1
Q
Skeletal muscle contraction is evoked by what receptor?
A
Nicotinic cholinergic (M receptor)
2
Q
NON depolarizing neuromuscular blockers act as?
A
ACh antagonists
ex: Tubocrarine
3
Q
Depolarizing neuromuscular blockers act as?
A
ACh agonists
Ex: Succinylcholine
4
Q
Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers w. Renal elimination?
A
Pancuronium + tubocurarine
5
Q
Non depol blocker w/ Hepatic metabolism and Hofman elimination to from Laudanosine?
A
Atracurium
6
Q
AE of Laudanosine?
A
Seizures
7
Q
Stereoisomer of atracurium and inactivated to form LESS laudanosine and one of the MC used muscle relaxants?
A
Cisatracurium
8
Q
MOA of nondepol neuromuscular blockers?
A
Competitively prevent ACh action at skeletal muscle end plate
9
Q
Phase of blockade by depolarizing blocker during which the end plate repolarizes but is less than normally responsive to agonists (ACh or succinylcholine)?
A
Desensitization
10
Q
Caused by massive release of Calcium form SR leading to uncontrolled contractions and stimulation of metabolism of skeletal muscle?
A
Malignant hyperthermia
11
Q
Made up of 2 ACh molecules linked end to end?
A
Succinylcholine
12
Q
Where is Succinylcholine metabolized?
A
Liver and Plasma by Pseudocholinesterases
13
Q
What is the affect of continuous depolarization of motor end plate?
A
Muscle relaxation and Paralysis
14
Q
What is required for tension to be maintained is skeletal muscle?
A
Periodic REpolarization and Depolarization
15
Q
What is the difference btwn Phase I and Phase II affects of Succinylcholine actions?
A
Phase I–> continuous depolarization
Phase II–> gradual repolarization
16
Q
How does AChesteral Inhibitor affect the paralysis produced by Succinylcholine?
A
Phase I–> AChesterase I increases Succin action
Phase II–> AChE inhib Reverses Succ action
17
Q
AE of Succinylcholine?
A
Respiratory paralysis–> asphyxiation
Stimulates Autonomic ganglia–> Histamine released
Myalagia–> Hyperkalemia
Malignant hyperthermia–> co-admin w. inhaled anesthetic
18
Q
What is a very early sign of Life threatening malignant hyperthermia caused by Succinylcholine action?
A
Jaw muscle contractions (trismus)
19
Q
ACh Esterase inhibitors include?
A
Pyridostigmine
Neostigmine
Physostigmine
Sugammedex –> steroidal agent only
20
Q
MOA of Curare?
A
competitive ACh antagonist
21
Q
Neuromuscular blockers that also affect Autonomic ganglia?
A
Tubocurarine–> weak blocker
Succinylcholine–> Stimulator
22
Q
Neuromuscular blockers that affect Cardiac Muscarinic receptors?
A
Pancuronium–> Moderate BLOCKER
Succinylcholine–> Stimulator
23
Q
Neuromuscular blockers w. ability to Release Histamine?
A
Atracurium–> slight
Tubocurarine–> Moderate
Succinylcholine–> Slight
24
Q
Localized disorder of bone remodeling caused by increased osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity?
A
Pagets disease (osteotitis deformans)
25
Disease associated w. increased Hat size + hearing loss due to narrowing of auditory foremen?
Pagets disease
26
What are the typical levels of Alkaline phosphatase, calcium, PTH, and phosphates in Pagets disease?
ALP--> Elevated >10x normal
Phosphates--> W/ in normal range
Calcium--> Normal levels
PTH--> Normal levels
27
Bones with mosaic pattern of growth, increased "chalk stick fractures" + Increased risk of HF & osteogenic sarcoma?
Pagets
28
What are the defining characteristics of the 3 stages of Pagets disease?
stage 1--> Osteolytic w, increased resorption
stage 2--> Disorganized bone formation
stage 3--> sclerotic or burnt out phase
29
What is the primary abnormality in Pagets disease?
Over production and activity of Osteoclasts
30
Alkaline phosphatase is a marker for?
Bone formation
31
Hydroxyproline is a marker for?
Bone Resorption
32
Patient w. hypercalcemia + hypercalciuria + renal Stones + hypophosphatemia?
Primary HyperParathyroidism
| osteititis fibrosa cystica
33
Causes increased PTH + Increased ALP + Increased cAMP in urine + weakness and Constipation?
Primary Hyperparathyroidism (OFC)
34
Cystic bone spaces filled with brown fibrous bone tissue causing bone pain, Stones + bones + groans?
Osteititis Fibrosa cystica
35
Bone lesions due to 2nd or tertiary hyperparathyroidism due to Renal failure?
Renal osteodystrophy
36
Pt w. bone disease caused by
| Hypovitaminosis D--> hypcalcemia + hyperphosphatemia + increased ALP + PTH?
Renal Osteodystrophy
37
Brown bone tumors of hyperparathyroidism?
Osteititis Fibrosa cystica
38
Decreased bone disease?
Osteoporosis
39
Thickened and dense bone disease (weak)?
Osteopetrosis
40
Soft bone disease (not mineralizing properly)?
Osteomalacia + Rickets
41
Causes Abnormal bone architecture?
Pagets disease
42
Pt with muscle rigidity, tachycardia, increased CO2 production, and elevated core body temp?
Malignant hyperthermia--> Succinylcholine + sevoflurane
43
What is the treatment for Malignant hyperthermia?
DANTROLENE
44
Bone disorder caused by Parayxovirus infection of Osteoclasts?
Pagets disease
45
Radiographic lytic lesions with increased ALP?
Pagets disease
46
MOA of methotrexate when treating RA?
Block AICAR--> AICA accumulates--> Inh Adenosine Deaminase--> Increased Adenosine
47
What is the role of AICAR transformylase?
Catalyzes the last step of Inosine monophosphate biosynthesis (AICA--> FAICAR)
48
How does accumulating adenosine affect RA?
```
InhibitsLymphocyte proliferation
suppresses Secretion of IL-1, IFN, TNF
Increases IL-4 secretion
Impairs Histamin release from basophils
Decreases PMN chemotaxis
```
49
What drug undergoes polyglutamation to be retained Intracellularly?
Methotrexate
50
MXT metabolism and elimination?
RENAL Elimination-> (tubular secretion)
| Hepatic metabolism-> CI w/ alcoholics + hepatic Failure
51
AE of MXT?
```
Immunosuppression-> CI w. HIV
Pulmonary Fibrosis
Interstitial Pneumonitis
Teratogenic
Less frequent:
Malignant Lymphoma
Fatal Derm rxn
GI toxic (PUD + Ulcerative colitis-> w. NSAIDS)
```
52
Pro-drug, metabolized into sulfapyridine and melamine by Bacterial in colon?
Sulfasalazine
53
What metabolite of Sulfasalazine is acetylated and hydroxylated in the LIVER?
Sulfapyridine
54
What kind of patients experience Higher levels of Sulfapyridine?
POOR ACETYLATORS
55
MOA of Sulfasalazine?
Primarily Anti-inflammatory by MESALAMINE
56
MOA of Mesalamine?
Inhibits PG and LT production
57
Sulfasalazine Elimination + CI + AE?
Renal Elimination
CI w. Hypersensitivity to salicylates + Sulfa
AE: Fatal BLOOD dyscrasia
58
MOA of Leflunomide?
Prodrug--> A77 1726--> inhibits Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase
Suppresses B + T cells and Immunoglobulins
59
What is the active metabolite of Leflunomide?
A77 1726
60
What is the function of Dihydroorotate dehydrogenase?
Key step in Pyrimidine synthesis
61
MOA: inhibits Pyrimidine synthesis--> T + B cells arrested in cell cycle & collaboration interrupted?
Leflunomide
62
Cytostatic drug that also suppresses Immunoglobulin production?
Leflunomide
63
What RA drug metabolite also has a Uricosuric effect (increases Uric acid elimination)?
Leflunomide--> A77 1726
64
Leflunomide Elimin + AE?
Fecal elimination
Hepatic toxicity
Teratogenic
CI w, Immunosuppression or infections
65
MOA of Hydroxychloroquine?
Increases intracellular vacuole pH + alters protein degradation + and macromolecule assembly
66
Drug that diminishes formation of peptide-MHC protein complexes required to stimulate CD4+ T cells?
Hydroxychloroquine
67
Hydroxychloroquine Elimination + AE?
```
Slow renal elimination
AE:
OCULAR disease
Hepatic toxicity
Blood dyscrasia
CNA toxic
Ototoxic
Seizures
Neuropathy
```
68
AE: Ocular disease + Ototoxic + Seizures + hepatotoxic?
Hydroxychloroquine
69
What drug requires routine Opthalmic exams?
Hydroxychloroquine
70
RA drugs that are mAbs against TNF alpha?
Adalimunmab
Certolizumab
Infliximab
Golimumab
71
RA drugs that acts as Soluble receptor for TNF?
Etanercept
72
RA drugs acting as IL-1 receptor antagonists?
Anakinra
73
RA drug that acts as IL-6 receptor mAb?
Tocilizumab
74
What is the cell that is thought to be responsible for RA inflammatory process?
T helper 17 cells
75
What is the action of Th17 cells in RA?
Release IL-17--> induces IL-1 + IL-6 + TNF alpha release
76
What is the role of IL-23 + IL-6 + IL-1 in RA?
Induces T cell differentiation into Th17 cells
77
MOA; anti CTLA4--> binds CD80 & CD86 to prevent T-cell co-stimulatory signal engaging w, CD28?
Abatacept
78
MOA; binds TNF, blocks its interaction w. p55 and p75 cell surface receptors?
Adalimumab
79
MOA: competitively inhibits IL-1alpha + beta binding to IL-1R?
Anakinra
80
MOA: hmAB that neutralizes membrane associated and soluble human TNF alpha?
Certolizumab
81
MOA: hmAb that binds to and neutralizes both soluble & transmembrane TNF alpha?
Golimumab
82
MOA: chimeric (mouse) mAb that binds and neutralizes soluble & transmembrane TNFalpha?
Infliximab
83
MOA: anti-CD20 which mediates B cell lysis?
Rituximab
84
MOA: hmAb that binds to soluble (serum & synovial fluid) & membrane bound IL-6 receptors to Inhibit signaling?
Tocilizumab
85
What drug RA drug contains Maltose which may complicate blood glucose tests?
Abatacept
86
What drug requires reliable contraception for upto 4-6 after use?
Rituximab--> IgG crosses placenta
87
RA drugs inducing Lupus like syndrome?
Etanercept
Infliximab
Adalimumab
Certolizumab
88
Describe phase I of Succinylcholine use?
Immediate Depolarization but rapid recovery from, with NO FADE--> muscle contractions followed by paralysis
89
Describe Phase II of succinylcholine use?
Desensitization with slow transition
| Prolonged recovery and FADE causing only flaccid paralysis (NO muscle involuntary contractions)
90
Genetically variants of plasma cholinesterase causes abnormal levels of what drug? What is the test used to identify this phenomenon?
Succinylcholine
Dibucanine test
91
AE: HTN, arrhythmias, Hyperkalemia, increased Intracranial pressures, muscle pain, Myoglobinuria, malignant hyperthermia?
Succinylcholine
92
What are the AchE inhibitors?
Neostigmine
Edrophonium
Pyridostigmine
93
What are the Anti-cholinergics used to terminate Neuromuscular blockade?
Glycopyrrolate
| Atropine
94
Off target actions of AchE inhibitors?
```
Cardio--> bradycardia
Pulmonary--> Bronchospasms
GI--> Increased peristalsis
GU--> increased bladder tone
Opthalmic--> pupillary constriction
```
95
What rapidly encapsulates steroids to reverse ANY depth of neuromuscular blockade?
Sugammadex
96
Sugammadex is inactive against what kind of neuromuscular blockers?
NON steroidals--> Succinylcholine + cisatracurium
97
What is the main function of NMBs?
reversible blockade of Nm receptors
| Paralysis of skeletal muscle--> NO pain or anxiety relief
98
What can reverse neuromuscular blockade?
AchE inhibitors
| Sugammadex
99
What is a common AE of Nondepolarizing NMBAs?
Nephrotoxicity + Hepatotoxicity
100
How is Hyperuricemia defined?
Uric acid plasma level > 7 mg/dL
| Precipitation > 9 mg/dL
101
What is the rate limiting step in purine metabolism?
Ribose --> PRPP
| Enzyme: PRPP synthetase
102
What enzyme is responsible for turning Hypoxanthine into Nucleic acids?
HGPRT
103
Abnormal (decreased) HGPRT function in some Mediterranean groups leads to?
Increased Uric acid in serum
104
What drug is effective only against Gouty arthritis and is a prophylactic agent against future attacks?
Colchicine
105
MOA of Colchicine?
Depolimerization of microtubules
106
How does microtubules inhibition affect GOUT?
prevents inflammatory cell (PMNs) proliferation + migration
Blocks immune response
STOPS phagocytosis of crystals
107
AE of Colchicine?
GI + blood dyscrasia
108
MOA: COX inhibitor + analgesic & antipyretic + inhibits leukocyte motility?
Indomethacin --> treat acute attacks
109
AE of indomethacin?
```
N/V
Ulcers
CNS--> Severe frontal headache
Blood disorders
Antagonizes furosemide and HCTZ
```
110
AE: severe headache and decreased function of Diuretics?
Indomethacin
111
MOA of Allopurinol?
Competitive inhibitor of Xanthine oxidase
112
How is Allopurinol a suicide inhibitor of Xanthine oxides?
Drug is a substrate for the enzyme and its metabolite --> Oxypurinol is a NON competitive inhibitor of XO
113
What are the therapeutic effects of Allopurinol?
Reduces plasma and Urine uric acid levels
Facilitates Dissolution of uric acid crystals
Prevents formation of uric acid kidney stones
114
Tx primarily for hyperuricemia due to enzyme abnormalities, and in familial hyperuricemic nephropathy + 2nd due to heme disorders?
Allopurinol
115
AE of allopurinol?
Increase incidence of acute attacks
Exfoliative dermatitis (HS rxn)
Interaction w. 6-mercaptopurine
CI w. Ampicillin and related antibiotics
116
Why is Allopurinol CI with 6-mercaptopurine and Ampicillin like antibiotics?
6-MP--> metabolized by XO--> increases serum levels and AE--> PANCYTOPENIA
Ampicillin--> increases RISK for Exfoliative dermatitis
117
MOA of Febuxostat?
Uloric--> Direct inhibitor of oxidized and reduced Xanthine Oxidase
118
When is Febuxostat used?
pt with HS to Allopurinol
119
What is a limitation of allopurinol that is overcome by Febuxostat?
Renal insufficiency--> Feb can be used in pts with mild to Moderate Renal Impairment
120
AE of Febuxostat?
Elevated transaminases
121
Where in the Kidney is Uric acid secreted?
PT ONLY
122
MOA of Probenecid?
Inhibits transport of organic anions across epithelial barriers
Interferes with UA reabsorption in the BRUSH boarder of PT
123
What drug competes with uric acid for Brush boarder transporters?
Probenecid
124
Clinical uses of Probenecid?
pt w. < 1 g of UA excretion
| Dissolution of UA crystals in joints
125
AE of probenecid?
```
SJ syndrome
Aplastic anemia
Hepatic necrosis
Hypersensitivity rxn
Nephrotic syndrome
```
126
Probenecid is CI with concurrent use of?
Salicylates--> inhibit Uricosuric actions of Probenecid
127
What enzyme (not present in humans) converts Uric acid into allantoin?
Urate Oxidase
128
MOA of Pegloticase?
PEGylated formulation of pig URATE OXIDASE
Converts UA--> Allantoin
129
What drug rapidly lowers serum levels of Uric acid and reduces urinary excretion of UA and is used in pt with Severe Gout to Dissolve TOPHI?
Pegloticase
130
AE of pegloticase?
```
Gout flares--> colchicine or GCs prophylatically
Elimination occurs in 10-12 days
Antibodies against PEG moiety
CV--> chest pain
Constipation
```
131
What is a common AE of all TNF alpha inhibitors?
2nd malignancies
Immunosuppression
Injection site injuries
132
What drugs are associated with CHF?
Rituximab
Infliximab
Adalimumab
Golimumab
133
What drugs are associated with Lupus like syndromes?
Adalimumab
Certolizumab
Entanercept
Infliximab
134
What RA drug is associated with SJS?
Rituximab
135
What drug is associated with altered LIPID profile?
Toclizumab
136
What is the RA modifying affects of glucocorticoids?
Joint sparing--> inhibit erosive progression
137
MOA of glucocorticoids use in RA?
Induce synthesis of anti-inflammatory proteins and inhibiting proinflammatory cytokines (NFkb inhibition)
138
How do glucocorticoids have their anti-inflammatory affects?
Binding to cytosolic GCR--> binding to DNA GC response element--> upregulate anti- inflammators
Bind cGCR--> - interfere with transcription of NFkB--> reduce RANKL production
139
AE of glucocorticoids?
Osteoporosis
PUD (concurrent use w. NSAIDS)
CV disease (impacts lipids, glucose, and insulin)
Infection
140
Which glucocorticoids are associated with Salt and Water retention?
Hydrocortisone
Cortison
Prednisone
141
What drug has a BBW for Anaphylaxis and infusion rxns?
Pegloticase
142
AE: Torsades de pointes + Aplastic anemia + Hepatic failure + Myopathy + Seizures + Retinopathy + Hearing loss?
Hydroxychloroquine
143
AE: SJS + pancytopenia + immunosuppression + Hepatic Necrosis+ ILD?
Leflunomide
144
AE: SJS + aplastic anemia + hepatic failure + SLE + Renal disease + MALE infertility + Diffuse pulmonary fibrosis?
Sulfasalazine
145
AE: HTN + atrophic skin + depression + Osteoporosis + Cataracts + TB?
Betamethasone
146
What group of drugs decreases calcium absorption, increases Ca secretion, inhibit OSTEOBLASTS --> causing Osteoporosis?
Glucocorticoids
147
Hydrocortison AE?
typical GC AE +
Adrenal insufficiency
Hyperglycemia
148
Which COX selectivity causes Anti-inflammatory + analgesic + antipyretic + increase BP + reduce urine PGI2?
COX-2 selective + Traditional NSAIDS
149
What drugs inhibit platelets + reduce urine TXA2 + increase bleeding time + GI toxic?
COX-1 selective and traditional NSAIDS
150
What are the COX-2 selective NSAIDS?
Celecoxib
Diclofenac
Etodolac
Meloxican
151
What are the non-selective NSAIDS?
Acetaminophen
| Ibuprophen
152
COX 1 selective NSAIDS?
```
Ketorolac
Ketoprophen
Indomethacin
Aspirin
Sulindac
Naproxen
Piroxican
```
153
Which NSAID is associated with the HIGHEST + LOWEST risk for GI toxicity?
Ketorolac= highest
| Ibuprophen + Celecoxib= lowest
154
How can the GI toxicity of NSAIDS be reduced?
Concurrent admin with PPIs or H2 antagonists
155
What is the mechanism by which NSAIDS cause CV toxicity?
NSIADS compete with aspirin for COX-1 inhibition causing a pro-aggreagry condition
156
Which NSAIDS have shown cardioprotective actions by NOT competing with Aspirin?
Naproxen
Sulindac
Celecoxib
157
Which NSAID competes with Aspirin and increase CV risk?
Ibuprophen
158
AE of NSAIDs?
```
GI--> Ulcers
CV--> pro-agregarory/ infarctions
HTN--> inhibit PGs
Hepatotoxic
Renal Toxic
```
159
Which two NSAIDs are associated with HTN?
Piroxicam
| Diclofenac
160
What is the mechanism of increased BP by NSAIDs and which current BP therapies need intensifying?
inhibit PG formation
| ONLY ACEi + ARBs
161
AE: Reyes syndrome?
Aspirin
162
Which NSAID is associated with HIGHEST + Lowest risk for Hepatic toxicity?
```
Sulindac = highest
Ibuprophen= lowest
```
163
Which of the anti RA drugs is also URICOSURIC?
Eflunomide
164
What drugs competes with Probencid for tubular secretion?
Methotrexate
165
AE of aspirin?
```
GI Ulcers
Bleeding
Macular degeneration
Tinnitus
Bronchospasms
Angioedema
Reyes
Renal toxic
```
166
Which class of drugs is associated with Respiratory alkalosis + Central respiratory depression + CV collapse + Antagonize Uricosuric drugs?
Salicylates
167
MOA inhibits COX 1+2 in CNS producing antipyretic + analgesia?
Acetaminophen --> NOT anti-inflammatory
168
AE of Acetaminophen?
N/V
Constipation/ diarrhea
Hepatic failure--> produce radicals
Renal toxic
169
MOA of Duloxetine?
Sertonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake inhibitor--> MOSTLY Serotonin
170
What receptor does Duloxetine have it actions on?
NONE or upon the reuptake of Dopamine
171
MOA of Milnacipran?
Serotonin-NE repuptake inhibitor--> NE mostly
172
What FM drug undergoes CYP 2D6 metabolism?
Duloxetine
173
CI for both Duloxetine and Milnacipran?
```
Severe Hepatic dysfunction or Chronic alcoholism
And Pre-existing CV disease
Uncontrolled close angled Glaucoma
MAOis
SIADH
BBW: SUICIDES
```
*both have Hepatic metabolism
174
AE of Duloxetine and Milnacipran?
HTN and elevated HR
175
CI with Uncontrolled close angled Glaucoma?
Duloxetine + Milnacipran
176
AE: SUICIDES + SIADH?
Duloxetine + Milnacipran
177
MOA of Pregabalin?
Inhibits Pre-synaptic Alpha-2-delta subunit of L-type Calcium channels
178
What drug inhibits the excitatory transmission by Glutamate?
Pregabalin (Inhibits L-type calcium channel)
179
Elimination of Pregablin?
Renal + Unchanged
180
AE of Pregabalin?
```
Withdrawal= worsening symptoms
Dependence
Sedation
Depression/ suicidal
Blurred vision
Xerostomia
```
181
AE: Blurred vision + Xerostomia + Dependence?
Pregabalin
182
MOA of Amitriptyline?
Tricyclic antidepressant
183
MOA of fluoxetine?
SSRI
184
MOA of Carisoprodol?
CNS action in reticular activating system + spinal cord causing SEDATION + altered perception of pain
185
How does Carisoprodol have its muscle relaxing affects?
NO DIRECT EFFECT--> but by affecting CNS reticular system + spinal cord
186
What drug is associated with CYP2C19 metabolism?
Carisoprodol
187
What condition cause increasing toxicity of Carisoprodol?
Hepatic or Renal failure
188
AE of Carisoprodol?
```
Drowsiness/ Dizziness
Insomnia
Vertigo
Ataxia
Mydriasis
Temporary Vision loss
Orthostatic Hypotension
```
189
MOA of Cyclobenzaprine?
Related to TCA but action on BRAIN STEM
190
Elimination of Cyclobenzaprine?
Enterohepatic recirculation
| CYP 3A4 + 1A2 + 2D6
191
AE of Cyclobenzaprine?
Anticholinergic--> Drowsiness + xerostomia + Fatigue + N/V + blurred vision + Confusion
Increased QT
MOST significant: GI = PARALYTIC ILEUS = constipation
192
Drug causing Old people to fall and major constipation?
Cyclobenzaprine
193
MOA of Methocarbamol?
Generalized sedative actions causing Altered pain perception
194
What drug is Dealkylated and hydroxylated in Liver and has renal elimination?
Methocarbamol
195
AE of Methocarbamol?
CNS depression --> dizziness + lightheadedness + Blurred vision + Headache + Irritable
196
MOA of Tizanidine?
pre-synaptic Alpha 2 AGONIST--> decreases activation of motor neurons--> reduction in Muscle tone but NOT strength
197
What muscle relaxer can also be used as an Anti-hypertensive drug (related to Clonidine)?
Tizanidine
198
Tizanidine elimination?
Short t1/2 --> extensive Renal elimination
199
AE of Tizanidine?
```
HEPATOTOXIC
Rebound HTN + Tachycardia
CNS depression
Hypotension
Common: Asthenia + Xerostomia + dizziness + sedation
```
200
MOA for Baclofen?
GABA (B) agonist--> inhibitory signals or hyperpolarize to reduce excitatory signals
201
Causes pain relief from inhibition of substance P action?
baclofen
202
GABA b agonist?
Baclofen
203
Baclofen elimination and AE?
```
Renal
Encepalopathy
abdominal pain
seizures
respiratory depression
```
204
BBW: rebound neural activity--> Seizures + hallucinations + increased spasticity?
Balcofen
205
Common AE include: increase Blood Glucose + Drowsines + confusion + headache?
baclofen
206
MOA: directly interferes with Ryanidine receptors thus Ca++ release?
Dantrolene
207
Uncouples excitation- contraction process by inhibiting Ca++ release?
Dantrolene
208
Dantrolene effects what types of fibers?
Skeletal muscle
| NO effect on CARDIAC or SMOOTH muscle
209
Causes "floppy child syndrome" by crossing placenta during C-section use?
Dantrolene
210
AE of Dantrolene?
Drooling
Dysarthria
Myalgias
Backache
uncommon: Vfib or cardio collapse
Rheumatology
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