1
Q
- The use of the lights and siren on an ambulance:
A) gives you the legal right of way.
B) is a request for the right of way.
C) enables you to exceed the speed limit.
D) is statistically the safest mode of transport.
A
B
2
Q
- What entity is responsible for making recommendations regarding infection control practices that include all areas of personal protective equipment, sharps containers, and disinfecting equipment that is carried on an ambulance?
A) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention
B) United States Department of Transportation
C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
D) Occupational Safety and Health Administration
A
A
3
Q
- A third-service EMS system is one in which:
A) a public agency not affiliated with the fire department provides EMS service.
B) an EMS ambulance is housed in a fire department and is staffed by EMTs.
C) responders from a fire department assist the ambulance on every EMS call.
D) a privately owned ambulance service works in tandem with a public EMS system.
A
A
4
Q
- With respect to emergency driving, due regard means that:
A) an ambulance must never exceed the posted speed limit, even if it is responding to a call for a critical patient.
B) the emergency vehicle operator can legally exceed the posted speed limit by 20 miles per hour, but only if it is safe to do so.
C) an ambulance must use its lights and siren and remain at least 100 feet behind a vehicle that is failing to yield.
D) the use of lights and siren does not exempt you from operating the ambulance with concern for the safety of others.
A
D
5
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding the use of emergency escorts is correct?
A) Many drivers will only see the first emergency vehicle and assume that it is clear once that vehicle has passed.
B) If you are using an emergency escort, you should follow closely behind it to avoid a wake effect collision.
C) Use of a police escort is an acceptable practice, because it often facilitates a faster response time to the scene.
D) The use of emergency escorts is generally discouraged, unless you are traveling through a busy intersection.
A
A
6
Q
- When parking the ambulance off the side of the highway in dry weather:
A) the entire ambulance should be positioned off of the gravel.
B) the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire.
C) you should place safety cones at all four points of the vehicle.
D) it is generally considered safe to turn off your warning lights.
A
B
7
Q
23. Safe practices when parking your emergency vehicle on a roadway at night include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) using your emergency flashers. B) leaving the headlights on. C) wearing a reflective vest. D) turning off the strobe lights.
A
B
8
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding loading and securing a patient in the back of the ambulance is correct?
A) Whether the patient is lying on the stretcher or sitting on the bench seat, he or she must be properly seat-belted.
B) All patients transported in the back of the ambulance must be secured on the stretcher, even if they request otherwise.
C) It generally takes a minimum of three people to safely load an average-sized adult on the stretcher into the ambulance.
D) All patients should initially be loaded into the ambulance on the stretcher, but they can move to the bench seat once loaded.
A
A
9
Q
- The paramedic should NOT operate an emergency vehicle if he or she:
A) has worked more than 12 straight hours.
B) is a personal acquaintance of the patient.
C) is taking a cold remedy or an analgesic.
D) just finished an intense exercise regimen.
A
C
10
Q
- General principles for backing up an ambulance include:
A) using one spotter for each side of the ambulance.
B) keeping the window up to avoid any distractions.
C) not using audible warning devices so you can hear.
D) stopping the vehicle if you lose sight of your spotter.
A
D
11
Q
- When transporting a small child on the stretcher, you should:
A) place the child on a backboard, even in the absence of trauma.
B) use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible.
C) place the child on a parent’s lap and secure them both with straps.
D) secure the child as usual, using the adult straps on the stretcher.
A
B
12
Q
- The MOST important factor to consider when determining if transport of a trauma patient via helicopter is appropriate is:
A) the patient’s hemodynamic status.
B) delays in ground transport due to traffic.
C) the injury mechanism that was involved.
D) the need for definitive airway management.
A
A
13
Q
- When assisting with a helicopter landing at night, you should:
A) leave your headlights on to signify your location.
B) avoid shining a spotlight up at the descending aircraft.
C) place a single strobe light in the center of the landing zone.
D) refrain from parking the ambulance under overhead wires.
A
B
14
Q
- After a helicopter lands and continues to keep its rotor blades active, you should:
A) post a firefighter near the tail rotor to keep bystanders away.
B) approach the aircraft from the front and keep the pilot in view at all times.
C) slowly approach the left side of the aircraft while keeping your head down.
D) not approach the aircraft until the pilot or a crew member signals you to do so.
A
D
15
Q
37. The killing of pathogenic agents by directly applying a chemical made for that purpose is called: A) cleaning. B) disinfection. C) sterilization. D) high-level disinfection.
A
B
16
Q
- While responding to a call for a pediatric cardiac arrest, you approach a school bus with its red warning lights on. You should:
A) turn your emergency lights and siren off and carefully proceed past the bus at a slow speed.
B) use your PA system to advise the students to remain on the bus as you carefully pass it on the left.
C) carefully pass the bus on the right, if possible, so the children exiting the bus will be able to see you.
D) wait for the bus driver to turn off the red warning lights and close the door before carefully passing.
A
D
17
Q
- A single command system is one in which:
A) the incident commander assumes all functional roles.
B) one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond.
C) one person is in charge, unless multiple agencies respond.
D) one person from each responding agency assumes command.
A
B
18
Q
- A multiple-casualty incident is MOST accurately defined as an event in which:
A) mutual aid from other agencies is required to care for numerous patients.
B) there are at least 25 patients, more than half of whom are critically injured.
C) the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.
D) there are more patients who require advanced life support than patients who do not.
A
C
19
Q
3. Which of the following events would MOST likely cause an open, or uncontained, multiple-casualty incident? A) Tornado B) Bus wreck C) Small explosion D) Two-car collision
A
A
20
Q
- A closed, or contained, multiple-casualty incident is a situation that:
A) does not have the potential to grow in size or complexity.
B) involves no more than 10 patients who are critically injured.
C) does not require mutual aid assistance from other agencies.
D) is not expected to produce more patients than initially present.
A
D
21
Q
6. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the process in which individual units or different organizations make independent decisions about the next appropriate action. A) Freelancing B) Sole command C) Unified command D) Effort duplication
A
A
22
Q
- An individual’s span of control:
A) should be self-assigned and dependent on the incident size.
B) is the degree of responsibility assigned by a higher authority.
C) represents the number of personnel who report to him or her.
D) limits his or her autonomy to delegate tasks to another person.
A
C
23
Q
- Which of the following duties is NOT a responsibility of the incident commander?
A) Assessing the entire incident scene
B) Developing a plan to manage the incident
C) Establishing strategic objectives and priorities
D) Authorizing medical treatment interventions
A
D
24
Q
- During a small-scale incident, the incident commander:
A) will likely not respond to the scene.
B) may perform all the command functions.
C) primarily assumes the role of safety officer.
D) delegates all authority to the senior paramedic.
A
B
25
17. At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for:
A) locating food, shelter, and health care for you and the other responders present at the incident.
B) managing the tactical operations job usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls.
C) ensuring that there is ample lighting and functional communications equipment during the incident.
D) obtaining data regarding problems that may arise at the incident and revising the plan to solve the problem.
B
26
11. Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct?
A) A unified command system is difficult to establish before an incident and is activated when the resources of one agency are significantly overwhelmed.
B) In a unified command system, multiple agencies from multiple jurisdictions work together to develop a plan that involves shared responsibilities.
C) A unified command system functions optimally if one incident commander from each agency is identified before a multiple-casualty incident actually occurs.
D) The response plan developed by a unified command system should focus only on major events such as building collapses, plane crashes, and terrorist attacks.
B
27
14. The transfer of incident command should occur:
A) when the most experienced paramedic arrives.
B) over the radio so all involved personnel can hear.
C) at least every hour throughout the entire incident.
D) face to face, if possible, and in an orderly manner.
D
28
46. The FIRST step in the START triage system involves:
A) directing all the walking wounded to an easily identifiable landmark.
B) quickly removing the obviously dead victims to a predesignated area.
C) identifying the nonambulatory patients and assessing their breathing.
D) obtaining an estimate of the total number of critically injured victims.
A
29
47. According to the START triage system, a nonbreathing patient should be triaged as immediate if:
A) he or she is in need of immediate intubation.
B) the airway is completely blocked by swelling.
C) a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.
D) he or she does not respond to two rescue breaths.
C
30
48. According to the START triage system, if a patient has a strong radial pulse, you should:
A) place him or her in the delayed category.
B) control bleeding and assess mental status.
C) assess his or her ability to follow commands.
D) determine whether the pulse rate is slow or fast.
B
31
49. According to the JumpSTART triage system for pediatric patients, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands should be:
A) quickly moved to a designated area of the triage section and monitored closely.
B) taken to the treatment sector as soon as possible for immediate secondary triage.
C) labeled with a red tag and transported immediately to a pediatric trauma center.
D) assigned the same triage category as the walking wounded and evaluated later.
B
32
```
50. According to the JumpSTART triage system, if an infant or child is not breathing, you should:
A) deliver five rescue breaths.
B) manually open the patient's airway.
C) categorize the patient as expectant.
D) immediately assess for a pulse.
```
D
33
```
20. The ______________ has the authority and responsibility to stop an emergency operation if he or she believes a rescuer is in danger.
A) logistics chief
B) rescue officer
C) triage officer
D) safety officer
```
D
34
22. The National Incident Management System is designed to:
A) prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity.
B) provide a consistent template to enable state, federal, and local governments to respond safely to any act of terrorism.
C) educate state, federal, and local governments, as well as private-sector organizations, to effectively prevent a domestic incident.
D) maximize the capabilities of each state in the United States to manage a large-scale disaster effectively, regardless of the cause.
A
35
25. Preparedness in a given area should involve decisions and planning about:
A) major disasters, such as tornadoes and earthquakes.
B) the most likely disasters for the area, among other disasters.
C) international terrorist attacks and catastrophic natural disasters.
D) the most common disasters encountered throughout the world.
B
36
28. After ensuring your own safety, you should consider the safety of, in order:
A) your partner, the patient, other rescuers, and any bystanders.
B) the patient, other rescuers, any bystanders, and your partner.
C) your partner, other rescuers, the patient, and any bystanders.
D) the patient, your partner, any bystanders, and other rescuers.
C
37
34. The primary function of the treatment section is to:
A) expediently move patients to the transportation area.
B) rapidly assess each patient to determine injury severity.
C) separate and treat patients based on their triage category.
D) treat each patient in the order in which he or she presents.
C
38
```
35. Communicating with area hospitals to determine their capabilities and resources is a responsibility of the:
A) treatment officer.
B) individual paramedic.
C) chief medical officer.
D) transportation officer.
```
D
39
36. The staging supervisor is responsible for:
A) tracking the number of vehicles transporting patients.
B) supervising all responders who are providing treatment.
C) requesting additional medical supplies as they are needed.
D) coordinating with all incoming and outgoing ambulances.
D
40
42. In contrast to primary triage, secondary triage:
A) requires a more rapid assessment.
B) is performed in the treatment area.
C) is typically performed by a physician.
D) involves initial placement of triage tags.
B
41
```
21. If an incident is such that it warrants evacuation of people, the incident commander would MOST likely request that the _______________ disseminate that information as well as evacuation directions.
A) safety officer
B) liaison officer
C) operations chief
D) public information officer
```
D
42
54. You are caring for a patient with non-life-threatening injuries in the treatment section of a multiple-casualty incident when you are approached by several TV reporters who are seeking details regarding the incident. You should:
A) provide a brief overview of the current situation.
B) direct the reporters to the public information officer.
C) firmly tell the reporters to leave the scene immediately.
D) ignore the reporters' questions and continue patient care.
B
43
2. Which of the following situations does NOT depict a technical rescue?
A) Disentangling a young woman from her badly damaged vehicle
B) Moving a 180-pound man from his living room to the ambulance
C) Gaining access to an unresponsive man who is trapped in a grain silo
D) Retrieving a woman whose car was swept off the road by swift water
B
44
```
3. Recognizing hazards, securing the scene, and calling for appropriate assistance are characteristic of the ______________ level of technical rescue.
A) command
B) operations
C) awareness
D) technician
```
C
45
6. If you believe that your assigned task at a rescue incident may be unsafe, it would be MOST appropriate for you to:
A) assign yourself a task that poses less of a safety threat.
B) proceed with the task while exercising extreme caution.
C) reorganize the rescue effort as dictated by the situation.
D) bring your concern to the attention of the safety officer.
D
46
```
3. Recognizing hazards, securing the scene, and calling for appropriate assistance are characteristic of the ______________ level of technical rescue.
A) command
B) operations
C) awareness
D) technician
```
C
47
14. Which of the following statements regarding the hot zone at a rescue scene is correct?
A) The hot zone should be specifically designated for decontamination of rescue personnel and equipment.
B) The hot zone should be a large perimeter around the entire scene and should be cordoned off with yellow tape.
C) The hot zone immediately surrounds the dangers of the rescue site and is only accessible by entry and rescue teams.
D) The hot zone is designated for the staging of vehicles and equipment and is also where the command post is located.
C
48
15. After the warm zone has been established:
A) law enforcement officials should identify it with red tape.
B) it should be demarcated with orange police or fire line tape.
C) only entry and rescue teams are allowed to function within it.
D) a rescuer should be posted there to prevent unauthorized entry.
B
49
18. The only time a patient should be moved prior to completion of initial care, assessment, stabilization, and treatment is when:
A) more than one noncritical patient is involved.
B) the patient is in severe pain and is extremely anxious.
C) the patient's or responder's life is in immediate danger.
D) your primary assessment reveals no life-threatening injuries.
C
50
```
25. A handheld global positioning system is MOST useful in _____________ rescue incidents.
A) nighttime
B) wilderness
C) water-related
D) confined space
```
B
51
```
27. The single MOST important process to ensure ongoing rescuer safety at a technical rescue incident is:
A) the accountability system.
B) assignment of a safety officer.
C) mandated use of reflective vests.
D) the presence of law enforcement.
```
A
52
```
30. In a four-door vehicle, the B posts are located:
A) behind both of the rear doors.
B) closest to the front of the vehicle.
C) behind the rear passenger windows.
D) between the front and rear doors.
```
D
53
34. If you must break a window to gain access to a patient trapped in his or her vehicle, you should:
A) break the safety glass of a side window with a center punch.
B) ensure that the patient and all rescuers are protected properly.
C) break the windshield and approach the patient from the front.
D) try to lower the window as far as possible before breaking it.
B
54
44. When removing a vehicle's roof, you must FIRST:
A) cut the vehicle posts farthest away from the patient.
B) remove all glass to prevent it from falling on the patient.
C) break the safety glass of the window closest to the patient.
D) remove at least one door so patient assessment can begin.
B
55
```
47. _______________ binds to red blood cells and prevents them from transporting oxygen to all parts of the body.
A) Cyanide
B) Ammonium nitrate
C) Carbon monoxide
D) Nitrogen dioxide
```
C
56
```
45. Unique dangers associated with confined spaces include:
A) limited ventilation.
B) carbon dioxide deficiency.
C) sharp metal structures.
D) hyperoxic injury.
```
A
57
49. On any call involving a confined space rescue, you should:
A) consider that carbon dioxide levels may be insufficient to support life.
B) assume that the environment is immediately dangerous to life and health.
C) protect yourself with a face mask prior to attempting to rescue the patient.
D) recall that methane gas may be present and may deaden your sense of smell.
B
58
51. Trench rescues are MOST often required when:
A
59
```
52. Which of the following factors would be the LEAST likely to cause a secondary collapse during a trench rescue incident?
A) Vibration of rescue equipment
B) Standing at the edge of a trench
C) Excessive environmental heat
D) Water eroding the soil
```
C
60
53. Which of the following statements regarding an EMS provider's role during a trench rescue is correct?
A) It is crucial for the EMS provider to be in the trench to provide emergency care during the rescue attempt.
B) Trench rescue is a part of a paramedic's training, so he or she is properly trained to enter a trench safely.
C) Due to a lack of proper training, EMS providers should remain at least 50 yards away from the trench at all times.
D) EMS providers should attempt to make contact with the patient, but should not enter the trench and attempt rescue.
D
61
```
62. In rescues that involve lengthy entrapment in a confined space, especially with cave-ins and trench rescues, the paramedic should be especially concerned about the potential for:
A) severe alkalosis.
B) femur fractures.
C) spinal cord injury.
D) crush syndrome.
```
D
62
1. If you are trained in hazardous materials at the awareness level, you should be able to:
A) recognize potential hazards and the need for additional resources.
B) perform patient care activities in the command and support center.
C) coordinate activities at the scene of a hazardous materials incident.
D) care for patients who may present a risk of secondary contamination.
A
63
35. It is MOST important to park your ambulance upwind and uphill from a hazardous materials incident scene because:
A) if the chemical ignites and explodes, the fallout from the blast will most likely sink into valleys and ditches instead of rising.
B) the risk of being contaminated is minimal if the chemical travels, and you will have greater visibility of the entire incident scene.
C) hazardous chemicals that turn to gas rarely have a vapor density that is heavier than the air, regardless of the amount of chemical.
D) the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind.
D
64
4. After ensuring your own safety, which of the following is your next priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?
A) Identify the hazardous material involved.
B) Immediately move patients to a safe place.
C) Evacuate residents within a 3-mile radius.
D) Begin decontaminating all involved patients.
A
65
12. Where would you MOST likely find a material safety data sheet that provides information about a hazardous material?
A) At a tanker truck's destination location
B) At a permanent manufacturing or storage facility
C) Affixed to the roof of a commercial tanker truck
D) In a steel box in the conductor's cabin of a train
B
66
20. Which of the following statements regarding the warm zone at a hazardous materials incident is correct?
A) Patients who are brought to the warm zone by trained rescuers should already have been decontaminated.
B) A standard-size warm zone is generally 50 feet in all directions, but may be smaller depending on the incident.
C) The warm zone is also known as the contamination zone and is only accessible by properly trained rescuers.
D) It may be necessary to perform urgent lifesaving care in the warm zone before a patient is fully decontaminated.
D
67
46. A commercial truck was involved in a wreck and is spilling anhydrous ammonia on the roadway. The incident commander has already established the hot, warm, and cold zones as dictated by the chemical involved. As one of the paramedics at the scene, you should anticipate that your role will MOST likely involve:
A) performing triage and treatment in the cold zone.
B) assisting with decontamination in the warm zone.
C) removing only critical patients from the hot zone.
D) evacuating residents who live near the incident.
A
68
22. Level A personal protective equipment:
A) is designed to protect the rescuer against a known agent and is worn with an air-purifying respirator.
B) fully encapsulates the hazardous materials technician, including his or her self-contained breathing apparatus.
C) is required when a technician needs protection from splashes and inhaled toxins but does not need to be fully encapsulated.
D) provides the same degree of protection as a fire fighter's turnout gear, and is typically worn in the cold zone.
B
69
```
24. Level ___ personal protective equipment would MOST likely be worn during transport of patients with the potential of secondary contamination.
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
```
C
70
```
26. The direct exposure of a patient to a hazardous material is called:
A) acute infection.
B) chemical transference.
C) systemic intoxication.
D) primary contamination.
```
D
71
38. Decontaminating a patient with copious amounts of water:
A) should not include the eyes, as this often causes further injury.
B) should involve the use of a brush to maximize decontamination.
C) decreases the dose effect of the hazardous material on the patient.
D) is generally discouraged, as this may cause runoff of the material.
C
72
42. Prior to accepting a patient who has been decontaminated by the hazardous materials team, the paramedic must:
A) make contact with the receiving medical facility.
B) be informed about the degree of decontamination.
C) receive a verbal report about the material involved.
D) don the appropriate personal protective equipment.
D
73
```
All of the following are examples of domestic terrorism, EXCEPT the:
A) Oklahoma City bombing.
B) Centennial Park bombing.
C) World Trade Center attack.
D) Atlanta abortion clinic attacks.
```
C
74
Biologic agents are:
A) synthetically manufactured and weaponized by mixing the synthetic component with an organism.
B) least preferred by terrorists because they are difficult to disseminate over a large population.
C) the ideal weapons of mass destruction if the terrorist's objective is to affect a small geographic area.
D) naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.
D
75
```
The terrorism carried out by groups that have close ties with a national government is referred to as:
A) international terrorism.
B) state-sponsored terrorism.
C) foreign-funded terrorism.
D) intercontinental terrorism.
```
B
76
Upon arriving at a scene involving a weapon of mass destruction, you should:
A) stage upwind and uphill from the incident.
B) move any bystanders away from the scene.
C) don gloves, a mask, and a protective gown.
D) begin functioning as the incident commander.
A
77
When triaging patients at the scene of an explosion, you should be especially aware of the fact that:
A) the terrorist may still be present at the scene.
B) a secondary explosive device may be present.
C) wind direction and speed may change quickly.
D) many explosions involve radioactive material.
B
78
In contrast to volatile chemical agents, nonvolatile chemical agents:
A) evaporate fast when left on a surface in the optimal temperature range.
B) include sarin and will turn from liquid to gas within seconds to minutes.
C) include all nerve gases and remain in the environment for weeks to months.
D) can remain on surfaces for long periods of time, usually longer than 24 hours.
D
79
```
All of the following chemicals are vesicant agents, EXCEPT:
A) chlorine.
B) lewisite.
C) phosgene oxime.
D) sulfur mustard.
```
A
80
Vesicant agents inflict injury by causing:
A) central nervous system depression and respiratory failure.
B) parasympathetic nervous system stimulation and bradycardia.
C) burn-like blisters to form on the skin and in the respiratory tract.
D) destruction of the platelets, resulting in spontaneous hemorrhage.
C
81
Which of the following statements regarding vesicant agent treatment is correct?
A) British anti-lewisite is carried by civilian EMS units.
B) Aggressive airway support must occur prior to decontamination.
C) No antidotes exist for sulfur mustard or phosgene oxime exposure.
D) IV access should be deferred until the patient is at a burn center.
C
82
```
Initial exposure to __________ produces upper airway irritation and a choking sensation.
A) soman
B) chlorine
C) phosgene
D) phosgene oxime
```
B
83
```
Nerve agents block _______________, an essential enzyme of the nervous system.
A) epinephrine
B) acetylcholine
C) norepinephrine
D) cholinesterase
```
D
84
```
The symptoms and medical management of patients poisoned by _____________ are identical to those of the nerve agents.
A) cyanogen chloride
B) organophosphate insecticides
C) pulmonary or choking agents
D) phosgene oxime and lewisite
```
B
85
```
Smallpox is in its MOST contagious phase when:
A) a rash develops.
B) blisters begin to form.
C) the patient becomes febrile.
D) a headache and body aches develop.
```
B
86
In contrast to the lesions associated with other skin disorders, the lesions associated with smallpox:
A) are identical in size and shape.
B) remain isolated to the facial area.
C) originate on the lower extremities.
D) are in various stages of development.
A
87
Infection with the Ebola virus is characterized by:
A) a progressive onset of high fever.
B) internal and external hemorrhage.
C) the formation of cutaneous blisters.
D) paralysis of the respiratory muscles.
B
88
Anthrax is a bacterium that:
A) lies dormant in a spore and is released when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture.
B) is generally not responsive to antibiotic therapy, even if the therapy is begun immediately.
C) is highly communicable and would most likely be disseminated by a terrorist via a liquid medium.
D) results in death more than 90% of the time, regardless of how the bacterium enters a person's body.
A
89
```
Although __________ anthrax is the most deadly, __________ anthrax is the only form that is communicable.
A) cutaneous, inhalation
B) gastrointestinal, pulmonary
C) cutaneous, gastrointestinal
D) pulmonary, cutaneous
```
D
90
```
You are dispatched to a residence for a 50-year-old woman with respiratory distress. While you are assessing the patient, she tells you that she began experiencing flulike symptoms 4 days ago, shortly after delivering mail on the rural mail route for which she is responsible. Due to her illness, she has been unable to return to work. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, pulse rate is 120 beats/min, and respirations are 26 breaths/min and labored. Auscultation of her breath sounds reveals the presence of coarse crackles. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to:
A) anthrax.
B) smallpox.
C) a neurotoxin.
D) botulinum toxin.
```
A
91
Ricin is a neurotoxin that is derived from:
A) a synthesized virus or bacterium.
B) mash that is left from the castor bean.
C) the leaves of the purple foxglove plant.
D) the seeds from a wide variety of fruits.
B
92
Which of the following statements regarding ricin is correct?
A) Ricin is five times more lethal than botulinum.
B) Ricin is highly communicable only if it is inhaled.
C) Calcium chloride is the preferred antidote for ricin.
D) Ricin is extremely toxic by many routes of exposure.
D
93
Whether ingested or inhaled, ricin poisoning causes:
A) fever, chills, and a headache.
B) a productive cough and diaphoresis.
C) convulsions, cyanosis, and hemorrhage.
D) chest pain, muscle aches, and pulmonary edema.
A
94
In contrast to alpha radiation, beta radiation:
A) is easily stopped by a piece of paper.
B) travels slowly and is less penetrating.
C) can easily penetrate the human body.
D) requires a layer of clothing to stop it.
D
95
Which of the following statements regarding a radiologic dispersal device (RDD) is correct?
A) The destructive ability of an RDD, also known as a dirty bomb, is significant because it contains a chemical agent.
B) An RDD is any container designed to disperse radioactive material and requires the use of an explosive device.
C) An RDD is an effective weapon of mass destruction because damage is enhanced by the radioactive material contained within it.
D) Once radioactive material is placed into the RDD, it would injure or kill 10 times as many people as the explosive alone.
B
96
1. The “all-hazards” approach to disaster planning involves:
A) table-top exercises that focus on worst case scenarios.
B) communicating with federal officials regarding terrorist activity.
C) protecting critical infrastructure from large-scale disasters.
D) conducting comprehensive preplanning for all types of disasters.
D
97
```
13. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration after an event?
A) All ambulances are restocked.
B) A CISD team is established.
C) All personnel are accounted for.
D) Agencies are properly reimbursed.
```
C
98
```
24. The MOST significant immediate danger resulting from an earthquake is:
A) power failure.
B) natural gas leaks.
C) structural collapse.
D) building explosions.
```
C
99
* 39. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration during a pandemic?
* A) Vaccination of the public
* B) Personal protective equipment
* C) Notification of the CDC
* D) Disease progression surveillance
B
100
* 41. During a pandemic, your agency has been called upon to be a point of distribution. This means that you will:
* A) house temporary supplies and provide inoculations and medications.
* B) function as the initial collection point for potentially infected people.
* C) make the determination regarding which hospitals patients are taken to.
* D) monitor patients for signs of disease for a period of up to 24 to 36 hours.
A
101
* 42. The number one killer of fire fighters at the scene of a fire is/are:
* A) heatstroke.
* B) thermal burns.
* C) inhalation injury.
* D) cardiac events.
D
102
50. You and your partner respond to an explosion at the courthouse in which there are multiple victims. At this scene, it is MOST important for you to:
A) quickly establish an initial triage section and begin receiving patients.
B) anticipate that a secondary explosive device may be on the premises.
C) immediately report to the incident commander for further instructions.
D) avoid unnecessarily moving objects in order to preserve any evidence.
B
103
* 9. During a disaster, logging of all patients and the hospitals to which they were transported is primarily the responsibility of the:
* A) triage supervisor.
* B) incident commander.
* C) treatment supervisor.
* D) transportation supervisor.
D
104
11. Your EMS system's standard procedure for responding to any call involving violence should be to:
A) allow law enforcement to secure the scene prior to your entry.
B) remain at your station until the scene has been deemed secure.
C) have your partner stay in the ambulance as you assess the scene.
D) respond with two ambulances in case there are multiple patients.
A
105
* 16. Which of the following statements regarding clandestine drug labs is correct?
* A) Cocaine and heroin are the two most popular substances manufactured in clandestine drug labs.
* B) If you unknowingly enter a clandestine drug lab, your priority is to quickly remove any patients.
* C) Common chemicals found in a clandestine drug lab include distilled water, ibuprofen, and diphenhydramine.
* D) Some drug producers use fragmentation and incendiary devices and animal traps to protect their operations.
D
106
```
17. It is MOST important to consider a clandestine drug lab to be a(n):
A) crime scene.
B) illegal operation.
C) hazardous materials scene.
D) unsafe environment for children.
```
C
107
1. Your EMS system's standard procedure for responding to any call involving violence should be to:
• A) allow law enforcement to secure the scene prior to your entry.
• B) remain at your station until the scene has been deemed secure.
• C) have your partner stay in the ambulance as you assess the scene.
D) respond with two ambulances in case there are multiple patients.
A
108
```
18. Youths usually join a gang for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A) respect.
B) belonging.
C) recognition.
D) a psychiatric illness.
```
D
Paramedic
flashcards
Decks in class (15)
# Cards
