Perfusion Flashcards

(58 cards)

1
Q

explain what familial hypercholesterolemia is. name 3 S&S.

A

it is a common hereditary deficit in LDL tissue receptors, this causes low tissue LDL and persistent high serum LDL. this increases risk of atherosclerosis and alternate deposition of cholesterol.

high serum LDL, atherosclerosis, xanthomas

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2
Q

what would we check for BW in patients with hypercholesterolemia?

A

we would check for complete PLT count, especially in patients on anticoagulants/platelets

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3
Q

4 causes of coagulation deficits

A

thrombocytopenia = bone marrow deficit, DIC, cancer
vitamin K deficiency = lack of coagulation factors
liver disease = infection, cirrhosis, drug-induced
inherited disorders

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4
Q

3 coagulation disorders

A

von Willebrand disease
Hemophilia A
Factor V deficiency

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5
Q

explain what von Willebrand disease is and how it causes disease; name 2 drugs and what their function is

A

von Willebrand disease is autosomal recessive/ dominant; a deficiency of vWF causes bleeding.

TX: desmopressin (synthetic), vasopressin (biologic) = stimulates vWF endothelial cell synthesis and secretion

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6
Q

explain what Hemophilia A is and who is more likely to get it. determine 2 TX and how long it is treated for.

A

it is a factor VIII deficiency that causes bleeding. it is an X-linked recessive disorder (more likely in men)

TX: synthetic factor VIII and FFP; these are taken for life d/t t1/2

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7
Q

how many types does factor V deficiency have? explain what each cause

A

factor V deficiency has 2 types: acquired and inherited

acquired: factor V antibodies (immune)
inherited: Owren’s disease = autosomal recessive (lack of clotting factor V)

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8
Q

what are 2 common things patients with coagulation deficiencies should avoid?

A

should avoid contact sports and restrictive diets

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9
Q

provide an example of a hypercoagulation disorder. explain how hypercoagulation occurs and what it puts patients at risk of.

A

Factor V Leiden = autosomal (incomplete dominance)

anti-coagulation substance, protein C cannot bind to anti-coagulate as need, leads to a risk of hypercoagulation.

patients are at risk for DVT and PE

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10
Q

4 thrombus risk factors caused by tissue injury

A

inflammation, surgery, atherosclerosis, infection

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11
Q

1 thrombus risk factor caused by high viscosity

A

dehydration (low plasma)

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12
Q

2 thrombus risk factors caused by venous stasis

A

immobility and arrhythmias

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13
Q

2 thrombus risk factors caused by smoking

A

cytotoxicity and ROS

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14
Q

2 thrombus risk factors caused by drugs

A

HIT and birth control pills

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15
Q

how do birth control pills pose a thrombus risk?

A

high estrogen causes increased hepatic coagulation factor synthesis and decreases clot lysis

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16
Q

what is the most common site of hypercoagulation?

A

DVT

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17
Q

3 S&S of DVT, how is it diagnosed? determine ER TX and longer term TX (2)

A

S&S: affected site edema, pain, erythema distal to clot
DX: ultrasound
ER TX: heparin
LT TX: LWMH SC, Apixaban PO

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18
Q

what is the most common cause of PE? determine 4 S&S of PE, how it is DX, 2 ER TX and 2 longer term TX

A

DVT = most common cause

S&S: chest pain, SOB, low SpO2, compensatory mechanisms
DX: CT scan
ER TX: thrombolytics + heparin
longer term TX: LWMH SC, Apixaban PO

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19
Q

3 ways PE can be prevented post surgery

A

early mobilization post surgery, compression stockings, and heparin + LWMH TX pre/during/post surgery

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20
Q

3 risk factors of pulmonary HTN

A

chronic small pulmonary embolisms, COPD, heart failure

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21
Q

5 S&S of pulmonary HTN

A

cough, SOB, lethargy, low SpO2, signs of right ventricular dysfunction (peripheral edema, JVD)

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22
Q

ER TX + 1 drug for pulmonary HTN + 2 TX

A

ER TX: phosphodiesterase inhibitors = drug: Nipride (nitroprusside)
TX: decrease preload (diuretics); prevention of cor pulmonale (RHF)

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23
Q

describe the MOA of phosphodiesterase inhibitors, describe its effects on PDE3 and PDE5

A

inhibit phosphodiesterase (PDE), increasing cyclic monophosphate activity
PDE3 inhibition = increased contractility in myocardial cells
PDE5 = vasodilation in endothelial cells

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24
Q

name 2 PDE3 selective drugs, name 3 PDE5 selective drugs. describe 2 things they TX.

A

PDE3 selective (-none): Milrinone, Amrinone

PDE5 selective (-afil): sildenafil (Viagra), vardenafil, tadalafil

TX: pulmonary HTN + acute HF

25
describe atrial fibrillation and the atrial rate + ventricular rate that can occur.
Afib = disorganized atrial contractility leading to inadequate ventricular filling, causing low CO atrial rate >300bpm, ventricular rate 80-180bpm
26
3 S&S of Afib; 1 ER TX, 3 longer term TX
S&S: dizziness, irregular pulse, pulse deficit 1 ER TX = synchronized cardioversion TX (drugs to slow nodal conduction) = b1 blockers, cardiac elective calcium channel blockers, low dose ASA for prophylaxis
27
Afib TX optimal for older adults
Coumadin
28
what will you see on an ECG of a patient with Afib?
absence of P waves and irregular QRS waves
29
how do the number of ectopic sites in on the heart affect the ECG?
the more ectopic sites = more flatter baseline
30
procedure used to interrupt impulse re-entry pathway in afib; how does it work?
ablation procedure; ectopic sites are mapped and cauterized.
31
describe how synchronized cardioversion works
heart is synchronized to normal atrial depolarization; during QRS complex (ventricular depolarization also occurs). synchronized to R wave on the ECG. 100J of energy is first applied and myocardium resets to normal sinus rhythm.
32
what can occur if a cardioversion is not synchronized on the R wave but the T wave?
it can cause ventricular fibrillation which is more serious
33
5 risk factors for advancing atherosclerosis
HTN, hyperlipidemia, hypercholesterolemia, smoking, DM
34
2 TX focus for advancing atherosclerosis; 2 interventions
decrease risk of complicated lesions + enhance clot lysis medications: antihypertensives, ASA, statins modifiable risk factor control
35
what are the 3 main coronary arteries that need to be assessed in individuals with coronary atherosclerosis
right coronary, left anterior descending, circumflex
36
which artery do the LAD and circumflex originate from?
left mainstem artery
37
what are the 2 types of coronary artery disease? which one is deadlier?
stable plaque vs unstable plaque (ACS) unstable plaque is deadlier as it can lead to MI
38
describe what a stable plaque is, its relation to ischemia, 1 S&S; common TX and length of TX
thick and fibrous plaque, ischemia occurs with exertion, can cause angina common TX: nitroglycerin and it can be used for life
39
describe what an unstable plaque is and an alternate name, its relation to ischemia, 5 S&S, and the imminent risk it poses
vit is an unstable plaque with severe/complete occlusion by plaque & thrombus; ischemia occurs even without exertion S&S: myocardial tissue hypoxia, no response to tx, unstable angina, Fib, loss of consciousness poses an imminent risk of myocardial infarction
40
4 S&S of MI in women
fatigue, lightheadedness, abdomen + back pain
41
what are the 2 types of MI on ECG; which one posts a higher risk in MI and 2 arteries it blocks.
STEMI (ST elevation MI) and NSTEMI (non-ST elevation MI) STEMI posts a higher risk and it completely blocks LAD and main stem
42
2 ECG rhythm changes that can occur with MI
ventricular fibrillation (Vfib) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (Vtach)
43
what does ST elevation mean in regards to coronary artery occlusion?
total coronary artery occlusion causes poor myocardial cell depolarization
44
5 drugs often utilized in patients with acute coronary syndrome
O2 PRN, glycoprotein IIB/IIIa inhibitors, antiplatelets, anxiolytics, morphine | GAAMO
45
what 2 cardiac enzymes are usually present in BW during/post MI? which one is more specific to MI?
troponin and CK-MB; troponin rises first at least 2 hours post ischemia and is most specific
46
3 TX used for coronary arterial obstruction
PCI (percutaneous coronary intervention), thrombolytics, CABG (coronary artery bypass grafting)
47
what is the 1st line treatment for ACS? what must be done before this procedure and why is it done?
PCI aka angioplasty; a coronary angiogram is done first to show where the obstruction is using a dye.
48
ideally, within how many minutes from ACS onset should a PCI be done on a patient?
ideally 120 minutes from ACS onset
49
when should thrombolytics be used on a patient with sudden ACS onset?
within 120 minutes
50
angioplasty is performed on patients who...
patients who have CAD diagnosed pre-ACS
51
5 risks of PCI
embolism, arrhythmia, dissection, restenosis, bleeding
52
4 examples of causes of cardiac tamponade and explain how it causes damage
CAD dissection (rupture), dissection during PCI, trauma/accidents, aortic aneurysm all causing bleeding into pericardial space, exerting pressure on the myocardium, decreasing CO leading to compensatory SNS stimulation and later heart failure
53
3 S&S of cardiac tamponade
pulsus paradoxus, SOB, SNS activation
54
treatment used for cardiac tamponade
pericardiocentesis = extracting blood from pericardium, relieving pressure
55
2 shockable ECG rhythms in MI
pulseless Vtach and Fib
56
3 interventions done during CPR to treat pulseless Vtach/Vfib
EP 1mg IV q3-5 mins to increase contractility and bronchodilation defibrillation using 360J (monophasic) ET tube for optimal oxygenation/ventilation
57
5 MI consequences
embolism, myocardial deficit, cardiac tamponade, depression, mortality
58
4 drugs used post MI
antihypertensives, statins, antiplatelets, antidepressants