effect of drag resulting from water or slush on a contaminated runway being pushed away by the wheels during take-off roll is referred to as: Impingement drag. Contamination drag. Displacement drag. Interference drag.

Displacement drag.

With regard to different types of drag created during take-off from contaminated runways, which statement is correct? 1. "Displacement drag" has a positive effect in case of a rejected take-off. 2. "Impingement drag" has a negative effect in case of continued take-off. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is correct

With regard to take-off from a contaminated runway (wet, snow or slush), when compared to dry conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. In case of using a "wet V1", it is usually lower than a V1 for dry conditions. 2. Both Take-Off Distance (TOD) and Accelerate-Stop-Distance (ASD) increase. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

1 is correct, 2 is correct

In case of landing on a contaminated runway, what sources should be used by the crew to come down to a "single level" of landing performance? 1. Type of Instrument Approach 2. Type and depth of runway contamination 3. Reports on Estimated Surface Friction (ESF) 4. Pilot Reports on Braking Action (PiReps BA) 5. Thrust Reverser usage 1, 2 and 3. 2, 3 and 4. 1, 2 and 5. 2, 3 and 5.

2, 3 and 4.

The third segment of the take-off flight path starts when... the acceleration is initiated from VLOF to V2. the landing gear is fully retracted. the flaps are fully retracted. acceleration to the final take-off speed (VFTO) is initiated.

acceleration to the final take-off speed (VFTO) is initiated.

With regard to a runway contaminated with compacted snow, when compared to dry conditions, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Accelerate-Stop-Distance (ASD) increases. 2. Take-Off Distance (TOD) is NOT affected. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is correct

The min. height at the end of the 2nd Climb Segment is... 400 ft above field elevation. 350 ft above ground. the height at which the flaps are fully retracted. the height at which the landing gear is fully retracted.

400 ft above field elevation.

After entering data into the FMS for calculating take-off performance with a "FLEX" temperature value, setting "TOGA" thrust during take-off instead of "FLEX" thrust will result in... reduced engine thrust and improved take-off performance. higher engine thrust and improved take-off performance. higher engine thrust and reduced take-off performance. reduced engine thrust and reduced take-off performance.

higher engine thrust and improved take-off performance.

The net Take-Off Flight Path for a Class A aeroplane assumes... Two engines of a three-engined or four-engined aeroplane failing at VEF. Any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane failing at VEF. The critical engine of a multi-engined aeroplane failing at VEF. Any engine of a multi-engined aeroplane failing at VLOF.

The critical engine of a multi-engined aeroplane failing at VEF.

If take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed ___ degrees up to a height of 400 ft. 25 10 20 15

For a Performance Class A aircraft the Obstacle-Limited Take-off Mass... should ensure obstacle clearance of 50 ft in relation to net take-off flight path. is permitted for turns of up to 30° bank angle in the take-off path. is determined by 35 ft obstacle clearance in relation to net take-off flight path. should not be lower than climb limited take-off mass.

is determined by 35 ft obstacle clearance in relation to net take-off flight path.

What is the effect on the (1) one engine out obstacle clearance and on the (2) climb performance, when V1 has to be reduced because of wet runway conditions? (1) decreases, (2) remains constant (1) increases, (2) remains constant (1) decreases, (2) decreases (1) increases, (2) increases

(1) decreases, (2) remains constant

The climb-limited Take-off Mass increases with (each factor considered independently): a [1] ___ flap setting, a [2] ___ pressure altitude, and a [3] ___ outside air temperature. [1] low [2] high [3] high [1] low [2] high [3] low [1] low [2] low [3] low [1] high [2] low [3] low

[1] low [2] low [3] low

Considering take-off obstacle clearance, obstacles may be avoided... by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation. by standard turns after 2500 ft has passed. only by using standard turns. by banking not before reaching a height of 400 ft above runway elevation.

by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.

Select the correct statement about the acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment: The minimum allowed acceleration height is at 1000 ft. The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied. No requirements exist for a minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration height. The minimum one engine out acceleration height must kept constant in case of all engines operating.

The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off thrust may be applied.

The Climb-Limited Take-off Mass... Increases with higher flap setting depends on Pressure Altitude and Outside Air Temperature Increases with increasing headwind component is affected by the highest of Performance Limited, Field Length Limited or Obstacle Limited TOM

depends on Pressure Altitude and Outside Air Temperature

An operator shall ensure the net take-off flight path is clear of all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA must be at least... 90 m + 1.125D 90 m + 0.125D 0.125D 1.125D

90 m + 0.125D

A twin-engine aeroplane is about to initiate a turn during second segment of take-off climb. Given a required minimum net climb gradient of 1.8% in the turn, and expecting a decrease in climb gradient of 0.5% during the turn, the minimum gross climb gradient before initiating the turn must be at least: 3.9% 3.1% 2.9% 2.3%

3.1%

The second segment of the take-off flight path starts when... The aeroplane accelerates from V2 to the flap retraction speed. The flaps are fully retracted. The landing gear is fully retracted. Flap retraction begins.

The landing gear is fully retracted.

What is the effect of headwind on the climb limited take-off mass? not affected by the headwind. will decrease. will increase. depends also on the height of any obstacle inside the obstacle accountability area.

not affected by the headwind.

When comparing dynamic hydroplaning speeds for rotating and non-rotating tires, it can be stated that... dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is higher than for rotating tires due to a higher friction coefficient. dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is lower than for rotating tires, due to wheel spin-up after touchdown. dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is the same as for rotating tires, since it depends only on tire pressure. dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is the same as for rotating tires, since it depends only on mass.

dynamic hydroplaning speed for non-rotating tires is lower than for rotating tires, due to wheel spin-up after touchdown.

According ICAO Annex 15, Appendix 2, a SNOWTAM indicates which types of runway contaminations? 1. damp / wet 2. hail / showers / haze 3. frozen ruts or ridges 4. rime covered / ice 5. dry / wet snow 6. iced / powdered snow 1, 2, 3 and 5 2, 3, 5 and 6 1, 2, 4 and 6 1, 3, 4 and 5

1, 3, 4 and 5

Which relationship is correct? Climb limited TOM is independent of the wind component Accelerate-Stop Distance required is independent of the runway condition Take-off distance with one engine out is independent of the wind component. Field-length-limited TOM is independent of the wind component

Climb limited TOM is independent of the wind component

If take-off mass is limited by the TODA, the correct statement is: The "balanced take-off distance" is equal to 130 % of the "all engine take-off distance". The distance from brake release to V1 equals the distance from V1 to the 50 ft point. The end of the runway will be cleared by 35 ft following an engine failure after V1. The actual take-off mass is equal to the field length limited take-off mass.

The actual take-off mass is equal to the field length limited take-off mass.

In case of contaminated runways, "wet" conditions the runway appearance is (1) ___, whereas in "damp" conditions the runway (2) ___. (1) flooded with water, (2) has a shiny appearance. (1) reflective, (2) has no shiny appearance. (1) shiny, (2) is not visible. (1) not shiny, (2) has a shiny appearance.

(1) reflective, (2) has no shiny appearance.

V1 for a balanced-field is used when... the speed is equal to VLOF. take-off mass is field-length limited by the stopway to obtain maximum take-off mass. acceleration/stop distance available equals the take-off distance available. take-off mass is field-length limited by the clearway to obtain maximum take-off mass.

acceleration/stop distance available equals the take-off distance available.

The field-length-limited take-off mass and V1 were calculated using balanced field-lengths. When adding a stopway... the obstacle-limited take-off mass increases, V1 decreases. the obstacle-limited take-off mass increases, V1 does not change. the field-length-limited take-off mass increases, V1 decreases. the field-length-limited take-off mass increases, V1 increases.

the field-length-limited take-off mass increases, V1 increases.

The formula to calculate the speed in KT for onset of Dynamic Hydroplaning can be calculated via: (sqrt: square root of, units used in brackets [ ]) 9 x sqrt( tire pressure [psi] ) 9 x sqrt( tire pressure [bar] ) 9 x (tire pressure [psi])² 9 x (tire pressure [bar])²

9 x sqrt( tire pressure [psi] )

With inoperative antiskid the... Accelerate-Stop Distance decreases. Operation of the aircraft is not allowed. Accelerate-Stop Distance is not affected. Accelerate-Stop Distance increases.

Accelerate-Stop Distance increases.

An advantage of balanced V1, even in event of a climb limited take-off, is... a short take-off distance required with one engine out at V1. a short accelerate stop distance. a great safety margin with respect to the runway length. a high climb limited take-off mass.

a great safety margin with respect to the runway length.

Field length is balanced when: One engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF is equal to the flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet. Computed V2 is less than 110 % VMCA and V1. One engine inoperative take-off distance required is equal to one engine inoperative accelerate stop distance required. All engine acceleration to V1 is equal to the braking distance for rejected take-off.

One engine inoperative take-off distance required is equal to one engine inoperative accelerate stop distance required.

Which statement about the take-off distance available is correct? Runway length plus half the clearway. Take-off run available plus clearway. Runway length excluding clearway. Runway length less stopway.

Take-off run available plus clearway.

Which speed may vary if a stopway or clearway is available? VLOF V1 V2 VMCA

The ___ increases if V1 increases, but VR remains unchanged. Accelerate-Stop Distance Take-Off Distance Take-Off Run All Engine Take-Off Distance

Accelerate-Stop Distance

Performance Class A Take-Off. If take-off speeds are selected for a mass lower than actual take-off mass... accelerate stop distance increases. a tailstrike may occur. accelerate-go distance decreases. take-off speeds will be higher than the correct speeds.

a tailstrike may occur.

A tailwind does NOT affect the ... Obstacle Limited Take-Off Mass. Climb Limited Take-Off Mass. Take-Off Run Required. Field Limited Take-Off Mass.

Climb Limited Take-Off Mass.

During certification test flights of a Turbojet, the measured take-off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between VLOF and 35 feet above the take-off surface, are: 1747 m with all engines operating 1950 m with critical engine failing at V1, all other factors the same The certificated take-off run is: 1759 m 2196 m 2263 m 2009 m

2009 m

The stopway allows an increase only in the... Take-off run available. Accelerate-stop distance available. Take-off distance available. Landing distance available.

Accelerate-stop distance available.

Using bleed-air during take-off results in (1) ____ available thrust and (2) ___ Take-Off Distance. (1) less, (2) an increased. (1) the same, (2) a decreased. (1) more, (2) a decreased. (1) the same, (2) an increased.

(1) less, (2) an increased.

If take-off mass is brake energy limited, a steeper uphill slope would cause... a decrease in the maximum take-off mass. a decrease in the required take-off distance. no negative changes in the maximum take-off mass. an increase in the maximum take-off mass.

an increase in the maximum take-off mass.

Runway length 3000 m Clearway length: 2000 m at each end of the runway The Max. Take-Off Distance Available is: 4500 m 6500 m 5000 m 4000 m

4500 m

V1 will be decreased by... increased take-off mass. inoperative anti-skid. increased outside air temperature. inoperative FMS.

inoperative anti-skid.

An uphill slope... increases the allowed take-off mass. increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance. decreases the take-off distance only. decreases the accelerate stop distance only.

increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.

On a dry runway, the accelerate-stop distance is increased by... a low ambient air temperature. a headwind. a lower take-off mass. an uphill slope.

an uphill slope.

With all other factors remaining constant and not limiting, the max. permissible Take-Off Mass... is increased by an uphill slope. is increased by a downhill slope. is decreased by a downhill slope. is not affected by the runway slope.

is increased by a downhill slope.

According AMC1 CAT.POL.A.205 ("LOSS OF RUNWAY LENGTH DUE TO ALIGNMENT"), the length of the runway that is declared for the calculation of take-off distance available (TODA), accelerate-stop distance available (ASDA) and take-off run available (TORA) does NOT account for line-up of the aeroplane in the direction of take-off on the runway in use. Accountability is usually required for a (1) ___ taxiway entry to the runway and (2) ___ turnaround on the runway. (1) 90°, (2) 90° (1) 45°, (2) 180° (1) 45°, (2) 90° (1) 90°, (2) 180°

(1) 90°, (2) 180°

The correct relationship between the reference landing speed (VREF) and the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (VSR0) is... VREF > 1.32 VSR0. VREF > 1.23 VSR0. VREF > 1.15 VSR0. VREF > VSRO.

VREF > 1.23 VSR0.

If max. tyre speed and max. brake energy speed are not limiting, the maximum value of V1 is: VMCG VLOF V2 VR

VR can not be lower than... VLOF. 1.2 VS for turbo-prop with three or more engines. V1 and 105 % of VMCA. 105 % of V1 and VMCA.

V1 and 105 % of VMCA.

When using Take-Off Flaps 20° instead of 10°... V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA. V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set. V2 is not influenced by the T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only. the value of V2 does not change.

V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.

With regard to performance class A aircraft in commercial operation with all engines operation (AEO), the take-off distance required is at least the distance required to reach a height (1) ___ over a dry runway, multiplied by a factor of (2) ___. (1) 50 ft, (2) 1.30 (1) 35 ft, (2) 1.30 (1) 35 ft, (2) 1.15 (1) 50 ft, (2) 1.15

(1) 35 ft, (2) 1.15

The Minimum V1 speed is influenced by... VR VMCG VLOF V2

VMCG

The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller aeroplanes with more than three engines should not be less than... 1.13 VSR. 1.15 VSR. 1.3 VSR. 1.08 VSR.

1.08 VSR.

Performance Class A Take-Off. V1 should not be exceeded by: VMBE VREF VMCG VMU

VMCG

V1 has to be equal to or higher than... VLOF. VMC. VMCG. VMU.

VMCG.

Which statement regarding VMCA (air minimum control speed) is correct? VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes. When the critical engine fails, straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA. The aeroplane is not able to reach the minimum required climb gradient. The aeroplane is not controllable on the ground below VMCA.

When the critical engine fails, straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA.

V1 should always be... Lower than or equal to VR. Higher than VR. Higher than V2. Lower than VMC.

Lower than or equal to VR.

The take-off decision speed V1... is the airspeed at which the pilot must decide to continue or discontinue the take-off. always equals VEF (Engine Failure speed). is the airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 feet and the pilot must decide to continue or discontinue the take-off . is the airspeed when reaching 35 ft above the take-off surface.

is the airspeed at which the pilot must decide to continue or discontinue the take-off.

Which statement about VR is correct? Must be equal to or less than VMC. Must be more than V2. The speed at which rotation to lift-off angle of attack is initiated. Must be equal to or less than V1.

The speed at which rotation to lift-off angle of attack is initiated.

VMCG is based on directional control maintained by: 1. primary aerodynamic control 2. differential braking 3. nose wheel steering 2 and 3. 3 only. 1 and 3. 1 only

1 only

With regard to an incorrect calculated V1, which of the following statements is correct? 1. A dry-runway V1, selected for a wet runway, will not effect accelerate-stop-distance in case thrust reversers are used. 2. A dry-runway V1, selected for a wet runway, will result in an increased accelerate-stop-distance and an unbalanced runway. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Which statement regarding V2 is correct? That speed at which the PIC would decide to continue or abandon the take-off in case of an engine failure. Take-off safety speed. Lowest airspeed to retract flaps without causing a stall. Lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in case of an engine failure.

Take-off safety speed.

To determine the Max. Tyre-Speed the Max ___ is used. True Airspeed Ground Speed Indicated Airspeed Equivalent Airspeed

Ground Speed

The speed VSR is the abbreviation for the... reference stall speed. speed for best endurance. take-off safety speed for a wet runway. design stress speed.

reference stall speed.

The basis of the take-off runway performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes is... the failure of the critical engine only. all engines operating only. one engine inoperative only. the failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance.

the failure of the critical engine or all engines operating whichever requirement gives the greater distance.

According the factors given in CAL.POL.A 330 and 335 and AMC, for a performance class B aeroplane in commercial operation, with the information given below, determine the minimum landing distance available (rounded to the nearest 10 ft): Landing distance defactored: 2400 ft Runway surface: Tarred Runway condition: Wet Runway slope: 0.5 % upslope Increase landing distance by 5 % for each 1 % downslope 2760 ft 4040 ft 3430 ft 3940 ft

3940 ft

The speed V1 is the abbreviation for the... best angle of climb speed. take-off climb speed. take-off decision speed. engine failure speed.

take-off decision speed.

According the factors given in CAT.POL.A 330 and 335 and AMC, for a performance class B aeroplane in commercial operation, with the information given below, determine the defactored landing distance (rounded to the nearest 10 ft): Landing distance available (LDA): 4400 ft Runway surface: Grass (firm soil 10 cm long) Runway condition: Wet Runway slope: 1.0 % upslope Increase landing distance by 5 % for each 1 % downslope 2330 ft 3330 ft 3080 ft 2450 ft

2330 ft

According the factors given in CAT.POL.A 330 and 335 and AMC, for a performance class B aeroplane in commercial operation, with the information given below, determine the minimum landing distance available (rounded to the nearest 10 ft): Landing distance defactored: 2200 ft Runway surface: Grass (firm soil, 5 cm long) Runway condition: Wet Runway slope: 0.5 % downslope Increase landing distance by 5 % for each 1 % downslope 4160 ft 1820 ft 2980 ft 4260 ft

4260 ft

V2 must exceed VMC by... 15 %. 5 %. 25 %. 10 %.

10 %.

To maintain obstacle clearance, a departure route initially requires a climb gradient of 5.4%. With the information given below, determine the corresponding Rate of Climb (ROC): TAS: 150 kt Tailwind component: 15 kt 810 ft/min 1560 ft/min 890 ft/min 730 ft/min

890 ft/min

With regard to a performance class B aeroplane with all engines operating (AEO) and the information given below, calculate for the purpose of obstacle clearance the distance from DER to reach 1500 ft above reference zero: Cloud base: 200 ft above reference zero, no wind, TAS: 110 kt All Engines Rate of Climb (ROC) at Take-Off Power: 2000 ft/min Single Engine Rate of Climb (ROC) at Take-Off Power: 500 ft/min (assume Take-Off Power throughout the complete climb segment) 4.91 NM 4.73 NM 4.77 NM 4.86 NM

4.91 NM

Calculate the Climb Gradient with Wing- and Engine Anti-Ice ON at the given conditions: Aerodrome Press. Alt. 1000 ft OAT +17° C Atmospheric Pressure 1013.25 hPa Corrections: Aerodrome Elevation +/- 0.2 % per 1000 ft ISA Deviation +/- 0.1 % per °C Effect of Wing Anti-ice ON - 1.0 % Effect of Engine Anti-ice ON - 0.5 % 4.8 % 3.6 % 4.4 % 3.9 %

3.9 %

With regard to ICAO Annex 14 Attachment A, which statement about overload operations is correct? 1. Occasional minor overloading is acceptable, when expedient, with only limited loss in pavement life expectancy and relatively small acceleration of pavement deterioration. 2. An aircraft with a specific aircraft classification number (ACN) may operate on a ground surface with lower pavement classification number (PCN) under certain operational limitations. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is correct

Take-off distance in ISA with zero wind and zero ft pressure-altitude: 600 m. Corrections: +/- 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation - 5 m / kt headwind + 10 m / kt tail wind +/- 15 m / % runway slope +/- 5 m / °C deviation from standard temp. Calculate take-off distance at 1000 ft elevation, 17°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 1% up-slope, and 10 kt tailwind. 725 m 575 m 755 m 645 m

755 m

For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the expected obstacle clearance in VMC given the following values: Climb gradient: 6% TAS 120 kt Wind: Tailwind 10kt Obstacle height: 300 ft at a distance of 1.2 NM from DER (reference zero) Use 1 NM = 6080 ft, Height Difference = (GD x TAS)/GS x gradient / 100 104 ft 354 ft 154 ft 404 ft

154 ft

The take-off distance will increase with (1) ___ pressure altitude and with (2) ___ temperature. (1) increasing, (2) increasing, ("hot and high") (1) increasing, (2) decreasing, ("cold and high") (1) decreasing, (2) increasing, ("hot and low") (1) decreasing, (2) decreasing, ("cold and low")

(1) increasing, (2) increasing, ("hot and high")

For a single-engine aeroplane, calculate the net glide distance with the following values given: Altitude: 11000 ft Terrain elevation: 1500 ft Gross gradient: 10% TAS: 250 kt Headwind: 40 kt Use 1 NM = 6080 ft Still air distance = (height difference / net gradient) x 100 Ground distance = Still Air Distance x (GS / TAS) 13.1 NM 14.9 NM 12.5 NM 15.6 NM

12.5 NM

If a graph is used to show compliance with the obstacle clearance requirement, the gradient from 50 ft to the assumed engine failure height is to be the average all-engine gradient multiplied by a factor of: 0.87 0.77 1.15 1.30

0.77

With regard to Class A Medium Range Jet Transport aircraft, any part of the net take-off flight path in which the aeroplane is banked by more than 15° shall clear all obstacles within the horizontal distances specified by a vertical distance of at least: 200 ft 35 ft. 15 ft 50 ft

50 ft

When calculating the take-off field length required, not more than [1] ___ head wind are taken into account and not less than [2] ___ tailwind. [1] 50% [2] 175% [1] 25 % [2] 175% [1] 50 % [2] 150 % [1] 70% [2] 150%

[1] 50 % [2] 150 %

According AMC1 CAT.POL.A.330, unless otherwise specified in the AFM, or other performance or operating manuals from the manufacturer, the landing distances required should be increased by (1) ___ for each (2) ___ of downslope. (1) 10%, (2) 5% (1) 2%, (2) 1% (1) 1%, (2) 5% (1) 5%, (2) 1%

(1) 5%, (2) 1%

Approved take-off flap settings: UP 5° / 10° / 15°. When performing a take-off with flaps UP instead of 10°, the... rate of climb decreases take-off distance decreases VLOF decreases ground roll distance increases

ground roll distance increases

Taking off and landing a short dry grass instead of a paved runway, the take-off distance [1] ___ and the landing distance [2] ___. [1] increases [2] decreases [1] decreases [2] decreases [1] increases [2] increases [1] decreases [2] increases

[1] increases [2] increases

With flaps at 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have a/an [1] ___ landing distance and a/an [2] ___ go-around performance. [1] larger [2] increased [1] shorter [2] increased [1] larger [2] decreased [1] shorter [2] decreased

[1] shorter [2] decreased

According AMC1 CAT.POL.A.330, unless otherwise specified in the AFM, or other performance or operating manuals from the manufacturer, the landing distance required for a 1.5% downslope should be increased by: 7.5% 15% 3% 5%

7.5%

When choosing a higher flap setting for landing, the effect will be a(n) (1) ___ in approach speed and a (2) ___ in ground roll distance. (1) increase, (2) decrease (1) decrease, (2) increase (1) increase, (2) increase (1) decrease, (2) decrease

(1) decrease, (2) decrease

With the critical engine inoperative... The power required is decreased and the total drag increased due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the yawing moment. The aeroplane performance is not affected as it is independent of the power plant. The power required and the total drag are both increased due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the yawing moment. The power required and the total drag will both be descreased due to the windmilling engine.

The power required and the total drag are both increased due to the additional drag of the windmilling engine and the yawing moment.

With regard to a Continuous Descent Approach (CDA) to an airport while keeping constant CAS, which of the following statements is correct? 1. An increase in headwind requires a reduction in Rate of Descent. 2. During a turn with sudden increase in headwind, thrust setting will momentarily be reduced. 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is correct

According AMC1 CAT.POL.A.330, unless otherwise specified in the AFM, or other performance or operating manuals from the manufacturers, the variable affecting the landing performance and the associated factor that should be applied to the AFM data on a dry short-grass runway is: 1.30 1.25 1.15 1.20

1.15

In case of an engine failure during straight and level flight with a twin-engine class B aeroplane, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Thrust required decreases. 2. Excess thrust reduces by more than 50%. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

With regard to Minimum Angle of Descent during glide, which of the following statements is correct? 1. A higher mass results in a higher Minimum Angle of Descent. 2. A higher mass allows a higher speed for the same Minimum Angle of Descent. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

The Max. Climb Angle in a Turbojet Aircraft is achieved at a speed corresponding to... Max. CL/CD ratio. 1.3 Vs. Max. CL/CD² ratio. 1.1 Vs.

Max. CL/CD ratio.

The abbreviation for the Stalling Speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is... VS1. VMMO. VR. VSO.

VSO.

The maximum obstacle clearance in a climb is achieved at... VR + 10 kt. V1. the speed at which excess thrust available over thrust required is maximum. the speed for maximum rate of climb.

the speed at which excess thrust available over thrust required is maximum.

Descending with Zero Thrust at the best Lift to Drag Ratio speed,... a headwind will increase the ground distance. a tailwind will increase the ground distance. a tailwind will increase the fuel consumption. a tailwind will reduce the time in the descent.

a tailwind will increase the ground distance.

An aeroplane is in a power-off glide at speed for minimum glide angle. If the pitch attitude is increased, the glide distance... decreases. increases or decreases depending on the type of aeroplane. remains constant. increases.

decreases.

When compared to a descent with a given mass at the speed for Minimum Angle of Descent, how will a higher mass affect the Minimum Descent Angle and the corresponding speed? The Minimum Angle of descent will decrease at the same speed. The Minimum Angle of descent will increase with a lower speed. The Minimum Angle of descent will remain constant at the same speed. The Minimum Angle of descent will remain constant at a higher speed.

The Minimum Angle of descent will remain constant at a higher speed.

With regard to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 Part CAT (performance class B aeroplanes), the unfactored take-off distance, specified in the AFM, shall not exceed: - when multiplied by a factor of (1) ___ the take-off run available (TORA) - or, when stop way and/or clearway is available, when multiplied by a factor of (2) ___, the take-off distance available (TODA). (1) 1.15, (2) 1.25 (1) 1.25, (2) 1.30 (1) 1.30, (2) 1.15 (1) 1.25, (2) 1.15

(1) 1.25, (2) 1.15

With the information given, calculate the all-engine-operating (AEO) climb gradient for a twin-engine aeroplane (assume g = 10 m/s²): Thrust per engine: 120000 N Take-off Mass: 55000 kg Lift-to-drag ratio: 8:1 5.35% 9.36% 18.1% 31.1%

31.1%

An obstacle in the flight path segment requires 2.6 % climb gradient for safe clearance. The gradient is 2.8% at 110 000 kg gross weight. With the same power settings and the sine of the angle of climb varying inversely with mass, the maximum mass at which the minimum climb gradient can be maintained is: 120 310 kg 108 430 kg 102 450 kg 118 455 kg

118 455 kg

With the information given, calculate the all-engine-operating (AEO) climb gradient for a twin-engine aeroplane (assume g = 10 m/s²): Thrust per engine: 40000 lbs/engine Take-off Mass: 80000 kg Lift-to-drag ratio: 7:1 10.8% 6.15% 20.9% 31.1%

31.1%

With regard to Performance Class B multi-engine aeroplanes, counter-rotating propellers are installed to... allow for larger distance of the engines from the longitudinal axis. refresh the boundary layer to enable larger angles of attack. eliminate problems resulting from failure of the critical engine. increase propeller efficiency during different phases of flight.

eliminate problems resulting from failure of the critical engine.

With all parameters constant, a change in mass will have the following effect on the best Rate of Climb (ROC) speed: ROC speed is independent of the mass. ROC is affected by the mass, but the ROC speed is not. ROC speed decreases with increasing mass. ROC speed increases with increasing mass.

ROC speed increases with increasing mass.

With all other factors constant, an increase of altitude in a standard atmosphere, will cause [1] VX to ___ and [2] VY to ___ when expressed in TAS. [1] decrease [2] increase [1] decrease [2] decrease [1] increase [2] decrease [1] increase [2] increase

[1] increase [2] increase

The correct statement about unaccelerated climb is... The lift is equal to the weight plus the vertical component of the drag. The thrust is equal to the drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction. The lift is higher than the gross weight. The thrust is equal to the drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

The thrust is equal to the drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.

VX is the speed for best... angle of climb. specific range. angle of flight path. rate of climb.

angle of climb.

During approach to an airport with a jet transport aeroplane, ATC informs the crew about delays to be expected. If requested to reduce speed, the crew should reduce speed to ___ to maximize endurance. Minimum Drag Speed VMD at clean configuration (Minimum Clean speed) Long Range Cruise speed (LRC) Reference Speed (VREF) Minimum Power speed (VMP)

Minimum Drag Speed VMD at clean configuration (Minimum Clean speed)

The equation applicable to Climb Gradient percentage in unaccelerated flight at small angles is... Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Lift) x 100 Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100 Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Mass)/Lift) x 100 Climb Gradient = (Lift - Weight) x 100

Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100

During approach to an airport with a jet transport aeroplane, ATC informs the crew about delays to be expected. If requested to reduce speed, the crew should reduce speed to ___ to delay arrival at the holding fix as long as possible. Minimum Power speed (VMP) Minimum Drag Speed VMD at clean configuration (Minimum Clean speed) Reference Speed (VREF) Long Range Cruise speed (LRC)

Minimum Drag Speed VMD at clean configuration (Minimum Clean speed)

At an aeroplane with two clockwise-rotating propeller piston engines, the critical engine is... the right engine in case of engine failure during ground roll. the left engine in case of engine failure during idle glide. the right engine in case of engine failure during taxing. the left engine in case of engine failure during take-off.

the left engine in case of engine failure during take-off.

Approved take-off flap settings: UP / 5° / 10° / 15°. When performing a take-off with flaps 10° instead of flaps UP, the... take-off distance increases climb performance decreases VLOF increases ground roll distance increases

climb performance decreases

If Gross Mass is increased… VY and VX are both increased. VY and VX are not changed. VY and VX are decreased. VX is increased and VY decreased.

VY and VX are both increased.

The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass... Increases with increasing altitude due to higher TAS. Decreases with increasing altitude as the thrust available decreases due to lower air density. Increases with increasing altitude as the drag decreases due to lower air density. Is not affected by changes in altitude.

Decreases with increasing altitude as the thrust available decreases due to lower air density.

With regard to an aeroplane fitted with different stages of slat- and flap-settings, choosing a lower slat-/flap-setting for take-off would result in a (1) ___ rate of climb (ROC) at a (2) ___ airspeed. (1) higher, (2) lower. (1) lower, (2) lower. (1) lower, (2) higher. (1) higher, (2) higher.

(1) higher, (2) higher.

With regard to turbojet aeroplanes, which of the following statements is correct? 1. The speed for maximum endurance increases with increasing head wind component. 2. The (maximum) endurance is not affected by wind. 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is correct, 2 is íncorrect

1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Regarding a turbojet aeroplane, fuel flow during steady level flight is... proportional to power which directly depends on TAS. proportional to power which directly depends on EAS. proportional to thrust (drag) which directly depends on TAS. proportional to thrust (drag) which directly depends on EAS.

proportional to thrust (drag) which directly depends on EAS.

With regard to a turbojet aeroplane, speed for maximum endurance corresponds to... the speed for minimum drag. the speed for best specific range. the speed for minimum ratio between drag and speed. the speed for minimum power.

the speed for minimum drag.

With regard to turbojet aeroplanes, which of the following statements is correct? 1. Endurance increases with altitude up to the optimum altitude. 2. Endurance decreases with altitude above the optimum altitude. 1 is correct, 2 is íncorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect

1 is correct, 2 is correct

With regard to a propeller-driven aeroplane, the speed for maximum endurance (1) ___ with increasing altitude because (2) ___. (1) decreases, (2) drag and thrust increase. (1) decreases, (2) power required decreases. (1) increases, (2) power required increases. (1) increases, (2) drag and thrust decrease.

(1) increases, (2) power required increases.

With regard to a propeller-driven aeroplane, fuel flow (1) ___ with increasing TAS at speeds (2) ____. (1) decreases, (2) above minimum power speed. (1) decreases, (2) below the maximum range speed. (1) increases, (2) below minimum power speed. (1) decreases, (2) below minimum power speed.

(1) decreases, (2) below minimum power speed.

With regard to propeller-driven aeroplanes, which of the following statements is correct? 1. A piston-engine aeroplane will reach its highest endurance at MSL level. 2. Speed for maximum endurance decreases with increasing altitude. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect 1 is correct, 2 is correct 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

With the Centre of Gravity closer to the aft than the forward limit... The maximum range is increased. The longitudinal stability is improved. The maximum range is decreased. The stalling speed is increased.

The maximum range is increased.

Operation Four-engine Turbojet Mass 150 000 kg Lift-to-Drag ratio 14 Thrust per engine 75 000 N (all operating) g 10 m/s² The Climb Gradient (%) is: 12.86 7.94 29 1.286

12.86

Which statement about "maximum endurance" is correct? It is the same as maximum specific range corrected for the wind component. It can be reached when flying at the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight. It can be achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow. It can be used in a steady climb only.

It can be achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel flow.

On the Power versus TAS graph for level flight, a tangent from the origin touches the power required curve where the... Drag coefficient is a minimum. Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum. Maximum Drag Speed is reached. Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.

Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.

The maximum achievable speed (TAS) in level flight with a non-supercharged piston engine (1) ___ with (2) ___ . (1) increases, (2) increasing altitude (1) decreases, (2) increasing density (1) increases, (2) decreasing density (1) decreases, (2) increasing altitude

(1) decreases, (2) increasing altitude

On a Thrust Required curve of a jet aeroplane, the lowest point represents... Minimum specific range. Maximum specific range. Maximum rate of descent. Minimum Drag.

Minimum Drag.

When flying at the 'backside of the power curve'... the altitude cannot be kept constant. the elevator must be pulled to lower the nose. the speed is unstable. the aeroplane is not able to stall.

the speed is unstable.

To fly for maximum time airborne during glide, the speed should be for... minimum angle of attack. minimum power required. maximum lift. critical Mach number.

minimum power required.

The correct equation about Specific Air Range (SAR) is: SAR = GS / Total Fuel Flow SAR = Mach number / Total Fuel Flow SAR = CAS / Total Fuel Flow SAR = TAS / Total Fuel Flow

SAR = TAS / Total Fuel Flow

The correct equation about Specific Range over Ground (SRG) is... SR = Mach number / Total Fuel Flow SR = GS / Total Fuel Flow SR = CAS / Total Fuel Flow SR = TAS / Total Fuel Flow

SR = GS / Total Fuel Flow

When aircraft mass decreases during unaccelerated horizontal flight, the Minimum Drag [1] ___ and the IAS for the Minimum Drag [2] ___. [1] decreases [2] decreases [1] increases [2] decreases [1] increases [2] increases [1] decreases [2] increases

[1] decreases [2] decreases

Regarding a propeller-driven aeroplane during climb, the power-required at a given IAS will (1) ___ with (2) ___ density altitude. (1) increase, (2) increasing (1) not change, (2) changing (1) decrease, (2) increasing (1) decrease, (2) any change in

(1) increase, (2) increasing

When the outside air temperature increases the... the climb gradient and the rate of climb both decrease. climb gradient increases and the rate of climb decreases. climb gradient decreases and the rate of climb increases. climb performance is not affected.

the climb gradient and the rate of climb both decrease.

If atmospheric pressure increases, take-off distance [1] ___ and initial climb performance [2] ___. [1] increases [2] decreases [1] increases [2] increases [1] decreases [2] decreases [1] decreases [2] increases

[1] decreases [2] increases

Take-off and initial climb performance can be adversly affected by [1] ___ temperature and [2] ___ relative humidity. [1] high [2] high [1] high [2] low [1] low [2] low [1] low [2] high

[1] high [2] high

Define "Power Required": The thrust force needed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight. The power needed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight. The drag divided by airspeed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight. The power multiplied by airspeed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight.

The power needed to maintain unaccelerated straight and level flight.

The "screen height" for Performance Class A aeroplanes is a reference height of usually (1) ___ with a dry runway, and is measures overhead (2) ___. (1) 35 ft, (2) Reference Zero (RZ) (1) 35 ft, (2) Airport Elevation (1) 15 ft, (2) Airport Elevation (1) 15 ft, (2) Reference Zero (RZ)

(1) 35 ft, (2) Reference Zero (RZ)

According CS-Definitions, an "area beyond the runway under the control of the airport authority (...) extending from the end of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25%, above which no object or terrain protrudes" is defined as: Stopway Brake area Runaway ramp Clearway

Clearway

PERFORMANCE (ALL) Flashcards

(292 cards)