Physiological Adaptation Flashcards

47 Flashcards (47 cards)

1
Q

What are the classic signs of a myocardial infarction?

A

Crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm, jaw, or back. Diaphoresis, nausea, dyspnea, and anxiety. Women may present atypically with fatigue, indigestion, and back pain.

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2
Q

What is the immediate nursing management for suspected MI?

A

MONA: Morphine if pain is unrelieved, Oxygen if SpO2 is below 94 percent, Nitroglycerin sublingual, and Aspirin chewed 325 mg. Obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes of arrival.

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3
Q

What are the signs of left-sided heart failure?

A

Pulmonary symptoms including dyspnea, orthopnea, crackles in the lungs, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pink frothy sputum, cough, and fatigue. Remember Left equals Lung.

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4
Q

What are the signs of right-sided heart failure?

A

Systemic venous congestion including bilateral peripheral edema, jugular vein distension, hepatomegaly, ascites, and weight gain. Remember Right equals the Rest of the body.

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5
Q

What is the most reliable daily assessment for heart failure?

A

Daily weight at the same time, same scale, and same clothing. A gain of 2 to 3 pounds overnight indicates fluid retention and requires intervention.

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6
Q

What is the nurse’s priority for a patient with pulmonary edema?

A

Position upright in high Fowler’s, administer high-flow oxygen, administer the prescribed IV diuretic such as furosemide, monitor respiratory status closely, and prepare for possible intubation if the patient continues to deteriorate.

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7
Q

What are the signs of a stroke using the FAST acronym?

A

Face drooping, Arm weakness, Speech difficulty, and Time to call 911. Additional signs include sudden confusion, vision changes, severe headache, and dizziness.

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8
Q

What is the treatment window for tPA in ischemic stroke?

A

Within 3 to 4.5 hours of symptom onset. Strict inclusion and exclusion criteria must be met. Monitor closely for bleeding which is the most dangerous complication. Avoid anticoagulants for 24 hours after tPA administration.

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9
Q

What is Cushing’s triad?

A

Hypertension with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia, and irregular respirations. This is a late sign of increased intracranial pressure and indicates brainstem herniation which is a medical emergency.

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10
Q

What is the priority nursing assessment for a patient with DKA?

A

Potassium level is the priority because even if initially normal or elevated potassium will drop rapidly with insulin and fluid treatment. Cardiac monitoring is essential. Also monitor glucose, pH, and fluid status.

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11
Q

What is the difference between DKA and HHS?

A

DKA occurs primarily in Type 1 diabetes with ketosis, pH below 7.30, Kussmaul respirations, and fruity breath. HHS occurs primarily in Type 2 with severe hyperglycemia often above 600, profound dehydration, NO significant ketosis, and higher mortality.

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12
Q

What are the signs of thyroid storm?

A

Extreme hyperthyroidism presenting with very high fever above 104 degrees Fahrenheit, tachycardia, agitation, delirium, hypertension followed by cardiovascular collapse. Treatment includes beta-blockers, antithyroid medications, and cooling measures.

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13
Q

What is myxedema coma?

A

Severe hypothyroidism presenting with hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension, altered consciousness, and respiratory depression. Treatment includes IV thyroid hormone, gradual warming, and supportive care. This is a medical emergency.

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14
Q

What is Addisonian crisis?

A

Acute adrenal insufficiency causing severe hypotension, dehydration, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypoglycemia, and shock. Treatment is IV hydrocortisone and aggressive fluid resuscitation. It can be triggered by stress, infection, or abrupt steroid withdrawal.

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15
Q

What is the nurse’s priority for a patient with ARDS?

A

Maintain oxygenation by anticipating mechanical ventilation with PEEP and low tidal volumes. Implement prone positioning. Monitor ABGs closely. Treat the underlying cause such as sepsis, pneumonia, or aspiration.

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16
Q

What are the hallmark findings of ARDS?

A

Bilateral white-out infiltrates on chest X-ray, refractory hypoxemia that does not improve with supplemental oxygen, PaO2 to FiO2 ratio below 300, and non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.

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17
Q

What should the nurse do if a chest tube is accidentally dislodged?

A

Cover the insertion site immediately with petroleum jelly gauze taped on three sides. The open side allows trapped air to escape while preventing air from entering the chest. Notify the provider immediately.

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18
Q

What is a tension pneumothorax?

A

Air trapped in the pleural space under pressure compressing the heart and great vessels. Signs include tracheal deviation AWAY from the affected side, JVD, hypotension, and absent breath sounds on the affected side. Emergency needle decompression is needed.

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19
Q

What is the nursing management for sickle cell crisis?

A

Aggressive hydration with IV fluids, pain management with opioids and do not undertreat the pain, oxygen therapy, blood transfusion if severe, and monitoring for complications including acute chest syndrome, stroke, and organ damage.

20
Q

What are the signs of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease?

A

Chest pain, fever, cough, hypoxemia, and a new pulmonary infiltrate on chest X-ray. This is a medical emergency that can progress rapidly to respiratory failure and requires immediate intervention.

21
Q

What is the difference between hypovolemic and distributive shock?

A

Hypovolemic shock involves decreased volume from bleeding or dehydration with cold and clammy skin. Distributive shock involves vasodilation from sepsis or anaphylaxis with initially warm and flushed skin that progresses to cold and clammy.

22
Q

What are the early signs of sepsis?

A

Temperature above 38.3 degrees Celsius or below 36 degrees, heart rate above 90, respiratory rate above 20, altered mental status, and WBC above 12000 or below 4000. Late signs include hypotension and organ dysfunction.

23
Q

What is the sepsis 1-hour bundle?

A

Measure serum lactate, obtain blood cultures before antibiotics, administer broad-spectrum antibiotics within 1 hour, begin 30 mL per kg IV crystalloid for hypotension or elevated lactate, and reassess volume status and tissue perfusion.

24
Q

What is the Parkland formula for burn fluid resuscitation?

A

4 mL multiplied by body weight in kg multiplied by percent total body surface area burned equals total fluid for the first 24 hours. Give half in the first 8 hours and the remaining half over the next 16 hours. Use Lactated Ringer’s solution.

25
What is the Rule of Nines for estimating burn surface area in adults?
Head is 9 percent, each arm is 9 percent, anterior trunk is 18 percent, posterior trunk is 18 percent, each leg is 18 percent, and the perineum is 1 percent for a total of 100 percent.
26
What is the nursing management for burns in the emergent phase?
Airway management especially for facial and inhalation burns, IV fluid resuscitation using the Parkland formula, pain management, wound care, tetanus prophylaxis, and monitoring urine output with a minimum goal of 0.5 mL per kg per hour.
27
What is the most common complication of immobility?
Venous thromboembolism including DVT and PE. Prevention includes early ambulation, sequential compression devices, anticoagulant prophylaxis, adequate hydration, and regular leg exercises.
28
What is the priority for status epilepticus?
Maintain the airway, administer IV benzodiazepines with lorazepam as first-line, protect the patient from injury, monitor respiratory status closely, and prepare for possible intubation. Seizures lasting more than 5 minutes constitute a medical emergency.
29
What are the signs of peritonitis?
Severe abdominal pain, rigid board-like abdomen, rebound tenderness, absent bowel sounds, fever, tachycardia, and nausea or vomiting. This is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
30
What is the nurse's action for an air embolism from a central line?
Clamp the line immediately. Position the patient in left lateral Trendelenburg so air rises to the right atrium away from the pulmonary vasculature. Administer oxygen and call for emergency assistance.
31
What is the priority nursing intervention for a GI bleed?
Insert two large-bore IV lines, begin fluid resuscitation, send blood for type and crossmatch for possible transfusion, monitor hemoglobin and hematocrit, maintain strict intake and output, test stool for occult blood, and monitor for signs of hypovolemic shock.
32
What is the most sensitive indicator of neurological change?
Level of consciousness. A decrease in LOC such as new confusion, lethargy, or decreased responsiveness occurs before changes in vital signs or pupil reactivity.
33
What are the signs of DIC?
Simultaneous clotting AND bleeding throughout the body. Lab findings include elevated D-dimer and fibrin degradation products, decreased fibrinogen and platelets, and prolonged PT and aPTT.
34
What is the priority for hypovolemic shock?
IV fluid resuscitation with crystalloids, identify and control the source of volume loss, administer vasopressors if fluids alone are insufficient, monitor urine output as a marker of organ perfusion, and prepare for possible blood transfusion.
35
What are the signs of cardiogenic shock?
Hypotension, tachycardia, cold and clammy skin, pulmonary edema with crackles, decreased urine output, and altered level of consciousness. The heart is failing as a pump.
36
What is the priority for cardiogenic shock?
Optimize cardiac output by administering vasopressors and inotropes as ordered. Monitor hemodynamics including central venous pressure and cardiac output. Maintain oxygenation and monitor urine output. Prepare for possible mechanical circulatory support such as an intra-aortic balloon pump.
37
What are the signs of pulmonary embolism?
Sudden onset dyspnea, sharp pleuritic chest pain, tachycardia, tachypnea, anxiety, hypotension, and possible hemoptysis. ABG may show respiratory alkalosis initially. D-dimer is typically elevated.
38
What is the priority treatment for pulmonary embolism?
Anticoagulation with IV heparin, supplemental oxygen, and hemodynamic monitoring. For a massive PE with hemodynamic instability the treatment includes thrombolytics such as tPA or surgical embolectomy.
39
What is fat embolism and when does it occur?
Fat globules enter the bloodstream usually 24 to 72 hours after a long bone fracture. The classic triad is hypoxemia, altered mental status, and a petechial rash on the chest, axillae, and neck. Treatment is supportive with high-flow oxygen.
40
What are the signs of acute kidney injury?
Oliguria or decreased urine output, elevated BUN and creatinine, hyperkalemia, fluid overload with edema, metabolic acidosis, and elevated phosphorus. Potassium monitoring is critical because hyperkalemia can cause fatal arrhythmias.
41
What are the stages of chronic kidney disease based on GFR?
Stage 1 has GFR above 90 which is normal with kidney damage. Stage 2 has GFR 60 to 89 which is mild. Stage 3 has GFR 30 to 59 which is moderate. Stage 4 has GFR 15 to 29 which is severe. Stage 5 has GFR below 15 which is end-stage requiring dialysis.
42
What is the nursing priority for meningitis assessment?
Assess for nuchal rigidity or stiff neck, positive Kernig's sign which is pain with leg extension when the hip is flexed, positive Brudzinski's sign which is involuntary hip flexion when the neck is flexed, fever, severe headache, photophobia, and altered level of consciousness.
43
What is the difference between myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis?
Myasthenic crisis results from too little acetylcholine due to undertreatment causing severe weakness and respiratory failure. Cholinergic crisis results from too much acetylcholine due to overtreatment with the same weakness PLUS excessive secretions, bradycardia, and miosis or pinpoint pupils.
44
What is the nurse's priority for a patient with acute pancreatitis?
Pain management using positioning in the fetal or leaning forward position along with opioids. Maintain NPO status with NG suction if needed. Administer aggressive IV fluid resuscitation. Monitor calcium and glucose levels closely and assess for complications.
45
What are the signs of acute liver failure?
Jaundice, coagulopathy with easy bleeding, hepatic encephalopathy progressing from confusion to coma, ascites, asterixis or liver flap, elevated ammonia levels, and hepatorenal syndrome.
46
What is anaphylaxis and what is the priority treatment?
A severe life-threatening allergic reaction causing airway swelling, bronchospasm, hypotension, and urticaria. The priority is IM epinephrine in the lateral thigh. Then maintain the airway, administer oxygen, IV fluids for hypotension, and antihistamines and corticosteroids as adjuncts.
47
What is the nurse's priority for a patient with a massive pulmonary embolism who is in cardiac arrest?
Initiate CPR immediately, administer epinephrine per ACLS protocol, anticipate thrombolytic therapy even during CPR, and prepare for possible surgical embolectomy. Massive PE is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest.