1
Q
- Hormones:
a) are chemical regulators that are conveyed from one organ to another
via the blood stream;
b) may be secreted by endocrine glands;
c) may be secreted by nerve cells;
d) act only on target cells;
e) all of the above.
A
e) all of the above.
2
Q
- For an action potential to occur:
a) the stimulus must reach or exceed threshold;
b) K+
influx must exceed Na+
efflux;
c) the cell membrane must be out of the relative refractory period;
d) the cell membrane must be in the absolutely refractory period;
e) Clinflux must exceed K+
efflux.
A
a) the stimulus must reach or exceed threshold;
3
Q
- The concept of homeostasis:
a) refers to the unwavering control of a physiological set point;
b) refers to maintaining physiological functions in a stable
state;
c) refers only to the regulation of body temperature;
d) refers to maintaining a stable external environment;
e) refers to the ‘all-or-none’ law.
A
b) refers to maintaining physiological functions in a stable
state;
4
Q
- During the rising phase of the action potential:
a) voltage-gated Na+ channels open;
b) voltage-gated K+ channels open;
c) voltage-gated Na+ channels close;
d) voltage-gated K+ channels close;
e) voltage-gated Clchannels open.
A
a) voltage-gated Na+
channels open;
5
Q
- The plasma membrane:
a) is permeable to lipophilic molecules;
b) may contain proteins, which confer iron permeability;
c) may burst in hypotonic extracellular solutions;
d) can generate action potentials in excitable cells;
e) all of the above.
A
e) all of the above.
5
Q
- Overcooling the nerve will cause:
a) decrease of the threshold;
b) increase of the liability;
c) increase of the excitability;
d) increase of the threshold;
e) increased release of neurotransmitters.
A
d) increase of the threshold;
6
Q
- The properties of local response:
a) ‘all-or-none’ law;
b) transmission with energy consumption;
c) transmission without energy consumption;
d) summation;
e) excitability is decreased.
A
d) summation;
7
Q
- A less negative membrane potential means:
a) it is “more positive” than the resting potential;
b) it is closer to 0 mV;
c) the resting membrane potential is closer to the sodium equilibrium;
d) slight depolarisation;
e) all of the above.
A
e) all of the above.
8
Q
- The membrane of a typical resting neurone is largely impermeable to:
a) Na+
b) K+
c) Cl-
d) Ca 2+;
e) none of the above.
A
a) Na+
9
Q
- The ion with the lowest intracellular concentration is:
a) Na+
b) HCO3
c) Ca2+;
d) Mg2+;
e) K+
A
c) Ca2+;
10
Q
- The most common intracellular cation is:
a) calcium;
b) sodium;
c) potassium;
d) phosphorus;
e) magnesium.
A
c) potassium;
11
Q
- What is the normal pH value of the body fluids?
a) 7.15-7.25;
b) 7.35-7.45;
c) 7.55- 7.65;
d) 7.00-7.35;
e) 6.5-7.5.
A
b) 7.35-7.45;
12
Q
- Which of the following requires energy?
a) diffusion;
b) osmosis;
c) active transport;
d) facilitated diffusion;
e) filtration.
A
c) active transport;
13
Q
- The local response is:
a) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a sub-
threshold stimulus and propagated along the nerve cell membrane;
b) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a super- threshold stimulus and propagated along the nerve cell membrane;
c) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a sub-
threshold stimulus and could be registered only at the site of irritation;
d) d) a potential that is generated on the postsynaptic membrane as a
result of the action of a neurotransmitter;
e) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a super-
threshold stimulus and could be registered only at the site of irritation.
A
c) a potential that is generated as a result of the action of a sub threshold stimulus and could be registered only at the site of irritation;
13
Q
- Which of the following is not found in the cell membrane?
a) cholesterol;
b) phospholipids;
c) proteins;
d) galactose;
e) nucleic acids.
A
d) galactose;
14
Q
- The oculocardiac reflex is an example of:
a) somato-somatic reflex;
b) somato-visceral reflex;
c) viscero-somatic reflex;
d) viscero-visceral reflex;
e) integrated conditioned reflex.
A
b) somato-visceral reflex;
15
Q
- Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter with the highest affinity to:
a) -adrenergic receptors;
b) -adrenergic receptors;
c) - and -adrenergic receptors;
d) N-cholinergic receptors;
e) M-cholinergic receptors.
A
a) -adrenergic receptors;
16
Q
- The parasympathetic postganglionic neurons of the ANS secrete:
a) norepinephrine (98%) and epinephrine(2%);
b) acetylcholine;
c) L-DOPA;
d) norepinephrine (2%) and epinephrine (98%);
e) epinephrine (80%) and norepinephrine (20%).
A
b) acetylcholine;
17
Q
- The critical (firing) level of depolarisation is:
a) a level of AP at which depolarisation goes into repolarization;
b) a level of AP at which repolarisation goes into depolarization;
c) a degree of depolarisation of the postsynaptic membrane, at which
further action of the neurotransmitter is abolished;
d) a degree of depolarisation of the nerve cell membrane at which its
sources of energy are completely exhausted;
e) a degree of depolarisation of the excitable membrane at which its intensity does not depend on irritant action.
A
e) a degree of depolarisation of the excitable membrane at which its intensity does not depend on irritant action.
18
Q
- A structure that permits an excitable cell to pass an electrical or
chemical signal to another cell (neural or otherwise) with excitatory or
inhibitory effects, is called:
a) synapse;
b) juxtaglomerular apparatus;
c) intercalated disc;
d) Golgi apparatus;
e) modulator.
A
a) synapse;
19
Q
For most of the excitable cells, the value of the resting membrane potential is:
A.-60 to - 90 m V
B.20 to 50 mV
C.60 to 90 mW
D.-100 to -120 mV
A
A.-60 to - 90 m V
20
Q
The equilibrium potential of which of the mention ions below is the most close to the resting potential?
A. k* ions
B.Na ions
C. Ca’ 2 +ions
D. Mg 2+ ions
A
A. k* ions
21
Q
The membranes that can generate
action potential have:
A. Voltage-gated ion channels
B. Passive (leak) ion channels
C. Ligand-gated ion channels
D. Stretch-activated ion channels
A
A. Voltage-gated ion channels
22
Q
Choose the WRONG statement about voltage-gated Na
channels:
A.They open when the membrane depolarizes
B. When opened, they quickly switch from activated to inactivated state
C. Their transition to an inactivated state depends on the rate of membrane repolarization
D. This type of channel stays open for a longer time and there is no state of inactivation
A
D. This type of channel stays open for a longer time and there is no state of inactivation
23
5. The activity of Na pump
A. Importing 3 K ions into the cell and removing 2 Na* from it
B. Importing 2 K* ions into the cell and removing 3 Na" from it
C. Importing 2 Na* ions into the cell and removing 3 K from it
D. Importing 3 Na* ions into the cell and removing 2 K from it
B. Importing 2 K* ions into the cell and removing 3 Na" from it
24
6. The fast and rapid changes in the membrane potential are also known aS:
A. Electrotonic potential
B. Local response
C. Action potential
D. Equilibrium potential
C. Action potential
25
7. Choose the correct statement:
A. The concentration of K* and Cl ions is higher outside the cell
B. The concentration of Na and Clis higher inside the cell
C. The concentration of K and Cl ions is higher inside the cell
D. The concentration of Na and Clis higher outside the cell
D. The concentration of Na and Clis higher outside the cell
26
8. Using the Nernst's equation we could calculate:
A. Equilibrium potentials
B. Action potentials
C. Resting membrane potentials
D. Electrotonic potentials
A. Equilibrium potentials
27
Choose the WRONG statement about voltage-gated Na* channels:
A. They open very slowly when there is membrane depolarization
B. After opening, they quickly go into an inactivated state
C. They go into a closed state through repolarization and the resting membrane potential
D This type of channels have two gates
A. They open very slowly when there is membrane depolarization
28
.If the membrane potential becomes more negative than the resting potential, we say that the membrane is being:
A. Polarized
B. Depolarized
C.Hyperpolarized
DRepolarized
E. superpolarized
C.Hyperpolarized
29
Which of the following statements is NOT true:
A. Norepinephrine and dopamine are small-molecule neurotransmitters
B. GABA and glutamate are derived from amino-acids
C. Large molecule neurotransmitters include histamine,elycine and serotonin
D. Acetylcholine is synthesized in the presynaptic terminal from acetyl coenzyme A and choline
C. Large molecule neurotransmitters include histamine,elycine and serotonin
30
Saltatory conduction refers to which
of the following?
A. The conduction of a local potential along a demyelinated axon.
B The conduction of a local potential along a myelinated axon.
C. The conduction of an action potential along a myelinated axon.
D The conduction of an actionpotential along a demyelinated axon
C. The conduction of an action potential along a myelinated axon.
31
How is acetyicholine removed
from the postsynaptic membrane?
A. Enzymatic deactivation
B. Reuptake pumps
C. Diffusion
D. Astrocyte pumps
B. Reuptake pumps
31
The effect of summing when successive presynaptic inputs arrive at post synaptic cell rapidly enough, is called:
A. Temporal summation
B. Spatial summation
C. Synaptic delay
D. Refractory period
A. Temporal summation
32
The neurotransmitter is secreted by the presynaptic terminal via:
A. Exocytosis
B. Osmosis
C. Diffusion
D. Active transport
A. Exocytosis
33
The change in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane in a way of hyperpolarization is named:
A. Action potential
B. Excitatory postsynaptic
potential
C. Equilibrium potential
D. Inhibitory postsynaptic Potential
D. Inhibitory postsynaptic Potential
34
AUTONOMIC NS
1.The postganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in:
A. S2 - S4 segments of the spinal cord.
B. TI - L2 segments of the spinal cord.
C Paravertebral ganglia and prevertebral
ganglia.
D. In the brain stem.
E. In small ganglia, located near the innervated organ.
C Paravertebral ganglia and prevertebral
ganglia.
34
Activation of the parasympathetic system will result in:
A. Stimulation of peristalsis
B. Increased tonus of sphincters
C. Decreased gastric secretion
D. Inhibited intestinal absorption
E. Vasoconstriction in the splanchnic region and restriction of blood flow
A. Stimulation of peristalsis
35
Which one of these effectors is controlled ONLY by the sympathetic division?
A. Salivary glands
B. Sweat glands
C. Heart
D. Stomach
E. Pancreas
B. Sweat glands
36
Acetylcholine is NOT secreted by:
A. All preganglionic fibers.
B. Most sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
C. Most parasympathetic postganglionic fibres.
D. Motor neurons of the somatic nervous system.
E. Sympathetic postganglionic fibres, innervating sweat glands.
B. Most sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
37
The adrenergic receptors are:
A. M and N
B. Alpha and beta
C. AT1 and A T2
D. DOPA
E.AMPA and NMDA
B. Alpha and beta
38
Choose the WRONG statement about the autonomic nervous system :
A. Innervates visceral organs
B. Efferent pathways consist of two neurons
C. Operates via unconscious control
D. The autonomic neurons have large, highly myelinated axons
D. The autonomic neurons have large, highly myelinated axons
39
Which of the following hormones are produced by the pancreas? (2 р.)
A. Glucagon
B. Aldosterone
C. Progesterone
D. Somatostatin
E. Calcitonin
F. Oxytocin
A. Glucagon
D. Somatostatin
40
insulin stimulates glucose uptake by glut 4 in?
A. Hepatocytes
B. Adipose cells
C. Nerve cells
D. Muscle cells
E. fibroblasts
B. Adipose cells
41
Choose the correct statements: (3 p.)
A. Puberty begins with increased secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GRH) by the hypothalamus
B. In the follicular phase of menstrual cycle, the major hormonal secretion of the ovaries is progesterone
C. During the luteal phase of menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum develops
D. Ovulation occurs in the end of each menstrual cycle
E. The cessation of menstrual cycle in women occurs at approximately 50 years of age
A. Puberty begins with increased secretion of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GRH) by the hypothalamus
C. During the luteal phase of menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum develops
E. The cessation of menstrual cycle in women occurs at approximately 50 years of age
42
Which one of the following factors does NOT stimulate insulin secretion? (1 p.)
A. Glucagon
B. Increased blood glucose concentration
C. Somatostatin
D. Glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP)
E. Parasympathetic activation
C. Somatostatin
43
In which of the following characteristics cardiomyocytes resemble skeletal muscle cells:
a. They are innervated by the autonomic nervous system
b. Each cell has only one nucleus
c. They are striated cells
d. They are connected to one another with gap junctions
c. They are striated cells
44
The valve located between the left atrium and left ventricle, is named:
A. Mitral
B. Tricuspid
C. Aortic
D.Pulmonic
A. Mitral
45
The action potential of myocardial cells:
A. Begins with an initial, slow phase of depolarization B.
B. Is characterised by a "plateau" phase
C. Has no repolarization phase
D. Lasts an extremely short time
B. Is characterised by a "plateau" phase
46
Which one of the elements of the conduction system of the heart makes a connection between atria and ventricles?
a. SA node
B. AV node
C. bundle of his
D. purkinje cells
B. AV node
47
Choose the correct statement about the action potential of sinus node cells:
A."Fast" sodium channels are responsible for the steep phase of depolarization
B. Potassium channels open during the steep depolarization phase
C. Characterized by a "plateau" phase
D. For its development, it is necessary that specific "pacemaker" channels open
D. For its development, it is necessary that specific "pacemaker" channels open
48
Which of the following elements in ECG covers the time for both atrial depolarization and the conduction of the impulse to the ventricles
A. P interval
B. PQ interval
C. QT interval
D. ST interval
B. PQ interval
49
What color is the electrode used for grounding of the patient during ECG Registration
A red
B yellow
C green
D black
D black
50
In lead III, the electrode connected to the positive pole (+) of the ECG machine is that placed on the:
A Right arm
B Right leg
C Let arm
D. Left leg
B Right leg
51
4. On the 4" intercostal space, left sternal border, we place the electrode for the lead
A v2
B v3
C v4
D v5
C v4
52
The term 10mm/my in Ecu recording means.
A Speed of paper
B grounding
C Standard calibration voltage
D Length/tension relationship in the Heart
C Standard calibration voltage
53
ADH is released by?
A pancreas
B adrenal gland
C anterior pituitary
D posterior pituitary
E kidneys
D posterior pituitary
54
In the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle there is
A. Reabsorption of water
B Reabsorption of Na and Cl ions only
C. Reabsorption of Na and secretion of K and Cl ions
D. Reabsorption of Na, K and Cl' ions
E. Reabsorption of K and secretion of Na and Cl ions
C. Reabsorption of Na and secretion of K and Cl ions
55
Increased aldosterone secretion will lead to:
A. increased Na excretion with urine
B. Decrease in total quantity of Na ions in ECF
C. increased Na reabsorption in the distal segments of the nephron
D. Reduced volume of ECF
E. increased secretion of K ions
C. increased Na reabsorption in the distal segments of the nephron
56
Which of the following are NOT parts of the juxtaglomerular
apparatus (JGA)
A. Granulated smooth muscle cells from the wall of the afferent arteriole
B. Bowman's capsule
C. Macula densa
D. Collecting duct
E. Mesangial cells
D. Collecting duct
57
H1-receptors are situated on the smooth muscle cell membrane of the:
a) gastrointestinal tract;
b) urinary tract;
c) bronchi;
d) uterus;
e) blood vessels.
c) bronchi;
58
The adrenergic effect on the cardiac conduction system and working
myocardium is exercised by affecting:
a) M-choline receptors;
b) a1-receptors;
c) a2-receptors;
d) b1-receptors;
e) b2-receptors.
d) b1-receptors;
59
The parasympathetic spinal centres, regulating the reservoir functions,
are situated in the following segments:
a) C8 – Thl;
b) Thl – Th8;
c) Th10 - L2;
d) S2 - S4;
e) L2 -L4.
d) S2 - S4;
60
Facilitated diffusion is a mechanism:
a) associated with loss of energy;
b) for transporting substances against their concentration gradient;
c) connected with membrane polarity;
d) that works with the help of a carrier in the membrane;
e) for transporting lipid soluble substances through the membrane.
d) that works with the help of a carrier in the membrane;
61
A distinguishing feature of the membrane potential at rest is:
a) high permeability for K+
ions;
b) low permeability for Clions;
c) low permeability for Na and high for K+
ions;
d) the small difference between the equilibrium potentials for Na+ and K+
ions;
e) low permeability for Na+
c) low permeability for Na and high for K+
ions;
62
Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter which has:
a) always an excitatory effect on the postsynaptic membrane;
b) always an inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic membrane;
c) excitatory or inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic membrane
depending on the type of receptors;
d) excitatory or inhibitory effect depending on the amount released.
e) no effect on the postsynaptic membrane.
c) excitatory or inhibitory effect on the postsynaptic membrane
63
The common expression of excitation is:
a) the action potential;
b) muscle cell contraction;
c) nerve cell conduction and excitation;
d) glandular cell secretion;
e) membrane transport.
a) the action potential;
64
Curare is a substance that blocks:
a) M-cholinergic receptors;
b) a-adrenergic receptors;
c) b-adrenergic receptors;
d) N-cholinergic receptors in neuromuscular synapses;
e) all types of cholinoreceptors.
d) N-cholinergic receptors in neuromuscular synapses;
65
An example of a ligand dependent membrane is:
a) the postsynaptic membrane;
b) the axon membrane;
c) the nodes of Ranvier;
d) the skeletal muscle T-tubule membrane;
e) the axon hillock.
a) the postsynaptic membrane;
66
Throughout the relative refractory period:
a) the excitability becomes equal to zero;
b) the excitability is equal to that at rest;
c) the excitability is higher than that at rest;
d) accommodation occurs;
e) the excitability is lower than that at rest.
c) the excitability is higher than that at rest;
67
Na/K pump is called electrogenic, because:
a) exports equal amount of Na+ and K+
b) imports equal amount of Na and K+
c) exchanges equal amount of Na+ and K+
d) the exchanged amount of Na+ and K+
is not equal.
e) none of the above.
d) the exchanged amount of Na+ and K+
is not equal.
68
Which is the basic inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS:
a) glutamate;
b) substance P;
c) neuropeptide 4;
d) GABA;
e) nitric oxide.
d) GABA;
68
The conditioned reflexes are:
a) typical of the species;
b) inborn;
c) permanent;
d) formed on the basis of unconditioned reflexes;
e) all of the above.
d) formed on the basis of unconditioned reflexes;
69
Which of the statements is not true:
a) at the chemical synapse transmission of excitation is one way;
b) at most of the electrical synapses transmission is two-way;
c) the velocity of transmission of excitation is higher at the chemical
synapses than at the electrical ones;
d) the velocity of transmission of excitation is greater at the electrical synapses than at the chemical ones;
e) when there is continuous excitation at a synapse, fatigue occurs.
c) the velocity of transmission of excitation is higher at the chemical
70
The basic factor for the ion asymmetry on both sides of the excitable
membrane is:
a) Ca++ pump and the low permeability for Na+
b) Na+ pump and the low permeability for Na+
c) Na+/K+ pump and the low permeability for Na+
d) K+ pump and the high permeability for Na+
e) iodine pump.
c) Na+/K+ pump and the low permeability for Na+
71
The velocity of AP propagation along the axon membrane depends on:
a) the strength of irritation;
b) the duration of irritation;
c) the cross sectional area of the axon;
d) the direction of its propagation;
e) the threshold.
c) the cross sectional area of the axon;
72
Saltatory conduction:
a) occurs only in myelinated fibres;
b) has a slower velocity in cold than in warm conditions;
c) is faster than non-saltatory conduction in nerve fibres with diameters around 10 μm;
d) transmits impulses with a velocity proportional to fibre diameter;
e) all of them.
e) all of them.
73
The result of activated 1-adrenergic receptors is:
a) relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters;
b) constriction of the vessels smooth muscle;
c) increased heart rate;
d) dilation of the vessels smooth muscle and relaxation of the uterus;
e) none of the above.
b) constriction of the vessels smooth muscle;
74
The result of activated 2-adrenergic receptors is:
a) relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters;
b) constriction of the vessels smooth muscle;
c) increased heart rate;
d) dilation of the vessels smooth muscle and relaxation of the uterus;
e) none of the above.
a) relaxation of the gastrointestinal tract smooth muscles and contraction of the sphincters;
75
Protein synthesis occurs at the:
a) mitochondria;
b) lysosomes;
c) within the nucleus;
d) ribosomes;
e) vacuoles.
d) ribosomes;
76
During repolarisation of the cell membrane:
a) Na+ move inside of the cell;
b) Na+ move outside of the cell;
c) K+ move inside of the cell;
d) K+ move outside of the cell;
e) Cl- move outside of the cell.
d) K+ move outside of the cell;
77
In a cell, movement of molecules from an area of low
concentration to an area of high concentration:
a) uses facilitated diffusion;
b) requires cellular energy;
c) is passive transport;
d) requires both cellular energy and facilitated diffusion;
e) uses its concentration gradient to move.
b) requires cellular energy;
78
Movement of solvent and dissolved substances across a cell membrane by hydrostatic pressure is:
a) filtration;
b) facilitated diffusion;
c) osmosis;
d) simple diffusion;
e) active transport.
a) filtration;
79
The substance acetylcholine is released from synaptic vesicles by the
process of:
a) phagocytosis;
b) simple diffusion;
c) passive transport;
d) exocytosis;
e) endocytosis.
d) exocytosis;
80
Cell membranes:
a) are formed entirely by protein molecules;
b) are impermeable to fat soluble substances;
c) in some tissues permit transport of glucose at a greater rate in the presence of insulin;
d) are not changed throughout life;
e) are permeable to water soluble substances.
c) in some tissues permit transport of glucose at a greater rate in the presence of insulin;
81
Proteins that are secreted by cells are generally:
a) not synthesised on ribosomes that are bound to endoplasmic
reticulum;
b) synthesised in the mitochondria;
c) packed in the Golgi apparatus;
d) across the cell membrane by endocytosis;
e) synthesised in the lysosomes.
c) packed in the Golgi apparatus;
82
The unique feature in mitochondria is:
a) myosin;
b) actin;
c) DNA;
d) prothrombin;
e) haemoglobin.
c) DNA;
83
The resting membrane potential of a cell:
a) is dependant on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+;
b) falls to zero if Na+/K+ ATP-ase in the membrane is inhibited;
c) is equal to the equilibrium potential for K+
d) is equal to the equilibrium potential of Na+
e) is equal to the equilibrium potential of Cl-
a) is dependant on the permeability of the cell membrane to K+ being greater to Na+;
84
Transmission across a synapse is dependent on the release of?
a) neurotransmitters;
b) synaptic vesicle;
c) neurons;
d) receptor proteins;
e) hormones.
a) neurotransmitters;
85
An example of co-transport is:
a) Na+-K + pump;
b) Ca++ pump;
c) Na+- H+pump;
d) Na+ glucose transport;
e) Na/Ca pump.
d) Na+ glucose transport;
86
Mitochondria:
a) are the chief site of lipid synthesis;
b) are the chief site of protein synthesis;
c) are the chief sites for generation of ATP;
d) are more numerous in white than in brown fat cells;
e) are absent near the membranes of actively secreting cells.
c) are the chief sites for generation of ATP;
87
The mammalian cell membrane:
a) is seen as an optically dense line using light microscopy;
b) consists mainly of protein;
c) is more permeable to fat- than to water-soluble particles;
d) contains enzymes DNA;
e) contains the receptors for steroid hormones.
c) is more permeable to fat- than to water-soluble particles;
88
The endoplasmic reticulum:
a) is a complex system of intracellular tubules;
b) has a membrane structure similar to the cell membrane;
c) is associated with ribonucleoprotein;
d) is well developed in secretory cells;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
89
An action potential in a nerve fibre:
a) occurs when its membrane potential is hyperpolarised to a critical level;
b) is associated with a transient increase in membrane permeability to sodium;
c) is associated with a transient decrease in membrane permeability to potassium;
d) induces local response;
e) has an amplitude which varies directly with the strength of stimulus.
b) is associated with a transient increase in membrane permeability to sodium;
90
The velocity of conduction of a nerve impulse can be determined by
which of the following factors?
1. temperature; 2. diameter of axon; 3. stimulus frequency; 4. myelin sheath; 5. stimulus strength:
a) 1, 3, 5 and 4;
b) 1, 2 and 3;
c) 3 and 1;
d) 3 and 2;
e) 4, 2 and 1
e) 4, 2 and 1
91
The junction between one neurone and the next, or between a neurone
and an effector is called:
a) a synapse;
b) a dendrite;
c) a neurotransmitter;
d) a ventricle;
e) none of the above.
a) a synapse;
92
Which of the following blocks acetylcholine receptor sites causing
muscle relaxation?
a) novocain;
b) curare;
c) nicotine;
d) nerve gases;
e) carbon monoxide.
b) curare;
93
The action potential of a nerve cell:
a) results from a large increase in membrane permeability to Na+ ions;
b) can summate with one another;
c) may vary considerably in amplitude;
d) become larger as stimulus strength increases;
e) follows from a decrease in membrane permeability for K+
ions.
a) results from a large increase in membrane permeability to Na+ ions;
94
At the neuromuscular junction:
a) the muscle membrane possesses muscarinic receptors;
b) the motor nerve endings secrete norepinephrine (noradrenalin);
c) curare leads to prolongation of neuromuscular transmission;
d) the motor nerve endings secrete acetylcholine;
e) none of the above.
d) the motor nerve endings secrete acetylcholine;
95
The nervous system is composed of:
a) neurons;
b) neurotubules;
c) neurofibrils;
d) axons;
e) dendrites.
a) neurons;
96
The unique property of the neuron is:
a) communication;
b) contraction;
c) secretion;
d) energy production;
e) excitation.
a) communication;
97
Most axons are covered by a fatty sheath called:
a) neurilema;
b) the nodes of Ranvier;
c) myelin;
d) neural adipose;
e) sarcolema.
c) myelin;
98
Receptors which respond in a stretch reflex are:
a) carotid baroreceptors;
b) free nerve endings;
c) Ruffini’s endings;
d) oligodendrocytes;
e) Pacinian corpuscles.
a) carotid baroreceptors;
99
Select the excitatory neurotransmitter:
a) GABA;
b) glycine;
c) norepinephrine;
d) all of the above;
e) none of them.
c) norepinephrine;
100
Laws of transmission in chemical synapses:
a) one way conduction;
b) amplitude coding in the postsynaptic membrane;
c) delayed transmission;
d) summation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
101
Which are the most important EEG waves during wakefulness with
opened eyes:
a) gamma (γ);
b) alpha (α);
c) beta (β);
d) delta (δ);
e) alpha (α) and delta (δ).
c) beta (β);
102
Excessive formation of a substance/ secretion in the body is controlled in
order to maintain homeostasis by:
a) positive feedback mechanism;
b) negative feedback mechanism;
c) osmosis;
d) haemodynamics;
e) up-regulation.
b) negative feedback mechanism;
103
Which one of the following is characteristic of type A nerve fibers:
a) nociception;
b) slower conduction than C fibers;
c) myelinated;
d) substance P;
e) sensory only.
c) myelinated;
104
The electroencephalogram (EEG) registers the activity of the:
a) reticular activating system;
b) limbic system;
c) thalamus;
d) cortex;
e) brain stem.
d) cortex;
105
Sensory neurons have:
a) a short dendrite and a long axon;
b) a short dendrite and a short axon;
c) a long dendrite and a short axon;
d) a long dendrite and a long axon;
e) their axons and dendrites may be either long or short.
c) a long dendrite and a short axon;
106
The medulla oblongata helps regulate which of the following:
a) breathing;
b) heartbeat;
c) sneezing;
d) vomiting;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
106
What anatomical region of a multipolar neuron has the lowest threshold
for generating an action potention?
a) soma;
b) dendrites;
c) axon hillock;
d) distal axon;
e) proximal axon.
c) axon hillock;
107
What do the dorsal root ganglia contain?
a) cell bodies of somatic motor neurons;
b) axon terminal of somatic motor neurons;
c) cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons;
d) axon terminal of sensory neurons;
e) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
e) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
108
Prevertebral sympathetic ganglia are involved with the innervation of
the:
a) abdominal organs;
b) thoracic organs;
c) head;
d) m. errector pili;
e) all of the above.
a) abdominal organs;
109
At the neuromuscular junctions:
a) the motor end plate is the motor nerve terminal;
b) spontaneous (miniature) potentials may be recorded in the motor nerve
terminal;
c) motor nerve terminals have vesicles containing acetylcholine;
d) there is a high concentration of curare;
e) transmission is facilitated by botulinum toxin.
c) motor nerve terminals have vesicles containing acetylcholine;
109
A reflex action:
a) is initiated by sensory receptors;
b) always results in endocrine secretion;
c) involves transmission across at least two central nervous synapses in
series;
d) is always inhibitory;
e) is independent of higher centres in the brain.
a) is initiated by sensory receptors;
110
The cerebrospinal fluid:
a) is formed in the arachnoid granulations;
b) provides the brain with most of its nutrition;
c) protects the brain from injury when the head is moved;
d) has a lower pressure than that in the cerebral venous sinuses;
e) flows around the adult brain and is around 5 litres per day.
c) protects the brain from injury when the head is moved;
111
An excitatory post-synaptic potential:
a) is the depolarization of a post-synaptic nerve cell membrane that occurs when a presynaptic neurone is stimulated;
b) involves reversal of polarity across the post-synaptic nerve cell membrane;
c) may be recorded from a posterior root ganglion cell;
d) is propagated at the same rate as an action potential;
e) is caused by the electrical field induced by activity in the pre-synaptic nerve terminals.
a) is the depolarization of a post-synaptic nerve cell membrane that occurs when a presynaptic neurone is stimulated;
112
The ascending reticular formation:
a) when stimulated tends to increase alertness;
b) transmits impulses to higher centres via a multisynaptic pathway;
c) is activated by collateral branches of sensory neurones;
d) neurones project to most parts of the cerebral cortex;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
113
The cerebellum:
a) modifies the discharge of spinal motor neurones;
b) is essential for finely coordinated movements;
c) has an afferent input from the motor cortex;
d) has an afferent input from muscle proprioceptors;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
114
During deep sleep there is a fall in:
a) hand skin temperature;
b) arterial pCO2;
c) blood growth hormone/cortisol ratio;
d) metabolic rate;
e) pH.
a) hand skin temperature;
115
Sympathetic:
a) ganglionic transmission is mediated by acetylcholine;
b) neuromuscular transmission in the heart is mediated by acetylcholine;
c) neuromuscular transmission in hand skin arterioles is mediated by
acetylcholine;
d) neuroglandular transmission in sweat glands is mediated by noradrenaline;
e) neuromuscular transmission in the iris is mediated by
acetylcholine.
d) neuroglandular transmission in sweat glands is mediated by noradrenaline;
116
The blood–brain barrier:
a) slows equilibration of solutes between blood and brain tissue fluids;
b) is a more effective barrier for fat-soluble substances than water-soluble substances;
c) is a more effective barrier in infants than in adult;
d) is a more effective barrier for CO2 than for O2;
e) permits hydrogen ions to pass freely.
a) slows equilibration of solutes between blood and brain tissue fluids;
117
The electroencephalogram normally shows voltage waves:
a) whose amplitude is related to intelligence;
b) of lower frequency during deep sleep than during alert
wakefulness;
c) of smaller amplitude during deep sleep than during alert wakefulness;
d) of greater amplitude than those of the electrocardiogram;
e) which are bilaterally unsymmetrical.
b) of lower frequency during deep sleep than during alert
wakefulness;
118
Parasympathetic nerves:
a) have effects on intestinal smooth muscles opposite to sympathetic nerves;
b) have no effect on lacrimation;
c) cause vasodilatation in skeletal muscle during prolonged exercise;
d) cause sweat secretion in skin when body temperature rises;
e) have longer postganglionic than preganglionic fibres.
a) have effects on intestinal smooth muscles opposite to sympathetic nerves;
119
α-adrenoceptors:
a) are located on myofilaments in smooth muscle cells;
b) are distinguishable from β (beta) receptors using electron microscopy;
c) can be stimulated by both adrenaline and noradrenaline;
d) are involved in the vasodilation responses to adrenaline in skin;
e) are involved in heart rate responses to noradrenaline.
c) can be stimulated by both adrenaline and noradrenaline;
120
The α (alpha) rhythm of the electroencephalogram:
a) disappears when the eyes are closed;
b) is an electrical potential with an amplitude around one millivolt;
c) has a frequency of 8–12 Hz;
d) has a lower frequency than the δ (delta) rhythm;
e) indicates that the subject is sleeping.
c) has a frequency of 8–12 Hz;
121
The primary sensory ending of a muscle spindle is stimulated by:
a) shortening of an antagonist muscle;
b) relaxation of the muscle concerned when under load;
c) stimulation of the gamma efferent fibres;
d) striking the appropriate tendon with a tendon hammer;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
122
In the spinal cord:
a) pain impulse traffic may be modulated in the posterior horn;
b) autonomic motor neurones arise in the lateral horn;
c) glycin acts as inhibitory neurotransmitter;
d) post-synaptic excitation may be mediated by amino acid
derivatives acting as neurotransmitters;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
123
In the cerebral cortex:
a) neuronal connections are innate and immutable;
b) language and non-language skills are represented in the same hemisphere;
c) the areas concerned with emotional behaviour are concentrated in the frontal lobes;
d) the cortical area devoted to sensation in the hand is larger than that for the trunk;
e) stimulation of the motor cortex causes contractions of individual muscles on the opposite side of the body.
d) the cortical area devoted to sensation in the hand is larger than that for the trunk;
124
Generalized sympathetic activity is characterized by:
a) contraction of the radial muscle in the iris;
b) increased urinary excretion of catecholamines;
c) lipolysis in adipose tissue;
d) increased conduction rate in the atrio-ventricular bundle;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
125
Acetylcholine:
a) acts on the same type of receptor on postganglionic fibres in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia;
b) acts on the different type of receptor on target organs at cholinergic sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve terminals;
c) acts on the same type of receptor at autonomic ganglia and at somatic neuromuscular junctions;
d) acts on alpha and beta receptors;
e) in blood is hydrolyzed by the same cholinesterase as is found at neuromuscular junctions.
a) acts on the same type of receptor on postganglionic fibres in sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia;
126
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential:
a) may be recorded in a postganglionic sympathetic neurone;
b) may be recorded in an axon;
c) does not exceed one millivolt in amplitude;
d) moves membrane potential towards the equilibrium potential for sodium;
e) may summate in space and time with other excitatory and inhibitory potentials in the same neurone.
e) may summate in space and time with other excitatory and inhibitory potentials in the same neurone.
127
A volley of impulses travelling in a presynaptic neurone causes:
a) an identical volley in the postsynaptic neurone;
b) summation of action potentials;
c) an increase in the permeability of the presynaptic nerve terminals
to calcium;
d) the generation of at least one action potential in the postsynaptic
neurone;
e) endocytosis of neurotransmitter.
c) an increase in the permeability of the presynaptic nerve terminals
to calcium;
128
Pain receptors are:
a) similar in structure to Pacinian corpuscles;
b) stimulated by a rise in the local K+
concentration;
c) quick to adapt to a constant stimulus;
d) more easily stimulated in intact than in injured tissue;
e) stimulated in the wall of the gut by agents which damage the tissues.
b) stimulated by a rise in the local K+
concentration;
129
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep differs from non-REM sleep in that:
a) the EEG shows waves of higher frequency;
b) muscle tone is higher;
c) heart rate and respiration are more regular;
d) secretion of growth hormone is increased;
e) not possible.
a) the EEG shows waves of higher frequency;
130
The sympathetic response to stress includes:
a) increased blood pressure;
b) increased glycogen breakdown in liver and muscles;
c) increased glycogen synthesis in liver and muscles;
d) increased blood clotting;
e) a, b, and d.
e) a, b, and d.
130
Delta (δ) wave activity in the electroencephalogram:
a) is low in frequency and amplitude;
b) suggests that the patient is alert and concentrating;
c) suggests that the patient is with opened eyes;
d) is a feature of petit mal epilepsy;
e) is more common in children than in adults while they are awake.
e) is more common in children than in adults while they are awake.
131
Atropine causes:
a) paralysis of accommodation for near vision in the eye;
b) constriction of the pupil;
c) constriction of the bronchi;
d) diarrhoea;
e) bradycardia.
a) paralysis of accommodation for near vision in the eye;
132
Blockade of parasympathetic activity causes a reduction in:
a) sweat production;
b) resting heart rate;
c) the strength of skeletal muscle contraction;
d) salivation;
e) blood pressure.
d) salivation;
133
Aphasia:
a) is an impairment of language skills without motor paralysis, loss of hearing or vision;
b) does not mean unconsciousness;
c) is called motor aphasia if the patient understands what the speech sounds and symbols mean but lacks the higher motor skills needed to express them;
d) is called sensory aphasia if the patient does not understand the meaning of the words he hears, sees and uses;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
134
Blockade of β-adrenoceptors is likely to cause:
a) disturbance in renal-angiotensin-aldosterone system;
b) worsening of the condition in patients with bronchial asthma;
c) worsening of the condition in patients in cardiac failure;
d) inability to increase heart rate during exercise in patients with
transplanted hearts;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
135
All of these characteristics belong to postsynaptic potentials, except
for:
a) they have constant magnitude;
b) there are no refractory periods;
c) summation is possible;
d) typically occur at the cell body of a neuron;
e) they are decremental.
a) they have constant magnitude;
136
Compared with the endocrine system, regulation of the body by the
nervous system provides:
a) relatively slow but long-lasting responses to stimuli;
b) swift but brief responses to stimuli;
c) swift, long-lasting responses to stimuli;
d) antagonist hormone interactions;
e) relatively slow, short-lived responses to stimuli.
b) swift but brief responses to stimuli;
137
Which of these characteristics is not related to the parasympathetic
division of the ANS?
a) urination;
b) defecation;
c) salivation;
d) lacrimation;
e) posturation.
e) posturation.
138
Which of the following has slowest conduction:
a) A (alpha) fibers;
b) A (beta) fibers;
c) A (gamma) fibers;
d) B fibres;
e) C fibres.
e) C fibres.
139
A man falls into deep sleep with one arm under his head. After
awakening the arm is paralyzed but tingling sensation and pain
sensation persist. This loss of motor function without the loss of sensory
function is due to:
a) A fibres are more susceptible to hypoxia that B fibers;
b) A fibres are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers;
c) C fibres are more sensitive to pressure than A fibers;
d) sensory nerves are nearer the bone and hence affected by pressure;
e) all of the above.
b) A fibres are more sensitive to pressure than C fibers;
140
Saltatory conduction:
a) is seen only in myelinated nerve fibres;
b) is slower that non saltatory conduction;
c) is not affected if a local anesthetic is applied to the nodes of Ranvier;
d) is seen only in sensory fibers;
e) is seen only in the cortex.
a) is seen only in myelinated nerve fibres;
141
Myelin sheath is produced by:
a) axoplasm;
b) mitochondria;
c) Schwann cell;
d) muscle cell;
e) endocrine cell.
c) Schwann cell;
142
Sleep is associated with:
a) an alpha rhythm in the electroencephalogram;
b) increased activity in the reticular activating system;
c) a beta rhythm in the EEG;
d) a high level of vagal tone to the heart and grinding movements of the teeth;
e) a rise in central body temperature.
d) a high level of vagal tone to the heart and grinding movements of the teeth;
143
From childhood to old age:
a) there is a steady decrease in total sleeping time per day;
b) deep (stage 4) sleep decreases as a percentage of total daily sleep;
c) body water as a percentage of body mass decreases;
d) sleep becomes less aggregated into a single sleeping period;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
144
The method by which the brain's electrical activity is registered from the
scalp is called:
a) electroneurography (ENG);
b) electroencephalography (EEG);
c) functional magnetic resonance (fMRI);
d) electromyography (EMG);
e) nuclear-magnetic resonance (NMR).
b) electroencephalography (EEG);
145
The sympathetic preganglionic neurons of the ANS secrete:
a) dopamine;
b) L-DOPA;
c) serotonin;
d) histamine;
e) acetylcholine.
e) acetylcholine.
146
The adrenergic effect on the bronchial smooth muscle is:
a) constriction;
b) relaxation;
c) sometimes constriction, sometimes relaxation;
d) there is not effect;
e) dose dependent: at low concentrations – constriction, at higher doses – relaxation.
e) dose dependent: at low concentrations – constriction, at higher doses – relaxation.
147
Reflexes are defined as somatic, visceral and mixed:
a) according to the location of the receptors;
b) according to the type of the reflex arc;
c) according to the effectors;
d) according to the location of the interneurons;
e) according to formation.
b) according to the type of the reflex arc;
148
The adrenal medulla is innervated by:
a) preganglionic cholinergic neurons;
b) postganglionic cholinergic neurons;
c) preganglionic adrenergic neurons;
d) postganglionic adrenergic neurons;
e) preganglionic dopaminergic neurons.
a) preganglionic cholinergic neurons;
149
The increased tone of the parasympathetic division leads to:
a) contraction of the pupils and bronchial smooth muscle fibers;
b) dilation of the pupils and relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle fibers;
c) contraction of the pupils and relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscle
fibers;
d) dilation of the pupils and contraction of the bronchial smooth muscle
fibers;
e) none of the above.
a) contraction of the pupils and bronchial smooth muscle fibers;
150
Blood clotting:
a) requires Ca2+;
b) is promoted by erythrocytes;
c) defects usually shorten the bleeding time;
d) is initiated by tissue tromboplastin in the intrinsic coagulation pathway;
e) is decreased by platelets.
a) requires Ca2+;
151
B-lymphocytes:
a) secrete circulating antibodies;
b) carry antigen receptors on their surface;
c) secrete antigens;
d) a + b;
e) b + c.
d) a + b;
152
Red blood cells:
a) measure 15 mm in diameter;
b) do not contain mitochondria;
c) have a life span in circulation of 30 days;
d) are released from the bone marrow as mature cells;
e) contain nucleus.
b) do not contain mitochondria;
153
Which of the following helps in blood clotting?
a) vit. B1;
b) vit. B2;
c) vit. D;
d) vit. K;
e) vit. B6.
d) vit. K;
154
The following is true about the ABO and Rh systems:
a) a person of group O is a universal recipient;
b) a person who is group AB has anti-A and anti-B antibodies;
c) the presence of D antigen means that the subject is Rh(+);
d) Rh antibodies occur naturally;
e) the person of group A has anti-A antibodies.
c) the presence of D antigen means that the subject is Rh(+);
155
The function of haemoglobin is:
a) transport of oxygen;
b) destruction of bacteria;
c) prevention of anaemia;
d) utilization of energy;
e) transport of CO.
a) transport of oxygen;
156
Which of the following substances is an anticoagulant?
a) Ca2+;
b) heparin;
c) fibrinogen;
d) albumin;
e) gama-globulins.
b) heparin;
157
What are the agglutinins?
a) antibodies;
b) antigens;
c) beta-globulins;
d) amino acids;
e) lipids.
a) antibodies;
158
Which of the following substance influences indirectly blood clotting?
a) calcium ions;
b) vit. K;
c) vit. B6;
d) mineralocorticoids;
e) renin.
b) vit. K;
159
For which of the following cells phagocytosis is not typical?
a) neutrophils;
b) plasmocytes;
c) monocytes;
d) eosinophils;
e) macrophages.
b) plasmocytes;
160
Normal (physiological) hemolysis takes place:
a) inside the heart;
b) inside the spleen and liver;
c) inside the kidneys;
d) inside the big blood vessels;
e) inside the bone marrow.
b) inside the spleen and liver;
161
Which of the following are functions of the blood?
a) transport;
b) regulation;
c) protection;
d) temperature regulation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
162
The blood volume of an average size male is:
a) 3 to 4 liters;
b) 4 to 5 liters;
c) 5 to 6 liters;
d) 6 to 7 liters;
e) 7 to 9 liters.
c) 5 to 6 liters;
163
The blood volume is:
a) 10-12% of body weight;
b) 10 l;
c) 6-8% of body weight;
d) 5 l;
d) 3-5% of body weight.
c) 6-8% of body weight;
164
The effects on plasma volume of 500 ml blood loss are neutralized
within:
a) 1 – 2 hours;
b) 8 – 10 hours;
c) 24 hours;
d) one week;
e) one month.
c) 24 hours;
165
Antithrombin III affects which coagulation factor?
a) XIIa;
b) Xa;
c) IIa;
d) IXa;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
166
Vitamin K neutralizes:
a) factor 5;
b) heparin;
c) antithrombin 3;
d) plasminogen;
e) none of the above.
e) none of the above.
167
Hematocrit of 0.45 means that in the sample of blood analysed:
a) 0.45% Hb is in the plasma;
b) 0.45% of total blood volume is made up of plasma;
c) 0.45% of Hb is in the RBC;
d) 0.45% of the total blood volume is made up of RBC's and WBC's;
e) 0.45% of blood volume is made of Tr.
d) 0.45% of the total blood volume is made up of RBC's and WBC's;
168
Platelet activation will not occur without:
a) Ca2+;
b) vessel wall damage;
c) von Willebrand factor;
d) fibrinogen;
e) serotonin.
a) Ca2+;
169
Which of the following statements concerning the monocyte is
incorrect:
a) more common in blood than eosinophils and basophils;
b) produced in the adult by the bone marrow and lymph nodes;
c) unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside circulation in area of
inflammation;
d) not classified as a granulocyte;
e) 2-8% of differential blood count.
c) unlike neutrophil does not accumulate outside circulation in area of
inflammation;
170
Hemoglobin contains:
a) one protoporphyrin ring and four ferrous ions;
b) four protoporphyrin ring and one ferrous ion;
c) four protoporphyrin rings and four ferrous ions;
d) one protoporphyrin ring and one ferrous ion;
e) none of the above.
c) four protoporphyrin rings and four ferrous ions;
171
Which blood component plays the biggest role in maintaining the
osmotic pressure of blood?
a) albumin;
b) carbon dioxide;
c) white blood cells;
d) fibrinogen;
e) globulins.
a) albumin;
172
In a normal blood sample, which of the following cells will be the most
abundant?
a) neutrophils;
b) basophiles;
c) eosinophiles;
d) monocytes;
e) lymphocytes.
a) neutrophils;
173
An antigen is:
a) a chemical messenger that is released by virus infected cells;
b) a lymphocyte responsible for cell-mediated immunity;
c) something that coats the inside of lungs, causing infection;
d) a protein or other molecule that is recognized as non-self;
e) a thick yellow-white fluid.
d) a protein or other molecule that is recognized as non-self;
174
Where is the site of maturation for a B-cell?
a) thymus;
b) bone marrow;
c) pancreas;
d) cortex;
e) spleen.
b) bone marrow;
175
Nonspecific resistance is:
a) the body's ability to ward off diseases;
b) the body's defenses against any kind of pathogen;
c) the body's defense against a particular pathogen;
d) the lack of resistance;
e) none of the above.
b) the body's defenses against any kind of pathogen;
176
The rate of erythrocyte sedimentation is increased when:
a) the plasma albumin fraction is increased;
b) fibrinogen in the blood is decreased;
c) the plasma globulin fraction is decreased;
d) the plasma globulin fraction is increased;
e) lack of erythropoietin.
d) the plasma globulin fraction is increased;
176
Agglutinins are found in:
a) the erythrocyte membrane;
b) the leukocytes;
c) the plasma;
d) the platelets;
e) all of the above.
c) the plasma;
177
Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that
function in the maturation of T-lymphocytes:
a) lymph nodes;
b) thymus;
c) spleen;
d) pineal gland;
e) tonsils.
b) thymus;
178
γ-globulins are related to:
a) humoral immunity;
b) blood coagulation;
c) transport of gases by the blood;
d) erythropoiesis;
e) cellular immunity.
a) humoral immunity;
179
Oxyhemoglobin is a compound of:
a) hemoglobin and O2;
b) hemoglobin and CO2;
c) hemoglobin and Fe2+;
d) hemoglobin and CO;
e) hemoglobin and N.
a) hemoglobin and O2;
180
The amount of plasma proteins is:
a) 135 – 145 mmol∙1-1
b) 140 – 160 g∙1-1
c) 50 – 83 g∙1-1
d) 2.8 – 5.6 mmol∙1-1
e) 0.40 – 0.50 1∙1-1
c) 50 – 83 g∙1-1
181
The plasma of blood type AB contains:
a) anti-A agglutinins;
b) anti-B agglutinins;
c) anti-A and anti-B agglutinins;
d) no agglutinins;
e) agglutinogens A and B.
d) no agglutinins;
181
Osmotic hemolysis is due to:
a) water hypotonic solution entering the erythrocytes;
b) destruction of the erythrocyte membrane by chemicals;
c) fibrinolysis;
d) formation of carbaminohemoglobin;
e) transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin.
a) water hypotonic solution entering the erythrocytes;
182
Hypervolemia is:
a) increased blood volume;
b) decreased blood volume;
c) increased blood cholesterol;
d) increased plasma proteins;
e) increased blood pressure.
a) increased blood volume;
183
When AB(0) blood is transfused to a recipient of blood type 0 (anti-A,
anti-B):
a) the limit of the blood transfused is up to 300 ml;
b) the transfused amount is unlimited;
c) transfusion is forbidden;
d) transfusion of plasma is the only possibility;
e) possible only once in a lifetime.
d) transfusion of plasma is the only possibility;
184
Leucopenia is:
a) increased number of leukocytes;
b) increased number of platelets;
c) decreased number of leucocytes;
d) increased number of erythrocytes;
e) decreased number of platelets.
a) increased number of leukocytes;
185
Sodium citrate stops coagulation by:
a) blocking fibrinogen;
b) reacting with Ca2+;
c) massive fibrinolysis;
d) destruction of platelets;
e) blocking vit. K.
b) reacting with Ca2+;
186
The normal RBC count in men is :
а) 140 - 160∙10 9∙l-1
b) 4.5 - 6.0∙1012∙l-1
c) 4 - 11∙10 9∙l-1
d) 200 - 400∙l0 9∙l-1
e) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1
b) 4.5 - 6.0∙1012∙l-1
187
Leucocytosis is:
a) increased number of leukocytes;
b) increased number of platelet;
c) decreased number of leucocytes;
d) increased number of erythrocytes;
e) increased percentage of neutrophils.
a) increased number of leukocytes;
188
Platelets take part in:
a) the immune defense;
b) the transport of gases in blood;
c) hemostasis;
d) rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system;
e) all of the above.
c) hemostasis;
188
The hemoglobin concentration in men is :
а) 4 - 5.2∙1012∙l-1
b) 135 - 145 mmol∙l-1
c) 160 ± 20 g∙l-1
d) 2.8 - 5.6 mmol∙l-1
e) 140 - 160 g%.
c) 160 ± 20 g∙l-1
189
Of major significance for maintaining the blood oncotic pressure is:
a) the number of erythrocytes;
b) the plasma globulin fraction;
c) the leukocyte count;
d) the plasma albumin fraction;
e) the plasmafibrinogen.
d) the plasma albumin fraction;
190
The red color of blood is due to:
a) the plasma cholesterol;
b) the plasma albumin fraction;
c) Ca2+ and K+
in plasma;
d) the granules in the leucocytes;
e) the hemoglobin in the erythrocytes.
e) the hemoglobin in the erythrocytes.
191
The normal blood platelet count is:
a) 4 – 11∙109∙11
b) 4.4 – 5.2∙1012∙1-1
c) 60 – 90∙1012∙1-1
d) 140 – 400∙109∙1-1
e) 200 – 400∙1012∙1-1
d) 140 – 400∙109∙1-1
192
Fibrinolysis is:
a) formation of the white plug;
b) formation of the red plug;
c) fibrin clot destruction;
d) viscose metamorphosis of the platelets;
e) destruction of adrenal medulla.
c) fibrin clot destruction;
193
When blood is transfused from 0 (anti-A, anti-B) donor to AB(0) recipient:
a) the amount is up to 500 ml;
b) the amount is unlimited;
c) transfusion is impossible;
d) only plasma may be transfused;
e) only once in a lifetime.
a) the amount is up to 500 ml;
194
The osmotic fragility is determined by the use of:
a) hypotonic solution of NaCI;
b) hypertonic solution of NaCl;
c) HCI;
d) NaOH;
e) celloscope.
a) hypotonic solution of NaCI;
195
Heparin is:
a) a factor transforming prothrombin into thrombin;
b) platelet factor 8;
c) endogenic anticoagulant;
d) exogenic anticoagulant;
e) pancreatic enzyme.
c) endogenic anticoagulant;
196
The plasma protein fraction of major significance for coagulation is:
a) albumin;
b) globulin;
c) fibrinogen;
d) γ-globulin;
e) globulin and albumin.
c) fibrinogen;
197
The ESR (Westergren) reterence values are :
а) men up to 50 < 15 mm∙h-1
b) 140 - 160 g∙l-1
c) women above 50 - 5 - 10 mm∙h-1
d) men above 50 - 3 - 8 mm∙h-1
e) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1
.
а) men up to 50 < 15 mm∙h-1
198
Of major significance for the erythrocyte sedimentation rate is:
a) the leukocyte count;
b) the albumin/globulin ratio;
c) total blood cholesterol;
d) the platelet count;
e) the leukocytes ratio (%).
b) the albumin/globulin ratio;
199
The normal leukocyte count is:
a) 200 – 400.109∙l-1
b) 3.5 – 10.5 9∙109∙l-1
c) 4.5 – 5.2∙1012∙l-1
d) 60 – 90∙109∙l-1
e) 20 – 40% of all blood cells.
b) 3.5 – 10.5 9∙109∙l-1
200
Fe2+ ions are necessary for:
a) the production of fibrinogen;
b) erythropoiesis;
c) the formation of leukocytes;
d) the formation of platelets;
e) the synthesis of thyreocalcitonin.
b) erythropoiesis;
201
The percentage of Rh(+) people is:
a) 15%;
b) 85%;
c) 50%;
d) 30%;
e) 15% of pregnant women.
b) 85%;
202
Hematocrit reference range in women is :
а) 140 - 160 g∙l-1
b) 2.4 - 2.6 mmol∙l-1
c) 0.55 - 1.48 mmol∙l-1
d) 0.36 - 0.47 l∙l-1
e) 4.5∙1012∙l-1
d) 0.36 - 0.47 l∙l-1
203
Hematocrit measures the percentage of:
a) white blood cells volume;
b) plasma volume;
c) platelets volume;
d) red blood cells volume;
e) serum proteins volume.
d) red blood cells volume;
204
To prevent blood loss after a tissue injury, blood vessels first:
a) form a platelet plug;
b) form a clot;
c) initiate the coagulation cascade;
d) constrict and form barriers;
e) dilate.
d) constrict and form barriers;
205
A foreign substance, usually a protein, that stimulates the immune
system to react by producing antibodies is called:
a) allergen;
b) antigen;
c) histamine;
d) mast cell;
e) interferon.
b) antigen;
206
When neutrophils and macrophages squeeze out of capillaries to fight
off infection, it is called:
a) phagocytosis;
b) hemolysis;
c) interleukin;
d) diapedesis;
e) folliculitis.
d) diapedesis;
207
Each of the following is a component of plasma except:
a) water;
b) proteins;
c) formed elements;
d) nutrients;
e) salts.
c) formed elements;
208
Extracellular fluid in adults differs from intracellular fluid in that its:
а) volume is greater;
b) tonicity is lower;
c) Na+
concentration is lower;
d) sodium:potassium molar ratio is higher;
e) pH is lower.
d) sodium:potassium molar ratio is higher;
209
Total body water, expressed as a percentage of body weight:
а) can be measured with an indicator dilution technique using
deuterium oxide;
b) is smaller on average in women than in men;
c) rises following injection of posterior pituitary extracts;
d) is less than 80% in young adults;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
210
Breakdown of erythrocytes in the body:
а) occurs when they are 6–8 weeks old;
b) is named erythropoiesis;
c) yields iron, most of which is excreted in the urine;
d) yields bilirubin which is carried by plasma protein to the liver;
e) is required for the synthesis of bile salts.
d) yields bilirubin which is carried by plasma protein to the liver;
211
A person with group A blood
а) has anti-A antibody in the plasma;
b) may have the genotype AB;
c) may have a parent with group 0 blood;
d) may have children with group A or group 0 blood only;
c) may have a parent with group 0 blood;
212
The spleen destroys:
а) маcrophages;
b) healthy RBC;
c) neutrophils;
d) damaged RBC;
e) monocytes.
d) damaged RBC;
213
Plasma bilirubin:
а) is a steroid pigment;
b) is converted to biliverdin in the liver;
c) does not normally cross cerebral capillary walls;
d) is freely filtered in the renal glomerulus;
e) has red colour.
c) does not normally cross cerebral capillary walls;
214
Monocytes:
a) originate from precursor cells in lymph nodes;
b) can increase in number when their parent cells are stimulated by factors released from activated lymphocytes;
c) unlike granulocytes, do not migrate across capillary walls;
d) take part in haemostasis;
e) manufacture immunoglobulin M.
b) can increase in number when their parent cells are stimulated by factors released from activated lymphocytes;
215
Erythrocytes:
a) are responsible for the major part of blood viscosity;
b) contain the enzyme carbonic anhydrase;
c) metabolize glucose to produce CO2 and H2O;
d) carry O2 and CO2;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
216
Human plasma albumin:
a) contributes more to plasma colloid osmotic pressure than
globulin;
b) can not filter freely at the glomerulus;
c) is negatively charged at the normal pH of blood;
d) carries sex hormones in blood;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
217
Circulating red blood cells:
a) are about 1% nucleated;
b) take part in immunity;
c) are distributed evenly across the blood stream in large blood vessels;
d) deform as they pass through the capillaries;
e) travel at slower velocity in venules than in capillaries.
d) deform as they pass through the capillaries;
217
Neutrophil granulocytes:
a) are the most common leukocyte in normal blood;
b) contain proteolytic enzymes;
c) contain actin and myosin microfilaments;
d) are present in high concentration in pus;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
218
Bleeding from a small cut in the skin:
a) is normally diminished by local vascular spasm;
b) ceases within about five minutes in normal people;
c) is greater from warm skin than from cold skin;
d) is reduced if the affected limb is elevated;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
219
Blood:
a) makes up about 3 % of body weight;
b) forms a higher percentage of body weight in fat than in thin people;
c) squeezes out serum when it clots;
d) volume can be calculated by multiplying plasma volume by thehaematocrit (expressed as a percentage);
e) volume rises after diuretic is taken.
c) squeezes out serum when it clots;
219
Lymphocytes:
a) are motile;
b) can transform into plasma cells;
c) increase in number during infection;
d) decrease in number during immunosuppressive drug therapy;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
220
The pH:
a) of arterial blood normally ranges from 7.2 to 7.6;
b) units express [H+] in moles/litre;
c) of blood is directly proportional to the pCO2;
d) of blood is directly proportional to [HCO3]
e) of arterial blood is lower than venous blood.
d) of blood is directly proportional to [HCO3]
221
Blood eosinophils:
a) have agranular cytoplasm;
b) are about a quarter of all leukocytes;
c) are relatively abundant in the mucosa of the respiratory, urinary
and alimentary tracts;
d) are 50-70% of all leukocytes;
e) increase in number in viral infections.
c) are relatively abundant in the mucosa of the respiratory, urinary
and alimentary tracts;
222
Lymph:
a) doesn’t contain plasma proteins;
b) vessels are involved in the absorption of amino acids from the
intestine;
c) production decreases during muscular activity;
d) does not normally contain cells;
e) flow is aided by contraction of adjacent skeletal muscles.
e) flow is aided by contraction of adjacent skeletal muscles
223
Blood platelets:
a) are formed in the bone marrow;
b) are normally more numerous than white cells;
c) increase in number after injury and surgery;
d) alter shape when in contact with collagen;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
224
An appropriate dilution indicator for measuring:
a) total body water is sucrose;
b) plasma volume is radioactive sodium;
c) extracellular fluid volume is inulin;
d) intracellular fluid volume directly is heavy water (deuterium oxide);
e) total body water is radioactive iodine.
c) extracellular fluid volume is inulin;
225
Excessive tissue fluid (oedema) in the legs may:
a) be associated with a raised extracellular fluid volume;
b) result from hepatic disease;
c) result from blockage of pelvic lymphatics;
d) increase local interstitial fluid pressure;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
226
Haemolytic disease of the newborn:
a) can be prevented by injecting the mother with anti-D agglutinins just after delivery;
b) affects mainly babies of Rh-positive mothers;
c) occurs mainly in babies who lack D agglutinogen;
d) causes jaundice which clears rapidly after birth;
e) can be treated by transfusing the affected baby with Rh-positive blood.
a) can be prevented by injecting the mother with anti-D agglutinins just after delivery;
227
Patients with moderate to severe anaemia have a reduced:
a) cardiac output;
b) incidence of vascular bruits;
c) 2:3-diphosphoglycerate blood level;
d) arterial pO2;
e) capacity to raise oxygen consumption in exercise.
e) capacity to raise oxygen consumption in exercise.
228
Iron deficiency:
a) frequently follows persistent loss of blood from the body;
b) is more common in men than in women;
c) may cause anaemia by inhibiting the rate of multiplication of RBC stem
cells;
d) may cause large pale erythrocytes to appear in peripheral blood;
e) anaemia should normally be treated by injections of iron.
a) frequently follows persistent loss of blood from the body;
229
Severe reactions are likely after transfusion of blood group:
a) A to a group B person;
b) 0 to a group AB person;
c) 0 to a group A person;
d) A to a group AB person;
e) 0 Rh- negative to a group AB Rh-positive person.
a) A to a group B person;
230
The haematocrit (packed cell volume):
a) may be obtained by centrifugation of blood;
b) may be calculated by multiplying the mean cell volume by the red
cell count;
c) rises in a patient who sustains widespread burns;
d) rises following vomiting;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
231
Red cell formation is increased:
a) in blood donors one week after a blood donation;
b) in patients with haemolytic anaemia;
c) by giving injections of erythropoietin to nephrectomized patients;
d) in patients who have a raised blood reticulocyte count;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
232
Hematocrit reference range in men is :
а) 0.40 – 0.54 l∙l-1
b) 2.4 – 2.6 mmol∙l-1
c) 0.55 – 1.48 mmol∙l-1
d) 140 – 160 g∙l-1
а) 0.40 – 0.54 l∙l-1
233
Red blood cells would swell in which type of solution?
a) hypotonic;
b) isotonic;
c) hypertonic;
d) hydrophilic;
e) lipophilic.
a) hypotonic;
234
The number of oxygen molecules carried by one Hb molecule :
a) 1;
b) 2;
c) 4;
d) 8;
e) 6.
c) 4;
234
The most abundant type of protein in plasma is:
a) insulin;
b) globulin;
c) albumin;
d) glycogen;
e) fibrinogen.
c) albumin;
235
Majority of clotting factors are produced in:
a) liver;
b) kidney;
c) heart;
d) brain;
e) muscle.
a) liver;
236
Action of plasmin is:
a) to remove calcium;
b) antithrombin action;
c) to stimulate heparin;
d) to degenerate fibrin;
d) to degenerate fibrin;
236
Cellular immunity is due to:
a) B lymphocytes;
b) T lymphocytes;
c) neutrophils;
d) eosinophils;
e) erythrocytes.
b) T lymphocytes;
237
Which is the most rare blood group:
a) A (Rh+);
b) AB (Rh+);
c) AB (Rh-);
d) B (Rh-);
e) 0 (Rh+).
c) AB (Rh-);
238
The hemoglobin level in women is :
а) 4 - 5.2∙1012∙l-1
b) 135 - 145 mmol∙l-1
c) 140 ± 20 g∙l-1
d) 2.8 - 5.6 mmol∙l-1
e) 140 - 160 g%.
c) 140 ± 20 g∙l-1
238
The number of RBC in women is:
а) 140 - 160∙109∙l-1;
b) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1.
c) 4 - 11∙109∙l-1;
d) 200 - 400∙l09∙l-1;
e) 3.9-5.3∙1012∙l-1
e) 3.9-5.3∙1012∙l-1
239
The ESR (Westergren) reference values are :
а) women above 50 - 5 - 10 mm∙h-1
b) 140 - 160 g∙l-1
c) women up to 50: < 22 mm∙h-1
d) men up to 50: 3 - 8 mm∙h-1
e) 0.40 - 0.50∙l-1
c) women up to 50: < 22 mm∙h-1
240
In the WBC differential count the monocytes are :
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
e) 1 tо 14%.
240
Carbhemoglobin is a compound of :
а) hemoglobin with carbon dioxide;
b)hemoglobin with oxygen;
c) hemogobin with carbon monoxyde;
d) hemoglobin with nitrogen;
e) hemoglobin with Fe3
а) hemoglobin with carbon dioxide;
240
In the WBC defferntial count the neutrophilic band cells are:
а) 0 to 6%;
b) 0 to 2%;
c) 42 to 70%;
d) 22 to 48%;
а) 0 to 6%;
241
In the WBC defferential count the eosinophil granulocytes are:
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
а) 0 tо 6%;
242
In the WBC defferential count the basophil granulocytes are :
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
b) 0 tо 2%;
243
In the WBC defferential count the lymphocytes are :
а) 0 tо 6%;
b) 0 tо 2%;
c) 42 tо 70%;
d) 22 tо 48%;
e) 1 tо 14%.
d) 22 tо 48%;
244
Вleeding time is :
а) 1 - 12 ng∙ml-1
b) 2 – 5 min;
c) 11 - 14 s;
d) 2.0 - 4.5 g∙l-1
e) 136 - 151 mmol∙l-1
b) 2 – 5 min;
245
The valency of iron in the hem group is :
а) 1+;
b) 2+;
c) 3+;
d) 4+;
e) 5+.
b) 2+;
245
Which hormone(s) reduces erythropoiesis :
а) androgens;
b) growth hormone;
c) glucocorticoids;
d) estrogens;
d) estrogens;
246
Erythropoiesis stimulating factors are :
а) erythropoietin;
b) vit. В12 and folic acid;
c) iron;
d) testosterone;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
247
Аnemia is:
а) reduced hemoglobin level;
b) reduced RBC count;
c) reduced RBC count and/or hemoglobin level;
d) reduced RBC count;
e) hyperhemoglobinemia.
c) reduced RBC count and/or hemoglobin level;
248
The plasma of blood type A contains:
а) аglutinins α and β;
b) аglutinins α;
c) aglutinins β;
d) no аglutinins;
e) аglutinogen А.
c) aglutinins β;
249
The plasma of blood type В contains:
а) аglutinins α and β;
b) аglutinins α;
c) аglutinins β;
d) no aglutinins;
e) аglutinogen В.
b) аglutinins α;
250
lymphatic system is one of the main pathways for the absorption
of:
а) lipids;
b) carbohydrates;
c) proteins;
d) water;
e) micronutrients.
а) lipids
251
The plasma of blood type 0 contains:
а) аglutinins α and β;
b) аglutinins α;
c) аglutinins β;
d) no aglutinins;
а) аglutinins α and β;
252
Thick filaments in skeletal muscle are composed of:
a) actin;
b) myosin;
c) troponin;
d) calmodulin;
e) tropomyosin.
b) myosin;
253
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal muscle fibre:
a) the sarcomere shortens;
b) A-bands shorten;
c) tension increases;
d) fibres relax;
e) none of the above.
a) the sarcomere shortens;
254
During an isometric contraction of a skeletal muscle:
a) the I-bands shorten and the A-bands stay the same length;
b) the thick and thin filaments slide past each other;
c) sarcomere length does not change;
d) tension does not change;
e) none of the above.
c) sarcomere length does not change;
255
In skeletal muscle calcium facilitates contraction by binding to:
a) tropomyosin;
b) actin;
c) troponin;
d) myosin;
e) the thick filament.
c) troponin;
256
‘Motor unit’ refers to:
a) a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibres it innervates;
b) a single muscle fibre plus all the motor neurons that innervate it;
c) all of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle;
d) a pair of antagonistic muscles;
e) all of the muscles that affect the movement of any given joint.
a) a single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibres it innervates;
257
The cross bridges in the sarcomere of skeletal muscle are made of:
a) actin;
b) myosin;
c) troponin;
d) tropomyosin;
e) myelin.
b) myosin;
258
With regard to knee jerk:
a) it is a monosynaptic reflex;
b) the impulse travels via type Ca afferent fibres;
c) the Golgi body is an important component;
d) the stimulus begins in the tendon;
e) it is a visceral reflex.
a) it is a monosynaptic reflex;
259
The most important contractile proteins are:
a) myosin;
b) troponin;
c) actin;
d) tropomyosin;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
259
Which role do Ca2+ ions play in the muscle contraction?
a) excitation-contraction coupling;
b) prevent the contraction;
c) form cross bridges;
d) release energy for the contraction;
e) excite the myofiber.
a) excitation-contraction coupling;
260
Smooth muscle is not cross striated because:
a) of myosin and actin in the myofibril;
b) myofibrils are in register with each other;
c) myofibrils are not in register with each other;
d) it has gap junctions;
e) it is surrounded by a basal lamina.
c) myofibrils are not in register with each other;
260
During strong exercise, oxygen consumption is greatest in the:
a) brain;
b) heart;
c) skeletal muscles;
d) liver;
e) kidneys.
c) skeletal muscles;
261
An increase in force of a skeletal muscle contraction is initially achieved
by:
a) recruitment of nerve fibers;
b) recruitment of muscle fibers;
c) recruitment of motor units;
d) increased intracellular calcium;
e) increased lactic acid.
c) recruitment of motor units;
262
Intercalated discs are most likely to be observed in:
a) longitudinal section of skeletal muscle;
b) transverse section of skeletal muscle;
c) transverse section of cardiac muscle;
d) longitudinal section of cardiac muscle;
e) transverse section of smooth muscle.
d) longitudinal section of cardiac muscle;
263
Which area of the sarcomere consists only of myosin filaments?
a) I-bands;
b) H-zone;
c) A-bands;
d) M-line;
e) Z-disc.
b) H-zone;
264
Which muscle cell compound stores oxygen?
a) creatine phosphate;
b) glycogen;
c) hemoglobin;
d) myoglobin;
e) lipid droplets.
d) myoglobin;
264
Smooth muscle is:
a) voluntary and spindle shaped;
b) voluntary and striated;
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
d) involuntary and striated;
e) innervated by the somatic nervous system.
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
265
Skeletal muscle is:
a) voluntary and spindle shaped;
b) voluntary and striated;
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
d) involuntary and striated;
e) innervated by ANS.
b) voluntary and striated;
265
Cardiac muscle is:
a) voluntary and spindle shaped;
b) voluntary and striated;
c) involuntary and spindle shaped;
d) involuntary and striated;
e) innervated by the somatic nervous system.
d) involuntary and striated;
266
Which type of muscle cell is multinucleated?
a) cardiac;
b) smooth;
c) skeletal;
d) cardiac and smooth;
e) none of the above.
c) skeletal;
267
What is an example of a smooth muscle?
a) masseter (face);
b) bladder;
c) heart;
d) pronator teres (forearm);
e) rectus abdominis (belly).
b) bladder;
268
The muscular system is controlled by which system?
a) the cardiovascular system;
b) the endocrine system;
c) the nervous system;
d) the respiratory system;
e) the urinary system.
c) the nervous system;
269
How many actin filaments surround each myosin filament?
a) two;
b) four;
c) six;
d) eight;
e) seven.
c) six;
270
The neutomuscular synapses are:
а) only excitatory;
b) only inhibitory;
c) neither excitatory nor inhibitory;
d) excitatory or inhibitory depending on the receptors;
e) c and d.
а) only excitatory;
271
Which of the following should affect the strength or force of skeletal
muscle contraction?
a) the number of muscle fibers at rest;
b) the degree of muscle stretch;
c) the series-elastic elements;
d) stronger stimuli;
e) concentration of Na+
.
b) the degree of muscle stretch;
272
The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores:
a) calcium ions;
b) chloride ions;
c) sodium ions;
d) potassium ions;
e) hydrogen ions.
a) calcium ions
273
Which of these is true of skeletal muscle:
a) spindle-shaped cells;
b) under involuntary control;
c) many peripherally located nuclei per muscle fiber;
d) forms the walls of hollow internal organs;
e) may be autorhythmic.
c) many peripherally located nuclei per muscle fiber;
274
Which of these is not a major property of muscle?
a) contractility;
b) elasticity;
c) excitability;
d) extensibility;
e) secretability.
e) secretability
275
Mysoin myofilaments are:
a) attached to the Z-disk;
b) found primarily in the I band;
c) thinner than actin myofilaments;
d) absent from the H zone;
e) attached to filaments that form the M-line.
e) attached to filaments that form the M-line.
276
What is each myofibril made of?
a) many muscle fibers;
b) contains sarcoplasmic reticulum;
c) many sarcomeres;
d) contains T-tubules;
e) is the same thing as a muscle fiber.
c) many sarcomeres;
277
The part of the sarcolemma that invaginates into the interior of skeletal muscle fibers is the:
a) T-tubule system;
b) sarcoplasmic reticulum;
c) myofibrils;
d) terminal cisternae;
e) mitochondria.
a) T-tubule system;
278
Which of these events occurs during the lag (latent) phase of muscle
contraction?
a) cross-bridge movement;
b) active transport of Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum;
c) Ca2+ binding to troponin;
d) sarcomere shortening;
e) breakdown of ATP to ADP.
c) Ca2+ binding to troponin;
279
Muscle contraction which cannot move weight because it is too heavy is:
a) isometric;
b) isotonic;
c) isokinetic;
d) concentric;
e) eccentric.
a) isometric;
280
33. Voluntary skeletal muscles in the leg are innervated by:
a) postganglionic neurons;
b) somatic motor neurons;
c) preganglionic neurons;
d) CNS fibers;
e) all the above.
b) somatic motor neurons;
281
A small motor unit would control which type of movement?
a) fast but brief;
b) intense and strong;
c) delicate and precise;
d) sprinting;
e) marathon running.
c) delicate and precise
281
Muscle fibers type I have only one of the folloving features:
a) slow onset of contraction;
b) easily fatigued;
c) many enzymes for glycolysis;
d) a slow refractory period;
e) low mitochondrial content.
a) slow onset of contraction;
282
Muscle fibers type IIa are:
a) slow-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable resistant;
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatiguee resistant;
e) fast-twitch, oxidative, fatigable.
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
283
Muscle fibers type IIb are:
a) slow-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable resistant;
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatigue resistant;
e) fast-twitch, oxidative, fatigable.
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
284
Muscle fibers type I are:
a) slow-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable resistant;
b) fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic, relatively fatigue resistant;
c) fast-twitch, glycolytic, fatigable;
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatigue resistant;
e) fast-twitch, oxidative, fatigable.
d) slow-twitch, oxidative, fatigue resistant;
285
These bands of the sarcomere do not shorten during contraction:
a) A bands;
b) H, I and M bands;
c) Z discs and A bands;
d) I bands;
e) a and d.
a) A bands;
286
The role of transverse tubules in skeletal muscle fibers is to:
a) connect the sarcomeres to each other;
b) bind the myofibrils;
c) spread the action potential quickly;
d) connect the sarcolemma to the sarcoplasmic reticulum;
e) bind to the receptors – dihydro pyridine receptors.
c) spread the action potential quickly;
287
The smooth muscles are innervated by:
а) -motor neurons in the spinal cord;
b) -motor neurons;
c) pseudounipolar neurons in the spinal ganglia;
d) postganglionic neurons of the ANS;
e) preganglionic neurons of the ANS.
d) postganglionic neurons of the ANS;
288
The function of tropomyosin in skeletal muscle is:
a) sliding on actin to produce shortening;
b) releasing Ca++ after initiation of contraction;
c) binding to myosin during contraction;
d) covering up the actin binding sites of myosin at rest;
e) releasing Na+ after contraction.
d) covering up the actin binding sites of myosin at rest
289
The cell membranes in skeletal muscle:
a) are impermeable to fat-soluble substances;
b) are more permeable to sodium than to potassium ions;
c) become more permeable to glucose in the presence of insulin;
d) become less permeable to potassium in the presence of insulin;
e) are ligand dependent.
c) become more permeable to glucose in the presence of insulin;
290
A skeletal muscle fibre at rest:
a) presents with a membrane which is positively charged on the inside
with respect to the outside;
b) contains intracellular stores of calcium ions;
c) is normally innervated by more than one motor neurone;
d) becomes more excitable as its resting membrane potential increase in
absolute value;
e) becomes less excitable as the extracellular ionized calcium levels fall.
b) contains intracellular stores of calcium ions;
291
A property shared by:
a) skeletal and cardiac muscles is their striated microscopical appearance;
b) cardiac and visceral smooth muscles is their spontaneous activity
when denervated;
c) skeletal and cardiac ventricular muscles is their stable resting
membrane potential;
e) all types of muscles is that contraction strength is related to
their initial length;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
291
In skeletal muscle:
a) contraction occurs when its pacemaker cells depolarize
sufficiently to reach the threshold for firing;
b) calcium is taken up by the sarcotubular system when it contracts;
c) actin and myosin filaments shorten when it contracts;
q
e) contraction strength is related to the influx of K+
ions.
d) the sarcomeres shorten during contraction;
292
Visceral smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle in that:
a) it contracts when stretched;
b) it is not paralyzed when its motor nerve supply is cut;
c) its cells have unstable resting membrane potentials;
d) excitation depends more on influx of extracellular calcium than
release of calcium from endoplasmic reticulum;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
293
The action potential of skeletal muscle:
a) has a prolonged plateau phase;
b) spreads inwards to all parts of the muscle via T-tubules;
c) is longer than the action potential of cardiac muscle;
d) is not essential for muscle conduction;
e) has different amplitudes.
b) spreads inwards to all parts of the muscle via T-tubules;
294
Smooth muscle need help of:
a) calmodulin for contraction;
b) acetylcholine for contraction;
c) K+
for contraction;
d) monoamine oxidase for contraction;
e) secondary messenger for contraction.
a) calmodulin for contraction;
295
The sarcomere is:
а) the principal protein in the skeletal muscle;
b) the basic functional unit of the smooth muscle;
c) the main energy source of muscle contraction;
d) the basic functional unit of the muscle fibre;
e) the main proprioceptor.
d) the basic functional unit of the muscle fibre;
296
The number of muscle fibres in a motor unit determines:
а) its maximum contraction force;
b) the contraction speed;
c) whether or not the muscle contractions are ‘concentric’ or ‘eccentric’;
d) whether or not the muscle contactions are isometric or isotonic;
e) whether or not the muscle contractions are single or tetanic.
а) its maximum contraction force;
297
The motor units of the skeletal muscles are composed of:
а) fast- and slow-twitch muscle fibres;
b) type 1 and type 2 muscle fibres;
c) type 1 and type 2b (white) fibres;
d) uniform fibre typе;
e) three different types of muscle fibres.
d) uniform fibre typе;
298
The blocker of N-cholinoreceptors in the neuromuscular synapse is:
а) curare;
b) glycine;
c) GAMA;
d) аtropine;
e) strychnine.
а) curare;
299
The ‘master gland’ of the endocrine system is:
a) the anterior pituitary gland;
b) the posterior pituitary gland;
c) the hypothalamus;
d) the pancreas;
e) the testis.
c) the hypothalamus;
300
Insulin:
a) increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose-tissue cells;
b) increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by most nerve cells;
c) increases the uptake of glucose by liver cells;
d) increases the uptake of glucose by enterocytes;
e) increases the uptake of glucose by tubular cells.
a) increases the uptake and utilization of glucose by muscle and adipose-tissue cells;
301
Glucose levels in the blood are lowered by the hormone:
a) glucagon;
b) oxytocin;
c) insulin;
d) cholecystokinin;
e) adrenalin.
c) insulin;
302
Hormones:
a) act as coenzymes;
b) act as enzymes;
c) influence synthesis of enzymes;
d) belong to the B-complex group;
e) transmit impulses.
c) influence synthesis of enzymes;
303
A hormone released from the anterior pituitary is:
a) growth hormone;
b) vasopressin;
c) oxytocin;
d) epinephrine;
e) insulin.
a) growth hormone;
304
A hormone released from the posterior pituitary is:
a) prolactin;
b) thyrotropic hormone;
c) vasopressin;
d) adrenocorticotropic hormone;
e) growth hormone.
c) vasopressin;
305
Progesterone is produced mainly by the:
a) corpus luteum;
b) hypothalamus;
c) seminiferous tubules;
d) pituitary gland;
e) oviduct.
a) corpus luteum;
306
Ovulation is caused by preovulatory increase of the hormone:
a) FSH;
b) progesterone;
c) oxytocin;
d) oestrogen;
e) LH.
e) LH.
307
In humans, fertilization usually occurs in the:
a) vagina;
b) cervix;
c) uterine cavity;
d) uterine tubes;
e) abdominal cavity.
d) uterine tubes;
308
Excessive secretion of aldosterone causes:
a) hyponatremia;
b) hypertension;
c) alkalosis;
d) polyuria;
e) all of the above.
b) hypertension;
309
The hormone responsible for setting the basal metabolic rate is:
a) melanin;
b) melatonin;
c) insulin;
d) thyroxine;
e) glucagon.
d) thyroxine;
310
Which is the hormone with the fastest final effect?
a) triiodothyronine;
b) thyroxin;
c) thyroglobulin;
d) TSH;
e) TSH-RH.
a) triiodothyronine;
311
ADH is secreted in case of:
a) hyperglycaemia;
b) hypervolemia;
c) decreased blood osmolarity;
d) muscle relaxation;
e) dehydration.
e) dehydration.
312
Which of the following will increase plasma potassium concentration:
a) -adrenergic receptor agonist;
b) insulin;
c) aldosterone;
d) epinephrine;
e) none of the above.
e) none of the above.
313
The hypothalamus inhibits the release of:
a) TSH;
b) ACTH;
c) FSH;
d) somatotrophic hormone;
e) oxytocin.
d) somatotrophic hormone;
314
Oxytocin causes:
a) decrease in systolic blood pressure;
b) water intoxication;
c) increase in cardiac pressure;
d) increase in systolic blood pressure;
e) all of the above.
a) decrease in systolic blood pressure;
315
ADH secretion is decreased by:
a) morphine;
b) nicotine;
c) nausea and vomiting;
d) hypoxia;
e) alcohol.
e) alcohol.
316
Secondary amenorrhoea can most commonly be caused under the following conditions EXCEPT:
a) age above 60 years;
b) stress;
c) pregnancy;
d) competitive athletes;
е) starvation.
a) age above 60 years;
317
Hormones of the hypothalamus secreted by the posterior pituitary gland
are:
a) GH and LH;
b) CRH and TRH;
c) ADH and oxytocin;
d) ADH and vasopressin;
e) prolactin and vasopressin.
c) ADH and oxytocin;
318
Neurohormones of the hypothalamus that inhibit hormone
secretion by the anterior pituitary gland are:
a) histamine, serotonin, bradikinin;
b) endorphin, enkephalin, growth hormone-releasing hormone;
c) growth hormone inhibiting hormone, prolactin-inhibiting hormone,
melanocyteinhibiting hormone;
d) vasopressin, oxytocin, ADH;
e) motilin, gastrin, growth hormone-inhibiting hormone.
c) growth hormone inhibiting hormone, prolactin-inhibiting hormone,
319
Hormones of the anterior pituitary gland with effect on definite glands
are:
a) ADH, oxytocin, vasopressin, prolactin;
b) ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH;
c) ACTH, cortisol, dehydroepiandrosterone;
d) FSH, LH, estrogens, progesterone;
e) TSH, T3, T4, calcitonin.
b) ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH;
320
In the hypothalamus is not formed;
a) oxytocin;
b) growth hormone-inhibiting hormone;
c) luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH);
d) growth hormone (GH);
e) ADH.
d) growth hormone (GH);
321
Everything is true for ADH except that:
a) it increases diuresis;
b) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland;
c) hyperosmolarity increases ADH secretion;
d) is a vasoconstrictor;
e) is formed in the hypothalamus.
a) it increases diuresis;
322
Contractility of the uterus is increased by:
a) testosterone;
b) oxytocin;
c) aldosteron;
d) progesterone;
e) prolactin.
b) oxytocin;
323
The growth hormone (GH):
a) exerts anabolic effect;
b) exerts catabolic effect;
c) is secreted by the posterior pituitary effect;
d) is secreted by the hypothalamus;
e) none of the above.
a) exerts anabolic effect;
324
Iodine containing (+) and iodine not containing (-) hormones of the
thyroid gland are:
a) triiodothyronine (+ ), thyroxine (+), TSH (-);
b) TSH (+), thyroxine (+), parathyroid hormone (-);
c) triiodothyronine (+), TSH (+), calcitonin (-);
d) triiodothironine (+), thyroxine (+), calcitonin (-);
e) none of the above.
d) triiodothironine (+), thyroxine (+), calcitonin (-);
324
Which of the following hormones exerts no effect on growth:
a) testosterone;
b) iodine containing hormones;
c) insulin;
d) vasopressin;
e) GH.
d) vasopressin;
325
The basic metabolic rate is increased by:
a) the growth hormone and insulin;
b) the iodine-containing hormones and catecholamines;
c) the mineralcorticoids and glucocorticoids;
d) the iodine-containing hormones and insulin;
e) the LH and FSH.
b) the iodine-containing hormones and catecholamines
326
Humoral factors regulating calcium-phosphorus metabolism are:
a) parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, insulin;
b) calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, calcitriol;
c) vitamin D, T3, T4;
d) FSH, progesterone, oxytocin;
e) none of the above.
b) calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, calcitriol;
327
The following hormones are secreted by the pancreas:
a) insulin, somatostatin, epinephrin, trypsinogen;
b) insulin, glucagon, gastrin, somatostatin;
c) insulin, glucagon, gastrin, lipase;
d) glucagon, glucose, trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen;
e) insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, aldosterone.
b) insulin, glucagon, gastrin, somatostatin;
328
Insulin increases the rate of glucose entering into:
a) the skeletal muscle cells;
b) most of brain's neurons;
c) tubular cells of kidneys;
d) small intestine's mucous cells;
e) liver.
a) the skeletal muscle cells;
329
The suprarenal medula secretes:
a) aldosteron, cortisol;
b) epinephrine; norepinephrine;
c) insillin, glucagon;
d) dehydroepiandrosterone, progesterone;
e) renin, angiotensin II.
b) epinephrine; norepinephrine;
330
The suprarenal cortex secretes:
a) cateclolamines, androgens, iodine containing hormones;
b) glucocorticoids, aldosteron, gastrin;
c) mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones;
d) aldosteron, ADH, renin;
e) none of the above.
c) mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, sex hormones;
331
Aldosteron:
a) increases Na+ and K+ excretion;
b) decreases Na+ and K+ excretion;
c) increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion;
d) increases Na+ excretion and K+ reabsorption;
e) none of the above.
c) increases Na+ reabsorption and K+ excretion;
332
The excretion of sodium is increased by:
a) atrial natriuretic peptide;
b) aldosteron;
c) dehydroepiandrostetone;
d) renin;
e) angiotensin II.
a) atrial natriuretic peptide;
333
Glucocorticoids decrease the level of:
a) neutrophils and basophils;
b) eosinophils and lymphocytes;
c) monocytes and neutrophils;
d) eosinophils and thrombocytes;
e) none of the ahove.
b) eosinophils and lymphocytes
334
Hormones that have a hyperglycemic effect are:
a) GH, catecholacholamines;
b) triiodothyronine, thyroxine;
c) glucagon, glucocorticoids;
d) all of them;
e) none of the above.
d) all of them;
335
Catecholamines are:
a) hormones;
b) neurotransmitters;
c) neuromodulators;
d) all of the above;
e) none of the above.
d) all of the above;
336
Which are the male sex hormones and where is their main site of secretion:
a) progesteron (adrenal glands), estrogens (adrenal glands);
b) testosterone (testis), dehydroepiandrosterone (adrenal glands);
c) estrogens (placenta), testosterone (testis);
d) dehydroepiandrosterone (adrenal glands), prolactin (testis);
e) none of the above.
b) testosterone (testis), dehydroepiandrosterone (adrenal glands);
337
Which of the hormones are gestagens and where are they secreted:
a) progesterone (ovaries, placenta);
b) prolactin (ovaries);
c) prostaglandins (ovaries, placenta);
d) estradiol (ovaries);
e) none of the above.
a) progesterone (ovaries, placenta);
338
Absolutely necessary for the normal spermatogenesis is/are:
a) LH only;
b) FSH only;
c) testosterone and FSH;
d) oxytocin and testosterone;
e) androgens and LH.
d) oxytocin and testosterone;
339
Immediately before ovulation there is an increase of the serum level of:
a) LH;
b) oxitocin;
c) prolactin;
d) estrogens;
e) progesterone.
a) LH;
340
The tests for early pregnancy are based on the presence in the urine of:
a) LH;
b) FSH;
c) estradiol;
d) progesterone;
e) human horiongonadotropins (hHGs).
e) human horiongonadotropins (hHGs).
341
The normal duration of the menstrual period is (days):
a) 21 – 31;
b) 28;
c) 20 – 25;
d) 28 – 30;
e) none of the above.
a) 21 – 31;
342
During stress the level of glucose is increased because of:
a) the level of glucocorticoids is increased;
b) the level of epinephrine is increased;
c) depressed secretion of insulin;
d) all of the above;
e) none of the above.
d) all of the above;
342
The parathyroid glands secrete:
a) calcitonin;
b) calcium;
c) parathyroid hormone;
d) vitamin D;
e) catecholamines.
c) parathyroid hormone;
343
Spasm of the bronchi occurs when:
a) the level of catecholamines is increased;
b) the level of histamine is increased;
c) the level of glucocorticoids is increased;
d) the level of GH is increased;
e) the level of angiotensin II is increased.
b) the level of histamine is increased;
344
The reason iodine is in table salt is:
a) to prevent diabetes;
b) to prevent endemic goiter;
c) to prevent Addison’s disease;
d) to prevent Cushing syndrome;
e) to prevent osteoporosis.
b) to prevent endemic goiter
344
Which of the following hormones have no lipolytic effect:
a) insulin;
b) glucocorticoids;
c) testosterone;
d) cortisol;
e) growth hormone.
a) insulin;
345
A feeling of anxiety is caused by:
a) glucagon;
b) insulin;
c) epinephrine (adrenalin);
d) adrenocorticotropic hormone;
e) none of the above.
c) epinephrine (adrenalin);
346
All hormones react to a negative feedback except:
a) progesterone;
b) estrogen;
c) prolactin;
d) oxytocin;
e) none of the above.
d) oxytocin;
347
A high blood calcium level may be due to:
a) calcitonin;
b) parathyroid hormone;
c) glucocorticoids;
d) glucagon;
e) testosterone.
b) parathyroid hormone;
348
Lipid hormones derived from cholesterol are:
a) proteins;
b) amino acids;
c) polypeptides;
d) steroids;
e) eicosanoids.
d) steroids;
349
This type of hormone must bind to a receptor protein on the plasma
membrane of the cell:
a) water soluble and polypeptide;
b) lipid soluble;
c) steroid;
d) polypeptide and lipid soluble;
e) steroid and lipid soluble.
a) water soluble and polypeptide;
350
Endocrine glands release hormones in response to:
a) hormones from other endocrine glands;
b) chemical characteristics of the blood;
c) neural stimulation;
d) all of the above;
e) none of the above.
d) all of the above;
351
The anterior pituitary secretes:
a) oxytocin;
b) endorphins;
c) ADH;
d) TRH (thyreoliberin);
e) catecholamines.
b) endorphins;
352
This hormone is only produced normally in the body when a woman is
pregnant:
a) estrogen;
b) choriongonadotropic hormone;
c) progesterone;
d) FSH;
e) LH.
b) choriongonadotropic hormone;
353
Contractions of the uterus are stimulated by the release of:
a) oxytocin;
b) FSH;
c) LH;
d) prolactin;
e) estrogen.
a) oxytocin;
354
Gland which shrinks in size during adulthood, and has hormones that
function in the maturation of T-lymphocytes:
a) lymph nodes;
b) thymus;
c) spleen;
d) GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue);
e) tonsils.
b) thymus;
355
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secretion increases:
a) when the median eminence of the hypothalamus is stimulated;
b) when cortisol blood levels fall;
c) in bursts during the night as the normal hour of wakening
approaches;
d) following severe trauma;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
356
Melatonin
a) is produced mainly in the pineal gland;
b) is synthesized in the body from serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine);
c) blood levels are highest during the night;
d) influences the secretion rates of pituitary hormones;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
357
Thyroid hormones, when secreted in excess, may cause an increase in
the:
a) basal metabolic rate;
b) frequency of defaecation;
c) energy expenditure required for a given workload;
d) heart rate when cardiac adrenergic and cholinergic receptors are
blocked;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
358
Aldosterone secretion is increased by an increase in plasma of:
a) angiotensin II concentration;
b) potassium concentration;
c) renin concentration;
d) ACTH concentration;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
359
Glucocorticoid injections lead to increases in:
a) lymph gland size;
b) fibroblastic activity;
c) anabolic activity in muscle;
d) bone resorption;
e) inflammation and immunity.
d) bone resorption;
360
The growth hormone:
a) promotes positive nitrogen and phosphorus balance;
b) secretion is under hypothalamic control;
c) secretion surges during sleep;
d) stimulates the liver to secrete somatomedins which regulate bone
and cartilage growth;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
361
Parathormone:
a) acts directly on bone to increase bone resorption;
b) increases the urinary output of calcium;
c) increases phosphate excretion;
d) promotes absorption of calcium from the intestines;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
362
Antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin):
a) is released from nerve endings in the posterior pituitary gland;
b) tends to raise the osmolality of plasma;
c) increases the permeability of the cells to water in the loop of Henle;
d) secretion is little affected (less than 10%) by changes in plasma
osmolality;
e) decreases water reabsorbtion in kidneys.
a) is released from nerve endings in the posterior pituitary gland;
363
Pancreatic glucagon:
a) is produced by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans;
b) is a polypeptide;
c) output is inversely proportional to the blood glucose level;
d) increases the breakdown of liver glycogen;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
364
The concentration of ionized calcium in plasma is:
a) the main regulator of parathormone secretion;
b) about 50 % of the total plasma calcium concentration;
c) reduced when plasma pH rises;
d) independent of the plasma albumin changes;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
365
Cortisol:
a) is bound to an alpha globulin in the plasma;
b) injections lead to a rise in arterial pressure;
c) inhibits release of ACTH from the anterior pituitary gland;
d) is released with a circadian variation so that cortisol blood levels
peak in the morning;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
366
Releasing hormones produced in the hypothalamus:
a) are secreted by cells in the median eminence;
b) pass down blood vessel to reach the pituitary gland;
c) may control the output of more than one pituitary hormone;
d) regulate the release of thyrotropin;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
367
Adrenaline secretion from the adrenal glands increases the:
a) blood glucose level;
b) blood free fatty acid level;
c) blood flow to skeletal muscle;
d) release of renin in the kidneys;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
368
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion is increased:
a) after partial removal of the thyroid gland;
b) in infants born without a thyroid gland;
c) during cold seasons;
d) when the diet is deficient in iodine;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
369
Insulin:
a) secretion is decreased by sympathetic nerve activity;
b) facilitates entry of glucose into skeletal muscle;
c) facilitates entry of amino acids into skeletal muscle;
d) secretion is increased by vagal nerve activity;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
370
The pituitary gland:
a) regulates activity in all other endocrine glands;
b) output of oxytocin is regulated by hypothalamic releasing factors;
c) responds to nervous and hormonal influences from the brain;
d) secretes antidiuretic hormone when blood osmolality falls;
e) does not secrete melanotropin.
c) responds to nervous and hormonal influences from the brain;
371
Thyrocalcitonin:
a) is produced by the follicular cells of the thyroid gland;
b) increases basal metabolic rate;
c) reduces blood calcium in parathyroidectomized animals;
d) secretion occurs when the blood phosphate level rises;
e) stimulates osteoclast activity.
c) reduces blood calcium in parathyroidectomized animals;
372
Adrenaline differs from noradrenaline in that it:
a) increases the heart rate when injected intravenously;
b) is the main catecholamine secreted by the adrenal medulla;
c) is a more potent dilator of the bronchi;
d) dilates blood vessels in mucous membranes;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
373
Growth hormone secretion:
a) increases when the blood glucose level falls;
b) has a lactogenic effect;
c) increases the size of viscera;
d) stimulates liver production of somatomedins;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
374
Vitamin D:
a) increases the intestinal absorption of calcium;
b) is essential for normal calcification of bones in childhood;
c) requires hepatic modification for activation;
d) deficiency may result in hyperparathyroidism;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
375
Prolactin:
a) has a similar chemical structure and physiological action to luteinizing
hormone;
b) is responsible for breast growth in puberty;
c) release is inhibited by dopamine;
d) secretion is inhibited by suckling of the breast;
e) causes ejection of milk by the breast during suckling.
c) release is inhibited by dopamine;
376
Thyroxine:
a) increases the resting rate of carbon dioxide production;
b) is essential for normal development of the brain;
c) is essential for normal red cell production;
d) acts more slowly than triiodothyronine (T3);
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
377
Parathormone:
a) increases the renal clearance of phosphate;
b) mobilizes bone calcium independently of its actions on the kidney;
c) in the blood rises when the calcium level falls;
d) stimulates the final activation of vitamin D (cholecalciferol) in the
kidney;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
378
The chemical structure of insulin:
a) contains a sterol ring;
b) is identical in all mammalian species;
c) is such that it is effective when taken by mouth;
d) has been synthesized in the laboratory;
e) none of the above.
d) has been synthesized in the laboratory;
379
Hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex:
a) include cholesterol;
b) are mostly bound to plasma proteins;
c) include cateholamines;
d) are excreted mainly in the bile after conjugation;
e) are essential for the maintenance of pregnancy.
b) are mostly bound to plasma proteins;
380
Androgen binding protein is produced by:
a) adrenals;
b) hypothalamus;
c) Sertoli cells;
d) Leydig cells;
е) ovaries.
c) Sertoli cells;
381
Secretin differs from cholecystokinin-pancreozymin (CCK-PZ) in that
it:
a) is formed by mucosal cells in the upper small intestine;
b) stimulates the pancreas to secrete a juice which is rich in digestive
enzymes;
c) stimulates the pancreas to secrete a watery alkaline juice;
d) has higher effect on gallbladder smooth muscle;
e) increases gastric motility.
c) stimulates the pancreas to secrete a watery alkaline juice;
382
Inhibition of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) decreases the:
a) formation of angiotensin II;
b) plasma renin level;
c) diuresis;
d) circulating level of angiotensin I;
e) total body potassium.
a) formation of angiotensin II;
383
Early detection of pregnancy depends on detection of:
a) FSH;
b) progesteron;
c) LH;
d) hCG;
e) estrogen.
d) hCG;
384
Sudden complete loss of parathyroid function:
a) leads to skeletal muscle spasms;
b) may be fatal if treatment is not given to raise the blood level of
Ionized calcium;
c) may be treated in the short-term by slow intravenous injection of
calcium ions;
d) may be treated in the long-term by regular doses of vitamin D;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
385
When a patient with diabetes insipidus is treated successfully with
antidiuretic hormone the:
a) urinary flow rate should fall by about 50 per cent;
b) urinary output should be reduced to around 5 ml/minute;
c) urinary osmolality should rise to between 100 and 200 mOS/litre;
d) blood pressure should stabilize within the normal range;
e) salt intake should be carefully regulated.
d) blood pressure should stabilize within the normal range;
386
Hyperthyroidism is associated with a:
a) positive nitrogen balance;
b) decreased urinary excretion of calcium;
c) clinical picture consistent with excessive beta adrenoceptor stimulation;
d) decreased basal metabolic rate;
e) rise in the level of thyroxine-binding protein in plasma.
c) clinical picture consistent with excessive beta adrenoceptor stimulation;
387
Insulin:
a) requirements at night are similar to those during the day;
b) half-life is usually reduced in patients with diabetes mellitus;
c) is not bound to proteins in the blood;
d) requirements are increased in obesity;
e) requirements are increased by exercise.
d) requirements are increased in obesity;
388
An adrenal medullary tumour (phaeochromocytoma) may cause an
increase in:
a) systolic blood pressure which may be transient or constant;
b) tremor of the extended hand;
c) basal metabolic rate;
d) urinary catecholamines;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
389
The risk of tetany is increased by:
a) hypocalcemia;
b) sudden rises in plasma magnesium;
c) removal of the anterior pituitary gland;
d) the onset of respiratory failure;
e) the onset of renal failure.
a) hypocalcemia;
390
Excessive glucocorticoid production (Cushing’s syndrome) causes an
increase in:
a) skin thickness;
b) bone strength;
c) blood glucose and arterial pressure;
d) immunity;
e) the rate of wound healing.
c) blood glucose and arterial pressure;
391
A pituitary tumour secreting excess growth hormone (GH) in an adult
may lead to:
a) myxoedema;
b) giantism;
c) reduced levels of somatomedins in blood;
d) cretinism;
e) raised blood glucose level.
e) raised blood glucose level
392
In diabetic ketosis there is a decreased metabolic breakdown of:
a) ketones;
b) glycogen;
c) glucose;
d) fat;
e) amino acids.
c) glucose;
393
An oral glucose tolerance test in a patient with:
a) diabetes mellitus shows a higher than normal fasting blood glucose
level;
b) diabetes mellitus shows glycosuria when blood glucose is three
times the normal fasting level;
c) diabetes mellitus shows a delayed return to the fasting blood
glucose level;
d) malabsorption syndrome shows a lower than normal peak level for
blood glucose;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above
394
Surgical removal of the pituitary gland is likely to lead to a decrease in:
a) menstrual frequency;
b) axillary hair;
c) sexual desire (libido);
d) breast size;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
395
In the normal menstrual cycle:
a) the proliferative phase depends on oestrogen secretion;
b) cervical mucus becomes more fluid around the time of ovulation;
d) ovulation is observed after a surge in blood luteinizing hormone level;
e) basal body temperature is higher after ovulation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
396
Fertilization of the human ovum normally:
a) occurs in the fallopian tubes;
b) prevents further spermatozoa from entering the ovum;
c) occurs 5–7 days before implantation;
d) leads to the secretion of human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
within two weeks;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
397
Secretion of testosterone:
a) depresses pituitary secretion of LH;
b) causes the epiphyses of long bones to unite;
c) may lead to a positive nitrogen balance;
d) stimulates growth of body hair;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
398
Human chorionic gonadotrophic hormone (hCG):
a) is a steroid;
b) acts directly on the uterus to maintain the endometrium;
c) is formed in the anterior pituitary;
d) rises its blood level steadily throughout pregnancy;
e) can be detected in the urine as an early sign of pregnancy.
e) can be detected in the urine as an early sign of pregnancy.
399
Compared with the adult, the newborn has less ability to:
a) excrete bilirubin;
b) maintain a constant body temperature;
c) manufacture antibodies;
d) dilute and concentrate urine;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
400
Androgens are secreted in the:
a) fetus in greater quantities than in early childhood;
b) female by the ovary;
c) male by the adrenal cortex;
d) male in decreasing quantities after the age of 30;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
401
Cryptorchidism means:
a) descent of the testicles;
b) hypogonadism;
c) hyperfunction of the testicles;
d) undescended testicles;
е) priapism.
d) undescended testicles;
402
Fetal haemoglobin:
a) is the only type identifiable in fetal blood;
b) forms the bulk of total haemoglobin for the first year of life;
c) has a higher oxygen-carrying capacity than adult haemoglobin;
d) binds 2.3-DPG more avidly than does adult haemoglobin;
e) has a higher affinity than the adult form for oxygen at low pO2.
e) has a higher affinity than the adult form for oxygen at low pO2.
403
For normal development and fertility of spermatozoa there must be:
a) secretion of testosterone;
b) secretion of luteinizing hormone;
c) secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone;
d) a testicular temperature under 37oC;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
404
In the mammary glands:
a) milk formation can be depressed by hypothalamic activity;
b) maintenance of lactation depends on suckling;
c) lactation ceases if the anterior pituitary gland is destroyed;
d) milk ejection ceases if the posterior pituitary gland is destroyed;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
405
The male postpubertal state differs from the prepubertal in that:
a) there is a greater output of l7-ketosteroids in the urine;
b) skeletal muscle is stronger per unit mass of tissue;
c) the circulating level of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is higher;
d) hypothalamic output of gonadotrophin-releasing factors is greater;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
406
The interstitial cells of the testis:
a) contribute to the volume of seminal fluid;
b) are the source of the hormone inhibin;
c) are stimulated to secrete by luteinizing hormone (LH);
d) are stimulated to secrete by FSH;
e) are non-functional unless the testis descends from the abdomen to the
scrotum.
c) are stimulated to secrete by luteinizing hormone (LH
407
Secretion of the growth hormone:
a) increases during REM sleep;
b) increases during exercise;
c) increases during starvation;
d) increases during non-REM sleep;
е) none of the above.
d) increases during non-REM sleep;
408
Testosterone is secreted by:
a) Sertoli cells of the testes;
b) cells of the adrenal medulla;
c) cells of the hypothalamus;
d) Leydig cells of the testes;
е) B cells of the pancreas.
d) Leydig cells of the testes;
409
Ejaculation of semen:
a) depends on a spinal cord reflex;
b) depends on sympathetic nerve activity;
c) involves rhythmic contractions of striated muscles;
d) is accompanied by contraction of the cremasteric muscles;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
410
Cessation of menstruation (secondary amenorrhoea) may occur
because of:
a) psychological stress;
b) severe weight loss;
c) continuous administration of oestrogens;
d) continuous administration of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
(GnRH);
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
411
Methods for reducing fertility include:
a) bilateral ligation and division of the uterine tubes;
b) bilateral ligation and division of the vas deferens;
c) the use of agents which prevent the fertilized ovum from
implantation;
d) mechanical barriers (condoms and caps);
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
412
Administration of estrogens and progestogens to women:
a) prevents menstruation if given daily throughout the year;
b) tends to cause salt and water retention;
c) depresses secretion of pituitary gonadotrophins;
d) decreases the likelihood of ovulation;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
413
Secretion of androgens in the adult female:
a) in large amounts can cause enlargement of the clitoris;
b) affect the voice;
c) may lead to growth of facial hair;
d) may result in amenorrhoea;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
414
The pineal body (gland):
a) is in the hypothalamus;
b) releases epinephrine;
c) releases melatonin;
d) controls appetite
е) releases melanin.
c) releases melatonin;
415
Thyroid hormone stored in the lumen of follicles is in the form of:
a) free T3;
b) free T4;
c) attachedment to thyroglobulin in the gland;
d) attachedment to thyroid binding globulin;
е) TTH.
c) attachedment to thyroglobulin in the gland;
416
Thyrocalcitonin:
a) is secreted by the thyroid gland;
b) is secreted by the hypothalamus;
c) is secreted by the parathyroid glands;
d) increases Ca++ absorption by the stomach;
e) is secreted by the kidneys.
a) is secreted by the thyroid gland;
417
Cortisol increases blood glucose level by increasing:
a) lipolysis;
b) protein synthesis in muscles;
c) gluconeogenesis;
d) growth hormone secretion;
е) insulin secretion.
c) gluconeogenesis;
418
Which of the following is not involved in regulation of plasma Ca++
levels:
a) kidneys;
b) skin;
c) lungs;
d) intestine;
е) bones.
c) lungs;
419
Epiphyseal closure is regulated by:
a) calcitonin;
b) somatomedins;
c) 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol;
d) thyroxine;
е) aldosterone.
b) somatomedins;
420
Excessive growth hormone secretion in adults causes:
a) acromegaly;
b) gigantism;
c) increased entry of glucose in muscles;
d) hypothyroidism;
e) cretinism.
a) acromegaly;
421
Inspiration occurs as a result of:
a) an upward movement of the diaphragm;
b) movement of the ribs closer together due to the contraction of the
inspiratory intercostal muscles;
c) downward movement of the diaphragm;
d) a and b;
e) b and c.
c) downward movement of the diaphragm;
422
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must:
a) be lower than alveolar pressure;
b) be between +5 and +10 mmHg above the atmospheric pressure;
c) alternate between being less than and greater than the atmospheric
pressure;
d) change as respiratory demands of the body change;
e) be the same as the atmospheric pressure.
a) be lower than alveolar pressure;
423
In which vesicular bed does hypoxia cause vasoconstriction?
a) coronary;
b) pulmonary;
c) cerebral;
d) muscle;
e) skin.
b) pulmonary;
424
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood is:
a) dissolved in the plasma;
b) bound to haemoglobin;
c) in carbonic acid;
d) in bicarbonate ions;
e) in carbonic anhydrase.
d) in bicarbonate ions;
425
Which of the following is the site of the highest airway resistance?
a) mouth;
b) largest bronchi;
c) medium sized bronchi;
d) smallest bronchi;
e) alveoli.
c) medium sized bronchi;
426
Compared with the systemic circulation, the pulmonary circulation has a:
a) higher flow;
b) lower resistance;
c) higher arterial pressure;
d) higher capillary pressure;
e) higher cardiac output.
b) lower resistance;
427
Hypoventilation will cause:
a) hypercapnia;
b) anoxia;
c) hypoxia;
d) hypocapnia;
e) a and c.
e) a and c.
428
Which of the following events is caused by an increased pCO2 in tissues?
a) increased pH;
b) decreased association between hemoglobin and O2;
c) decreased pH;
d) vasodilatation;
e) b and c.
e) b and c.
429
Vital Capacity includes:
a) Tidal Volume;
b) Expiratory Reserve Volume;
c) Residual Volume;
d) Inspiratory Reserve Volume;
e) a, b, and d.
e) a, b, and d.
430
Which muscles contract in quiet breathing?
a) abdominal;
b) external intercostal muscles;
c) diaphragm;
d) pectoral muscle;
e) b and c.
e) b and c.
430
Which of the following events are sympathetic effects?
a) vasoconstriction in the lungs;
b) dilation of the bronchi;
c) vasodilatation in the lungs;
d) constriction of the bronchi;
e) a and b.
e) a and b.
431
Which of the following is related to the respiratory function of the
lungs?
a) regulation of lung blood pressure;
b) lung ventilation;
c) diffusion of gases between the alveolar air and blood;
d) fat metabolism;
e) b, and c.
e) b, and c.
432
Which factors affect the gas diffusion through the respiratory
membrane?
a) membrane thickness;
b) membrane area;
c) tidal volume;
d) diffusion quotient;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
433
As regards the distribution of ventilation (V) and perfusion (Q), the V/Q
ratio:
a) gradient of change of ventilation is greater than that of perfusion;
b) ventilation increases up the lung;
c) perfusion increases up the lung;
d) at apex is greater than at base in prone position;
e) none of the above.
d) at apex is greater than at base in prone position;
433
Gas exchange in the respiratory system of humans takes place in the:
a) trachea;
b) bronchus;
c) bronchioles;
d) alveoli;
e) larynx.
d) alveoli;
434
Surfactant:
a) is produced by type I alveolar cells;
b) acts like detergent in water;
c) reduces the amount of negative intrapleural pressure;
d) reduces blood flow to the lungs.
e) increases pulmonary compliance.
e) increases pulmonary compliance.
435
Carbon dioxide transport is:
a) 70% dissolved in plasma;
b) 70% as carbamino hemoglobin;
c) 70% as bicarbonates;
d) 10% as bicarbonates;
e) unaffected by pO2.
c) 70% as bicarbonates;
436
Obligatory respiratory muscles are:
a) the diaphragm and mm. intercostales interni;
b) the diaphragm and mm. intercostales externi;
c) mm. abdominales;
d) mm. serrati posteriores inferiores;
e) all of the above.
b) the diaphragm and mm. intercostales externi;
437
The bronchial muscles relax under the influence of:
a) epinephrine;
b) atropine;
c) epinephrine and atropine;
d) bradikinine and histamine;
e) acetylcholine.
c) epinephrine and atropine;
438
For the surfactant it is true that:
a) is produced by type II alveolar cells;
b) consists of phospholipids, proteins and carbohydrates;
c) decreases the alveolar surface tension at the end of expiration;
d) protects the lungs from atelectasis and edema;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
439
For the alveolar capillary membrane it is true that:
a) consists of alveolar epithelium, pulmonary capillary endothelium
and their base membranes with very thin interstitial space between
them;
b) diffusion of O2 and CO2 occurs across it;
c) has better permeability for O2 than CO2;
d) a, and b;
e) none of the above.
d) a, and b;
440
Dilation of bronchi can be achieved by:
a) increased level of catecholamines;
b) decreased level of catecholamines;
c) increase of acetylcholine and serotonin levels;
d) increase of bradikinine and histamine levels;
e) a, c, and d.
a) increased level of catecholamines
441
Normal breathing at rest is called:
a) polypnoe;
b) eupnoe;
c) tachypnoe;
d) dyspnoe;
e) hyperpnoe.
b) eupnoe;
442
During expiration:
a) the thoracic cage recoils and the diaphragm moves upwards;
b) the intrapleural pressure decreases;
c) the intrapleural pressure increases;
d) a, and b;
e) a, and c.
e) a, and c.
443
The sympathetic division of ANS affects the bronchial muscles
activating:
a) a-adrenergic receptors;
b) b-adrenergic receptors;
c) M-cholinergic receptors;
d) N-cholinergic receptors;
e) H2 receptors.
b) b-adrenergic receptors;
444
Tidal Volume (TV) is:
a) the volume of air, which passes through the lungs per minute;
b) bigger than the Residual Volume (RV);
c) an element of the Functional Residual Capacity (FRC);
d) a, b, and c;
e) 0.5 1 approximately.
e) 0.5 1 approximately.
445
The intrapleural pressure is:
a) higher than the atmospheric pressure;
b) lower than the atmospheric pressure;
c) equal to the atmospheric pressure;
d) depends on the water molecules' surface tension and elastic fibers;
e) b, and d.
b) lower than the atmospheric pressure;
446
The anatomical dead space:
a) includes the volume of air within the air passages up to the
terminal bronchioles;
b) is the space where gas exchange doesn't occur;
c) is approximately 140 ml;
d) is approximately 500 ml;
e) is about 6 l∙min-1
c) is approximately 140 ml;
447
The Residual Volume (RV) is:
a) the volume of air, which remains in the lungs after maximal expiration;
b) the volume of air, which remains in the lungs after maximal inspiration;
c) is about 2 – 3 l;
d) is the tidal volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume;
e) a component of the Vital Capacity (VC).
a) the volume of air, which remains in the lungs after maximal expiration;
448
Which of the following factors shifts the dissociation curve of HbO2
to the right:
a) increased pCO2;
b) decreased pCO2;
c) decreased pO2;
d) increased pO2;
e) increased pH.
a) increased pCO2;
449
It is not true that Vital Capacity (VC):
a) is a sum of ERV+TV+IRV;
b) depends on sex and age;
c) depends on chest measurement;
d) is a sum of IC+ERV;
e) is a sum of TV+ERV+RV.
e) is a sum of TV+ERV+RV.
450
There are smooth muscles in the respiratory system:
a) on the external surface of the lungs;
b) on the medial surface of the lungs;
c) in the trachea, bronchi and bronchioles;
d) around the alveoli;
e) on the external and medial surfaces of the lungs.
c) in the trachea, bronchi and bronchioles;
451
It is true that the air in the alveoli:
a) has a higher CO2 content than the atmosphere;
b) has lower O2 content than in the atmosphere;
c) consists of N2 approximately equal to that in the atmosphere;
d) has the same components as the atmosphere;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
452
The elastic fibers in the lungs are situated:
a) around the alveoli;
b) around the terminal branches of the bronchi;
c) on the external and the medial surface of the lungs;
d) a, and b;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
453
The peripheral chemoreceptors are situated:
a) on the ventral surface of medulla oblongata;
b) on the dorsal surface of medulla oblongata;
c) in arcus aortae and arteria carotis communis;
d) in the inferior and superior venae cavae and the right atrium;
e) in the hypothalamus.
c) in arcus aortae and arteria carotis communis;
454
Which of the following compounds doesn't take part in the
transport of CO2 under physiological conditions:
a) carbamino Hb;
b) carboxi Hb;
c) NaHCO3;
d) physically dissolved in fluids;
e) carbamino Hb and physically dissolved in the fluids.
b) carboxi Hb;
455
Which of the following factors increases the rate of breathing:
a) decreased pCO2;
b) increased pO2;
c) alkalosis;
d) decreased pCO2 and increased pO2;
e) increased pCO2 and decreased pO2.
e) increased pCO2 and decreased pO2.
456
The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio of 0.8 refers to:
a) the upper parts of the lungs in upright position;
b) the middle parts of the lungs in upright position;
c) the lower parts of the lungs in upright position;
d) in all parts of the lungs in supine position;
e) b and d.
e) b and d.
457
Which of the following does not happen during inspiration?
a) the ribs move upward;
b) the diaphragm lifts up;
c) the antero-posterior dimensions of the chest are increased;
d) the transverse dimensions of the thorax are increased;
e) the scalene and sternocleidomastoid muscles can be recruited for
inspiration.
b) the diaphragm lifts up;
458
Oxygen enters the cell via?
a) diffusion;
b) filtration;
c) osmosis;
d) active transport;
e) passive transport.
a) diffusion;
459
Total Lung Capacity (TLC) of men would normally be about:
a) 4200 ml;
b) 1500 ml;
c) 6000 ml;
d) 8000 ml;
e) 10000 ml.
c) 6000 ml;
460
Most of the carbon dioxide produced by tissues is transported to the
lungs as:
a) small gas bubbles in the plasma;
b) gas bound to hemoglobin in the red blood cells;
c) bicarbonates in the plasma;
d) gas bound to white blood cells and albumin;
e) gas transported through the lymphatic system.
c) bicarbonates in the plasma;
461
The need to breathe is caused by:
a) a drop in blood pH;
b) a rise in blood pH;
c) a drop in blood oxygen levels;
d) a drop in carbon dioxide levels;
e) none of the above.
a) a drop in blood pH;
462
Acidosis is when blood pH is below?
a) 7.05;
b) 7.15;
c) 7.25;
d) 7.35;
e) 6.50.
d) 7.35;
462
Where does gas exchange take place?
a) bronchioles;
b) bronchi;
c) pulmonary capillaries;
d) roots of the lungs;
e) trachea.
c) pulmonary capillaries;
463
Hemoglobin gives up oxygen when the environment is more:
a) acidic;
b) alkaline;
c) icy;
d) open;
e) none of the above.
a) acidic;
463
The surfactant:
a) makes expiration difficult;
b) reduces the surface tension of the water layer within alveoli;
c) relaxes the bronchi;
d) increases in concentration when the sympathetic tone is increased;
e) in increased concentration causes oedema.
b) reduces the surface tension of the water layer within alveoli;
464
The carotid bodies:
a) are stretch receptors in the walls of the internal carotid arteries;
b) have a blood flow per unit volume similar to that in the brain;
c) are influenced by the blood temperature;
d) generate less afferent impulses when blood H+ concentration rises;
e) and the aortic bodies are mainly responsible for the increased ventilation in hypoxia.
e) and the aortic bodies are mainly responsible for the increased ventilation in hypoxia.
464
The bronchodilatory effect of atropin is due to blocking:
a) N-cholinergic receptors;
b) M-cholinergic receptors;
c) α-adrenergic receptors;
d) β- adrenergic receptors;
e) H1-receptors .
b) M-cholinergic receptors;
465
Pulmonary surfactant increases:
a) the surface tension of the fluid lining alveolar walls;
b) lung compliance;
c) in effectiveness as the lungs are inflated;
d) in amount when pulmonary blood flow is interrupted;
e) the airflow resistance in bronchi.
b) lung compliance;
466
The hemoreceptors in the carotid artery and aortic arc are excited
when:
a) pCO2 in plasma is decreased;
b) plasma pH is increased;
c) pO2 in plasma is increased;
d) pO2 in plasma is decreased;
e) to is increased.
d) pO2 in plasma is decreased;
467
During inspiration:
a) intrapleural pressure is lowest at mid-inspiration;
b) intrapulmonary pressure is lowest around mid-inspiration;
c) intraoesophageal pressure is lowest at mid-inspiration;
d) the rate of air flow is greatest at end-inspiration;
e) the lung volume/intrapleural pressure relationship is the same as in
expiration.
b) intrapulmonary pressure is lowest around mid-inspiration
468
The bronchial muscles relax under the influence of:
a) increased parasympathetic tone;
b) acetylcholine;
c) histamine;
d) atropin;
e) none of the above.
d) atropin;
469
In the lungs:
a) the rate of alveolar ventilation at rest exceeds the rate of alveolar
capillary perfusion;
b) the ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio in less 0.6 during
maximal exercise;
c) the V/Q ratio is higher at the apex than at the base of the lungs
when a person is standing;
d) oxygen transfer can be explained by active transport;
e) dead space decreases during inspiration.
c) the V/Q ratio is higher at the apex than at the base of the lungs
470
Bronchial smooth muscle contracts in response to:
a) bronchial mucosal irritation;
b) local beta adrenoceptor stimulation;
c) a fall in bronchial pO2;
d) inhalation of air warmed to 37oC;
e) circulating noradrenaline.
a) bronchial mucosal irritation;
471
Which of the folloving factors stimulate respiration:
a) decreased pCO2;
b) increased pO2;
c) alkalosis;
d) decreased pCO2, increased pO2, alkalosis;
e) increased pCO2, decreased pO2, alkalosis.
e) increased pCO2, decreased pO2, alkalosis.
472
CO2 is transported basically as:
a) bicarbonates;
b) carbhemoglobin;
c) physically dissolved;
d) connected to plasma proteins;
e) connected to the hem of Hb.
a) bicarbonates;
473
The residual volume (RV) is:
a) the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of an expiration;
b) greater on average in women than in men;
c) 3–4 litres on average in young adults;
d) measured directly using a spirometer;
e) smaller in old than in young people.
a) the volume of air remaining in the lungs at the end of an expiration;
473
A rise in arterial pCO2 causes:
a) an increase in ventilation due to stimulation of peripheral and central chemoreceptors;
b) a decrease in ventilation due to stimulation of central and peripheral chemoreceptors;
c) a decrease in arterial pressure;
d) a decrease in cerebral blood flow;
e) a decrease in the plasma bicarbonate level.
a) an increase in ventilation due to stimulation of peripheral and central chemoreceptors;
473
During inspiration:
a) venous return to the heart is increased;
b) less energy is expended than during expiration;
c) lung expansion is assisted by surface tension forces in the alveoli;
d) lung expansion begins when intrapleural pressure falls below atmospheric;
e) the relative concentration of surfactant increases in alveoli.
a) venous return to the heart is increased;
474
Ventilation is increased during:
a) periods when cerebrospinal fluid pH is reduced;
b) compensated chronic renal failure;
c) periods when plasma bicarbonate level is increased;
d) deep sleep;
e) exercise because of the ensuing fall in arterial pO2;
a) periods when cerebrospinal fluid pH is reduced;
475
Carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in:
a) combination with the myoglobin molecule;
b) combination with plasma globulins;
c) physical solution in red blood cells;
d) greater quantity in red blood cells than in plasma;
e) greater quantity as HCO3 than as other forms.
e) greater quantity as HCO3 than as other forms.
476
A shift of the oxygen dissociation curve of blood to the right:
a) occurs in the pulmonary capillaries;
b) occurs if blood temperature decreases;
c) favours oxygen delivery to the tissues;
d) favours oxygen uptake from the lungs by alveolar capillary blood;
e) occurs if the pH of the blood increases.
c) favours oxygen delivery to the tissues;
476
The compliance of the lungs and chest wall is:
a) expressed as volume change per unit change in pressure;
b) minimal during quiet breathing;
c) increased by the surface tension of the fluid lining the alveoli;
d) decreased by surfactant;
e) changed by parallel displacement of the line relating lung volume
to distending pressure.
a) expressed as volume change per unit change in pressure;
477
Pulmonary:
a) arterial mean pressure is about one-sixth of systemic mean arterial pressure;
b) blood flow/minute is greater then the systemic blood flow/minute;
c) vascular resistance is about 50 per cent that of systemic vascular resistance;
d) vascular capacity is similar to systemic vascular capacity;
e) arterial pressure increases by about 50 per cent when cardiac output
rises by 50 per cent.
a) arterial mean pressure is about one-sixth of systemic mean arterial pressure;
478
Respiratory dead space:
a) includes the volume of air in the airways up to the terminal bronchi;
b) is where the gas exchange occur;
c) is about 360 ml;
d) makes great changes in O2 and CO2 contain in alveolar air;
e) includes the volume of air which reaches the alveoli.
a) includes the volume of air in the airways up to the terminal bronchi;
478
The correct starement is:
a) the diffusion velocity of O2 and CO2 is equal;
b) O2 diffusses 20 times faster than CO2;
c) CO2 diffusses with 20 times higher velocity than CO2;
d) the diffussion velocity of O2 is higher then that of CO2, when the concentration of O2 is increased;
e) the difussion velocity doesn`t depend on cellular membrane permeability.
c) CO2 diffusses with 20 times higher velocity than CO2;
479
Oxygen debt is:
a) the amount of O2 consumed after cessation of exercise;
b) incurred because the pulmonary capillary walls limit O2 uptake during exercise;
c) possible since skeletal muscle can function temporarily without oxygen;
d) associated with a decrease in blood lactate;
e) associated with metabolic alcalosis.
c) possible since skeletal muscle can function temporarily without oxygen;
479
Loss of pulmonary elastic tissue in ‘emphysema’ reduces:
a) physiological dead space;
b) the surfactant;
c) residual volume;
d) vital capacity;
e) the intrapleural pressure.
d) vital capacity;
480
The CO2 dissociation curve for whole blood shows that:
a) its shape is sigmoid;
b) blood saturates with CO2 when pCO2 exceeds normal alveolar levels;
c) blood contains some CO2 even when the pCO2 is zero;
d) oxygenation of the blood drives CO2 out of the blood;
e) adding CO2 to the blood drives O2 out of the blood.
d) oxygenation of the blood drives CO2 out of the blood;
480
Bronchial asthma is likely to be relieved by:
a) stimulation of cholinergic receptors;
b) stimulation of beta adrenoceptors;
c) histamine aerosols;
d) non steroidal anti-inflamatory drugs;
e) mineralcorticoids.
b) stimulation of beta adrenoceptors;
480
Air in the pleural cavity (pneumothorax):
a) allows intrapleural pressure to rise and become equal to the atmospheric pressure;
b) causes the underlying lung to collapse by compressing it;
c) increases the functional residual capacity;
d) leads to a slight inward movement of the chest wall;
e) increases the vital capacity.
a) allows intrapleural pressure to rise and become equal to the atmospheric pressure;
481
A shift of the oxygen dissociation curve of blood to the left:
a) decreases the O2 content of blood at a given pO2;
b) impairs O2 delivery to the tissues at the normal tissue pO2;
c) occurs in blood perfusing hot extremities;
d) occurs in blood with lower pH than with higher pH;
e) is characteristic of adult blood when compared with fetal blood.
b) impairs O2 delivery to the tissues at the normal tissue pO2;
481
A diver breathing air at a depth of 30 metres under water:
a) is exposed to a pressure equal to that at the surface;
b) has a raised pressure of nitrogen in the alveoli;
c) has a four-fold increase in the oxygen content of blood;
d) has a four-fold increase in alveolar water vapour pressure;
e) Expends less energy than normal on the work of breathing.
b) has a raised pressure of nitrogen in the alveoli;
481
Complete obstruction of a major bronchus usually results
in:
a) collapse of the alveoli supplied by the bronchus;
b) a rise in local intrapleural pressure;
c) an increase in physiological dead space;
d) an increase in blood flow to the lung tissue supplied by the bronchus;
e) cyanosis.
a) collapse of the alveoli supplied by the bronchus;
482
Cyanosis:
a) may be caused by high levels of carboxyhaemoglobin in the blood;
b) may be caused by high levels of methaemoglobin in the blood;
c) is seen in fingers of hands immersed in iced water;
d) occurs more easily in anaemic than in polycythaemic patients;
e) is severe in cyanide poisoning.
b) may be caused by high levels of methaemoglobin in the blood;
482
The sympathetic branch of the Autonomic Nervous System affects the
bronchial muscles via:
a) β2-adrenergic receptors;
b) α2-adrenergic receptors;
c) M1-cholinergic receptors;
d) N-cholinergic receptors;
e) none of the above.
a) β2-adrenergic receptors;
482
Histamine affects the bronhial muscles via:
a) H1-receptors;
b) H2-receptors;
c) M-holinergic receptors;
d) N-holinergic receptors;
e) α-adrenergic receptors.
a) H1-receptors;
482
Given: CO2 + H2O H2CO3 HCO3 - + H+, what happens if bicarbonate ions are increased?
a) more carbon monoxide produced;
b) more bicarbonate ions produced;
c) an increase in protons;
d) there would be a shift to the left;
e) there would be a shift to the right first, then to the left.
b) more bicarbonate ions produced;
482
Coughing:
a) is reflexly initiated by irritation of the alveoli;
b) is associated with relaxation of airways smooth muscle;
c) depends on contraction of the diaphragm for expulsion of air;
d) differs from sneezing in that the glottis is initially closed;
e) is equivalent of sneezing.
d) differs from sneezing in that the glottis is initially closed;
482
A 50 % fall in the ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) ratio in each of lungs
would:
a) lower systemic arterial oxygen content;
b) has no effect on the O2 in systemic circulation;
c) increase the physiological dead space;
d) lower systemic arterial carbon dioxide content;
e) be compensated (with respect to oxygen uptake) by a high ratio in the
other lung.
a) lower systemic arterial oxygen content;
483
The total amount of O2 carried by the circulation to the tissues/min.
(oxygen delivery or total available oxygen):
a) normally equals the rate of O2 consumption by the body/min;
b) is normally more than 95 per cent combined with haemoglobin;
c) must fall by about half if haemoglobin concentration is halved;
d) is more closely related to PO2 than to percentage saturation of the
blood with O2;
e) must double if body oxygen consumption doubles.
b) is normally more than 95 per cent combined with haemoglobin;
483
The values (mm Hg) for pCO2 and pO2 in the interstitial spaces of
peripheral tissues are approximately:
a) 60; 40;
b) 40; 60;
c) 46; 40;
d) 66; 46;
e) 46; 100.
c) 46; 40;
483
For air to enter the lungs during inspiration:
a) the pressure inside the lungs must be higher than the atmospheric
pressure;
b) the pressure inside the lungs must become lower than the atmospheric pressure;
c) the pressure inside the lungs must be equal to the atmospheric pressure;
d) the diaphragm must be relaxed;
e) the external intercostal muscles must be relaxed.
b) the pressure inside the lungs must become lower than the atmospheric pressure;
484
What does the ventral respiratory group within the medulla
oblongata do?
a) triggers inspiration;
b) decreased ventilation rate ;
c) nothing;
d) triggers forced breathing;
e) inhibits apneustic center, sets limit to over inflation of lungs.
d) triggers forced breathing;
485
If forcefully exhaling as much air as possible after a normal breath,
this is:
a) tidal volume;
b) expiratory reserve volume;
c) maximum expiratory flow rate;
d) eupnea;
e) inspiratory reserve volume.
b) expiratory reserve volume;
485
Water molecules on the surface of the alveoli generate surface tension.
This force:
a) inhibits alveolar collapse;
b) assists pulmonary compliance;
c) assists elastic recoil;
d) resists elastic recoil;
e) impairs gas exchange.
c) assists elastic recoil;
486
Which of the following reactions takes place in the systemic capillaries
(where CO2 is and O2 is )?
a) Hb + O2 HbO2;
b) Hb + CO2 HbCO2;
c) HbCO2 Hb + CO2;
d) H2CO3 HCO3-+ H+
;e) Na++ HCO3 - NaHCO3.
b) Hb + CO2 HbCO2;
487
Normal value of FEV in an adult is:
a) 95%;
b) 80%;
c) 65%;
d) 50%;
e) 40%.
b) 80%;
487
The region in the brain that sets the limit for over-inflation of lungs is located in the:
a) pons;
b) apneustic center;
c) arterial blood chemistry;
d) medulla oblongata;
e) stretch receptors.
a) pons;
487
In Caissons disease pain in the joints and muscles is due to:
a) formation of N2 bubbles;
b) formation of CO2 bubbles;
c) due to fatigue;
d) due to increase in barometric pressure;
e) formation of O2 bubbles.
a) formation of N2 bubbles;
487
Intrapleural pressure:
a) is higher than the atmospheric one as in inspiration;
b) is lower than the atmospheric one as in inspiration;
c) is equal to the atmospheric one;
d) does not depend on the water molecules`;
e) does not change when pleural cavity hermeticity is inpaired.
b) is lower than the atmospheric one as in inspiration;
488
The most important gas maintaining alveolar ventilation is:
a) oxygen;
b) hydrogen;
c) carbon dioxide;
d) N2;
e) CO.
c) carbon dioxide;
489
As one ascends to higher than 3000 meters above sea level changes in
alveolar pO2 and pCO2 are as follows:
a) decrease in pO2, increase in pCO2;
b) decrease in pO2, decrease in pCO2;
c) increase in both pO2 and pCO2;
d) increase in pO2, decrease in pCO2;
e) no change in pO2 and pCO2.
b) decrease in pO2, decrease in pCO2;
490
Surfactant is secreted by:
a) type 2 pneumatocytes;
b) type 1 pneumatocytes;
c) goblet cells;
d) pulmonary vessels;
e) bronchial smooth muscle cells.
a) type 2 pneumatocytes;
491
Airway resistance:
a) increases in asthama;
b) decreases in emphysema;
c) increases in paraplegic patients;
d) does not affect work of breathing;
e) decreases in asthma.
a) increases in asthama;
491
Which of the following effects is not observed during prolonged stay is
space:
a) decrease in blood volume;
b) decrease in muscle strength;
c) increase in red cell mass;
d) loss of bone mass;
e) osteoporosis.
c) increase in red cell mass;
492
Decrease of pCO2, decrease in H+ and increased pO2 causes:
a) hyperventilation;
b) hypoventilation;
c) hypercapnoea;
d) hypoxia;
e) non of the above.
b) hypoventilation;
493
The intrapleural pressure at the end of deep inspiration is:
a) – 4 mm Hg;
b) + 4 mm Hg;
c) – 6 mm Hg;
d) + 6 mm Hg;
e) – 10 mm Hg.
a) – 4 mm Hg;
493
Sudden complete obstruction of the respiratory tract causes:
a) a fall in blood presure;
b) stimulation of central chemoreceptors;
c) cianosis;
d) increased breathing;
e) constriction of the pupils.
b) stimulation of central chemoreceptor
494
Exercise which doubles the metabolic rate is likely to at least double
the:
a) oxygen consumption;
b) cardiac output;
c) stroke volume.
d) arterial pCO2;
e) ventilation/perfusion ratio.
a) oxygen consumption;
495
The effects of moving from sea level to an altitude of 5000 metres
include an increase in
a) alveolar ventilation;
b) blood bicarbonate level;
c) appetite for food;
d) exercise tolerance;
e) muscle strength.
a) alveolar ventilation;
496
Which of the folloving factors decrease the affinity of Hb to O2 in
tissues:
a) decreased pCO2;
b) decreased pCO2 and lowered pH;
c) lowered to
d) increased pCO2, and lowered pH;
e) decreased pCO2, higher pH and lowered to
d) increased pCO2, and lowered pH;
497
The bronchial muscles increase their tone under the influence of:
a) adrenaline;
b) noradrenaline;
c) histamin;
d) atropin;
e) curare.
c) histamin;
498
The bronchial muscles dilate under the influence of:
a) catheholamines;
b) acetylcholine
c) histamine;
d) bradikinine
e) serotonin
a) catheholamines
499
The pulmonary ventilation is a process that includes:
a) only expiration;
b) only inspiration;
c) inspiration and expiration;
d) exchange of O2 and CO2 via the capillary walls;
e) transport of O2 and CO2 via blood.
c) inspiration and expiration;
500
During inspiration:
a) the water surface tension in alveoli decreases;
b) the chest volume decreases and the diaphragm goes up;
c) the tidal volume decreases;
d) alveolar pressure increases;
e) intrapleural pressure decreases.
e) intrapleural pressure decreases
501
The primery pacemaker of the heart at physiological conditions is
normally the:
a) sino-atrial node;
b) atrio-ventricular node;
c) bundle of His;
d) mitral valve;
e) left ventricle.
a) sino-atrial node;
502
The exchange of O2 and CO2 between the capillary blood and the cells
is carried out by:
a) osmosis;
b) diffusion;
c) filtration;
d) transport across pores;
e) reabsorbtion.
b) diffusion;
503
On the electrocardiogram (ECG), the QRS complex represents:
a) depolarisation of the atria;
b) repolarisation of the atria;
c) depolarisation of the ventricles;
d) repolarization of the ventricles;
e) delay at the AV node.
c) depolarisation of the ventricles;
504
Cardiac output (C.O.) is the:
a) volume of blood pumped per minute by each of the both ventricles;
b) volume of blood flowing through the systemic circulation each minute;
c) product of the heart rate and the stroke volume;
d) a, and c;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
504
An ECG would be useful for determining a patient’s:
a) heart murmur;
b) stroke volume;
c) cardiac output;
d) blockage of conduction of electrical signals between the atria and the ventricles;
e) none of the above.
d) blockage of conduction of electrical signals between the atria and the ventricles;
505
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart:
a) with each systole the left ventricle ejects a larger volume of blood then
the right ventricle;
b) the intrinsic rate of the heart’s pacemaker is 100 beats per minute;
c) cardiac output increases with increased heart rate;
d) stroke volume increases with the increase of the venous return;
e) both ventricles contract simultaneously.
d) stroke volume increases with the increase of the venous return;
506
Within protodiastole of the ventricles:
a) A-V valves are opened, S-L valves closed;
b) A-V and S-L valves are closed;
c) A-V and S-L valves are opened;
d) A-V valves are closed, S-L valves are closing;
e) none of the upper menshioned is correct.
d) A-V valves are closed, S-L valves are closing;
507
During exercise, there is an increased flow of blood to:
a) the brain;
b) the kidneys;
c) the muscles;
d) b, and c;
e) a, b, and c.
c) the muscles;
508
During isovolumetric contraction:
a) A-V valves are opened, S-L valves are opened;
b) A-V valves are closed, S-L valves are opened;
c) A-V valves are opened, S-L valves are closed;
d) A-V valves are closed, S-L valves are closed;
e) there is no correct answer.
d) A-V valves are closed, S-L valves are closed;
509
In humans, blood loss causes:
a) venous constriction;
b) decreased blood flow to the skin;
c) a fall in the cardiac output;
d) splenic contraction;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
509
The aortic valve:
a) prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during ventricular
diastole;
b) prevents the backflow of blood to the left ventricle during the
ventricular diastole;
c) prevents the backflow of blood into the left ventricle during ventricular
ejection;
d) prevents the backflow of blood into the aorta during ejection;
e) closes when the first heart sound is heard.
b) prevents the backflow of blood to the left ventricle during the
ventricular diastole;
510
The heart sounds:
a) express the arterial wall fluctuations synchronous with the cardiac
performance;
b) register the cardyomyocytes`bioelectrical activity during the cardiac
cycle;
c) reflect the volume of blood, which the heart ejects in the large and
small circle per minute;
d) are registered and analized via auscultation and
phonocardiography;
e) are registered via phlebography.
d) are registered and analized via auscultation and
phonocardiography;
511
Which of the following organs has the greatest blood flow per 100 g of
tissue?
a) brain;
b) heart muscle;
c) skin;
d) liver;
e) kidney.
e) kidney.
512
If the heart rate is 70 bt∙min-1 cardiac output is closer to:
a) 3.45 l∙min-1
b) 4.55 l∙min-1
c) 5.25 l∙min-1
d) 8.0 l∙min-1
e) 9.85 l∙min-1
c) 5.25 l∙min-1
513
Which of ECG elements reflects the ventricular depolarisation?
a) PQ interval;
b) QRS complex;
c) QT interval;
d) ST segment;
e) T wave.
b) QRS complex;
514
Cardiac output (C.O.) of the right heart is what percentage of that of the
left?
a) 25 %;
b) 50 %;
c) 75 %;
d) 100 %;
e) 125 %.
d) 100 %;
515
During the ventricular filling:
a) A-V valves are opened, S-L valves are opened;
b) A-V valves are closed, S-L valves are opened;
c) A-V valves are opened, S-L valves are closed;
d) A-V valves are closed, S-L valves are closed;
e) there is no correct answer.
c) A-V valves are opened, S-L valves are closed;
516
Which effect/s is/are caused by sympathetic stimulation?
a) increased strength of heart contraction;
b) increased heart metabolism;
c) increased heart conductibility;
d) decreased excitability;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
517
Which are the peculiarities of the cardiomiocytes′ action potential?
a) long duration (0.3 s);
b) short duration (0.01 s);
c) high amplitude;
d) plateau phase;
e) a, and d.
e) a, and d.
518
The integral of the values of blood pressure during one cardiac cycle is
defined as:
a) pulse pressure;
b) the systolic blood pressure;
c) the diastolic blood pressure;
d) mean arterial blood pressure;
e) closer in value to the systolic blood pressure.
d) mean arterial blood pressure;
519
The duration of the cardiac cycle depends on:
a) the stroke volume;
b) the time needed one systole to occur;
c) the time needed one diastole to occur;
d) the heart rate;
e) the cardiac pause.
d) the heart rate;
520
Hypokalaemia causes:
a) short PQ interval;
b) ventricular extrasystoles;
c) elevated ST segment;
d) prolonger QRS interval;
e) prolonger QT interval.
b) ventricular extrasystoles;
521
Hyperkalaemia:
a) causes a prolonged QT interval;
b) prolongs the QRS complex;
c) causes ST segment elevation;
d) potentiates digoxin toxicity;
e) causes lack of P wave.
b) prolongs the QRS complex;
522
Left ventricular end-diastolic volume is:
a) 10 – 30 ml;
b) 30 – 50 ml;
c) 50 – 70 ml;
d) 70 – 100 ml;
e) 100 – 130 ml.
e) 100 – 130 ml.
523
The automatic activity of 20-40 imp.∙min-1 is typical for the:
a) the bundle of Hiss;
b) the A –V node;
c) the sino-atrial node;
d) the cells of Purkinje;
e) the left and right ventricular branches.
d) the cells of Purkinje;
524
The end diastolic volume:
a) depends on the stoke volume;
b) is directly proportional to the venous return to the heart;
c) doesn`t depend on length and strenght,developed by the ventricular
miocardium;
d) increases when the blod pressure in aorta increases;
e) doesn`t depend on atrial systole and diastole.
b) is directly proportional to the venous return to the heart;
525
Which of the folloving factors is not a vasoconstrictor:
a) noradrenalin;
b) vasopresin;
c) serotonin;
d) angiotensin;
e) atrial natriuretic peptide.
e) atrial natriuretic peptide.
526
The slowest conduction (velocity) is characteristic for:
a) atria;
b) AV node;
c) bundle of His;
d) Purkinje fibres;
e) ventricular muscle.
b) AV node;
527
Effect on α- and β-adrenergic receptors has:
a) noradrenaline;
b) adrenaline;
c) atropine;
d) angiotensin II;
e) serotonin.
b) adrenaline;
528
In a patient with mitral stenosis one would expect to hear:
a) continuous murmur;
b) a systolic murmur loudest over the base of heart;
c) a diastolic murmur, with loudest intensity over the apex of heart;
d) a diastolic murmur loudest over the base of heart;
e) systolic murmur over the apex of heart.
c) a diastolic murmur, with loudest intensity over the apex of heart;
529
The activity of the peripheral chemoreceptors increases when:
a) the mean arterial blood pressure is increased;
b) pO2 in blood is decreased;
c) pCO2 in blood is decreased;
d) H+concentration is decreased;
e) there is hypothermia.
b) pO2 in blood is decreased;
530
Oxygen consumption at rest is the highest in the:
a) brain;
b) heart;
c) liver;
d) kidneys;
e) skeletal muscles.
b) heart;
531
The coronary blood flow is:
a) dominant in the left coronary artery in 60% of people;
b) not decreased during systole in the left ventricle better delivered to
subendocardium during systole;
c) not suspended during systole in the right coronary artery;
d) better delivered to left ventricle during systole;
e) suspended during systole in the right coronary artery.
c) not suspended during systole in the right coronary artery;
532
The second heart sound is:
a) prolonged of low frequency and strong in intensity;
b) strong, of low frequence and weak;
c) short, of high frequency and weak;
d) prolonged of high frequency and strong;
e) short, of high frequency and strong in intensity.
c) short, of high frequency and weak
533
If on ECG, P wave is missing, but QRS complex and T wave are normal,
the pacemaker is located in:
a) SA node;
b) AV node;
c) bundle of Hiss;
d) purkinje fibers;
e) ventricular muscles.
b) AV node;
534
The isovolumetric contraction is:
a) a part of the ejection phase of ventricular contraction;
b) a part of the contraction ventricular phase;
c) a part of ventricular diastole;
d) the rapid filling phase of ventricular diastole;
e) the slow felling phase of ventricular diastole.
b) a part of the contraction ventricular phase
535
The vascular baroreceptors register change in:
a) the systolic blood pressure;
b) the diastolic blood pressure ;
c) pCO2 in blood;
d) the mean arterial blood pressure;
e) pO2 in blood.
d) the mean arterial blood pressure;
536
The asynchronous contraction is:
a) a phase of the ventricular systole;
b) a phase of the ventricular diastole;
c) starts with S – L valves closure;
d) ends with S – L valves opening;
e) starts with A –V valves opening.
a) a phase of the ventricular systole;
537
The standard bipolar leads are:
a) aVR, aVL and aVF;
b) Ist, IInd and IIIrd;
c) from V1 to V6;
d) a, and b;
e) a, and c.
b) Ist, IInd and IIIrd;
538
Which of the following is not increased during exercise:
a) stroke volume;
b) total peripheral resistance;
c) systolic BP;
d) heart rate;
e) muscle blood flow.
b) total peripheral resistance;
539
The peripheral baroreceptors trigger:
a) pressor and depressor reflexes;
b) only pressor reflexes;
c) long term regulation of arterial blood pressure;
d) only depressor reflexes;
e) reflex of Bainbridge.
a) pressor and depressor reflexes;
540
The following would directly increase the heart rate:
a) sympathetic stimulation;
b) parasympathetic stimulation;
c) decreased blood pressure;
d) b, and c;
e) none of the above.
a) sympathetic stimulation;
541
The long term regulation of arterial blood pressure is:
a) nerve-reflex;
b) carried out by pressor and depressor baroreceptive reflexes;
c) humoral and restores the volume of blood;
d) carried out by depressor chemoreceptive reflexes;
e) carried out by ventral medial Hypothalamus.
c) humoral and restores the volume of blood;
542
The physiological pacemaker of the heart is:
a) AV node;
b) Purkinje fibers;
c) AV bundle;
d) SA node;
e) none of the above.
d) SA node;
543
The T wave in ECG indicates:
a) resting potential;
b) atrial depolarization;
c) SA node excitation;
d) ventricular repolarization;
e) Purkinje excitation.
d) ventricular repolarization;
544
The end diastolic volume in humans is about:
a) 140 ml;
b) 50 ml;
c) 70 ml;
d) 100 ml;
e) 200 ml.
a) 140 ml;
545
The diacrotic notch on aortic pressure curve is caused by the:
a) closure of mitral valve;
b) closure of tricuspid valve;
c) closure of aortic valve;
d) closure of pulmonary valve;
e) opening the atrioventricular valve.
c) closure of aortic valve;
545
Increased vagal tone causes:
a) hypertension;
b) tachycardia;
c) bradycardia;
d) increase in cardiac output;
e) increase in stroke volume.
c) bradycardia;
546
For the peripheral resistance of the blooed flow in a definite region, of
highest significance is:
a) the viscosity of blood;
b) the length of the vessels;
c) the laminar blood flow in the vessels;
d) the radius of the vessels;
e) the venous valves.
d) the radius of the vessels;
546
The working myocardium:
a) is a functional syncitium;
b) is comprised of cells whose cytoplasm communicates;
c) plays the role of pacemaker of the heart;
d) is comprised of cells, connected by structures that impede the ion flow;
e) reacts to threshold stimuli with different number of excited fibers.
a) is a functional syncitium;
547
The heart rate at rest is:
a) 100 – 140 bt∙min-1
b) 40 – 60 bt∙min-1
c) approximately 50 bt∙min-1
d) 60 – 90 bt∙min-1;
e) 20 – 40 bt∙min-1
d) 60 – 90 bt∙min-1;
548
The full compensatory pause is typical of:
a) the atrial extrasystoles only;
b) both the atrial and the ventricular extrasystoles;
c) the ventricular extrasystoles only;
d) extrasystoles during atrial fibrillation;
e) extrasystoles during atrial flutter.
c) the ventricular extrasystoles only;
549
The rhythm of the heart is determined by:
a) the bundle of His;
b) the atrioventricular node;
c) the sinus node;
d) the Purkinje fibers;
e) the left and right bundle branches.
c) the sinus node;
550
duration of the cardiac cycle depends on:
a) the stroke volume;
b) the time needed one systole to occur;
c) the time needed one diastole to occur;
d) the heart rate;
e) the cardiac pause.
d) the heart rate;
551
The increased heart rate is called:
a) tachypnoea;
b) bradycardia;
c) atrial fibrillation;
d) atrial flutter;
e) tachycardia.
e) tachycardia.
552
When the rhythm is determined by the AV node, the heart rate is:
a) 60 – 90 bt∙min-1
b) 20 – 40 bt∙min-1
c) approximately 75 bt∙min-1
d) 40 – 60 bt∙min-1
e) 8 – 120 bt∙min-1
d) 40 – 60 bt∙min-1
552
Automaticity is characteristic for:
a) the cardiac muscle only;
b) the striated muscles;
c) conducting system cells, some neurons and smooth muscle cells;
d) all excitable tissues;
e) the smooth muscle cells only.
c) conducting system cells, some neurons and smooth muscle cells;
553
The action potential of the cardiomyocites is characterized by:
a) slow depolarization and quick repolarization;
b) rapid depolarization and slow repolarization;
c) rapid de- and repolarizations;
d) slow de- and repolarizations;
e) period of current electrical activity, expressed as slow waves and spike
potentials.
b) rapid depolarization and slow repolarization;
554
P wave of the electrocardiogram reflects:
a) repolarization of the atria;
b) depolarization of the ventricles;
c) depolarization of the atria;
d) hyperpolarization of the atria;
e) the time necessary for the impulse originating in S.A. node to reach the
Purkinje fibers.
c) depolarization of the atria;
555
Asynchronous contraction of the ventricles:
a) is a phase of the ventricular systole;
b) is a phase of the ventricular diastole;
c) begins with closing the S.L. valves;
d) begins with opening the S.L. valves;
e) begins with opening the A.V. valves.
a) is a phase of the ventricular systole;
556
The stroke volume of the heart at rest is:
a) 60 – 90 bt∙min-1
b) approximately 70 ml;
c) 5.2 1;
d) 0.500 l;
e) 100 – 140 mmHg.
b) approximately 70 ml;
556
When there is a complete atriovenrticular block:
a) the conductivity at the bundle of His is fully interrupted;
b) there is a complete independence of the atrial and ventricular ECG
stages;
c) the atrial waves indicate normal heart rate, but the rate of ventricular
ones is 20-40 bt∙min-1
d) the duration of PQ interval is 0.12-0.20 s;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
557
The electrical axis of the heart is determined by:
a) the vectorial sum of QRS complexes in the standard leads;
b) the vectorial sum of QRS complexes in the precordial leads;
c) the vector's direction of the electrical forces of the ventricular muscle
tissue;
d) the supine or straight position of the body;
e) the vector's direction of the electrical forces of the atrial muscle tissue.
a) the vectorial sum of QRS complexes in the standard leads;
558
The augmented unipolar leads are:
a) l-st, II-nd and III-rd;
b) aVR, aVL and aVF;
c) answers a, and b;
d) VI, V2, V3, V4, V5 and V6;
e) b, and d.
b) aVR, aVL and aVF;
559
The auscultation of the mitral valve is performed at:
a) II-nd sternal intercostal space, right of the sternum;
b) V-th intercostal space, 2 cm medial to the midclavicular line;
c) IV-th sternal intercostal space, right of the sternum;
d) II-nd sternal intercostal space, left of the sternum;
e) III-rd sternal intercostal space, left of the sternum.
b) V-th intercostal space, 2 cm medial to the midclavicular line;
560
The 'plateau'- phase of the cardiomyocytes' action potential is due to:
a) outflux of K+ from the cells
b) influx of Na+ into the cells;
c) influx of K+ into the cells;
d) slow influx of Ca2+ into the cells;
e) influx of Na+ into the cells and outlow of K+ from the cells.
d) slow influx of Ca2+ into the cells;
561
The extrasystoles are:
a) increased heart rate of 250 - 230 bt.∙min-1
b) disturbances in conductivity;
c) disturbances in excitability;
d) extraordinary, only currently interrupting the cardiac rhythm,
contractions of the cardiac muscle;
e) c, and d.
e) c, and d.
561
Which of the following doesn't affect the gradient of the blood pressure:
a) cardiac output (C.O.);
b) minute respiratory volume;
c) viscosity of blood;
d) total peripheral vessel resistance;
e) the volume of blood.
b) minute respiratory volume;
562
Which of the following factors is not a vasoconstrictor:
a) norepinephrine;
b) epinephrine;
c) serotonin;
d) angioitensin II;
e) kinins.
e) kinins.
562
At rest the diastolic arterial pressure is:
a) 90 - 95 mmHg;
b) 140 - 160 mmHg;
c) 60 - 90 mmHg;
d) 100 - 140 mmHg;
e) 75 mmHg.
c) 60 - 90 mmHg;
563
The electrical axis of the heart is of indifferent type when α-angle is:
a) from+60 to +90 degrees;
b) from +30 to +60 degrees;
c) from –90 degrees upward;
d) from +30 to –30 degrees;
e) from –30 degrees downward.
b) from +30 to +60 degrees
563
Throughout the isovolumetrtc relaxation of the ventricles:
a) A.V. valves are opened, S.L. valves – opened;
b) A.V. valves are closed, S.L. valves – opened;
c) A.V. valves are opened, S.L. valves – closed;
d) A.V. valves are closed, S.L. valves – closed;
e) none of the above.
d) A.V. valves are closed, S.L. valves – closed
564
The first heart sound is:
a) systolic, result of the ventricular contractions;
b) systolic, result of'the A.V. valves closing;
c) systolic, result of the S.L valves closing;
d) diastolic, result of the A.V. valves closing;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
565
The heart would stop in diastole because of:
a) increased level of Ca2+ in the extracellular fluid;
b) increased levels of catecholamines;
c) increased levels of glucokorticoids;
d) increased concentration of K+ in the extracellular fluid (above 8 mmol.l-1);
e) increased secretion of T3 and T4.
d) increased concentration of K+ in the extracellular fluid (above 8 mmol.l-1);
565
Cardiac output (C.O.) depends on:
a) vital capacity (VC);
b) stroke volume (SV);
c) heart rate (HR);
d) the preload and afterload;
e) b, c, and d.
e) b, c, and d.
565
The intracardial regulation of the heart is carried out by:
a) integrated reflexes;
b) neural regulatory mechanisms;
c) humoral factors;
d) adaptation to changes in venous return or the change in peripheral resistance;
e) the automaticity.
d) adaptation to changes in venous return or the change in peripheral resistance;
566
The pulse pressure is:
a) closer in value to the systolic than to the diastolic pressure;
b) mean arithmetic of systolic and diastolic pressures;
c) closer in value to the diastolic than to the systolic pressure;
d) the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure;
e) one third of the mean arterial pressure.
d) the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure;
566
When the heart rate is 60 bt∙min-1 the duration of the cardiac cycle is:
a) 0.5 s;
b) 0.8 s;
c) 1 s;
d) 0.2 s;
e) none of the above pointed.
c) 1 s;
566
The cardiovascular center is situated in:
a) hypothalamus;
b) mesencephalon;
c) the cortex;
d) medulla oblongata;
e) C8 – Th1-2 spinal cord segments.
d) medulla oblongata;
567
In the pulmonary circulation blood leaves the:
a) right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta;
b) right ventricle and moves to the lungs;
c) right atrium and goes directly to the left ventricle;
d) right atrium and goes directly to the lungs;
e) left ventricle and moves to the lungs.
b) right ventricle and moves to the lungs;
568
Which of the following substances does not participate in the regulation
of blood pressure?
a) ADH;
b) atrial natriuretic peptide;
c) angiotensin II;
d) nitric acid;
e) epinephrine.
d) nitric acid;
568
In the systemic circulation, blood leaves the:
a) left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta;
b) right ventricle and goes directly to the aorta;
c) right ventricle and moves to the lungs;
d)lungs and moves to the left atrium;
e) right atrium and goes directly to the lungs.
a) left ventricle and goes directly to the aorta;
569
The cardiac cycle includes all of the following events except:
a) the movement of impulses from the SA node to all regions of the heart
wall;
b) the closing and opening of the heart valves during each heart beat;
c) the number of times the heart beats in one minute;
d) the changes in pressure gradients in all chambers of the heart;
e) the changes in blood volume in all chambers of the heart.
c) the number of times the heart beats in one minute;
570
Exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the
main function of the:
a) arterioles;
b) arteries;
c) veins;
d) capillaries;
e) venules.
d) capillaries;
570
In the heart, (within physiological limits) the strength of contraction is
directly proportional to the:
a) pacemaker activity;
b) A-V nodal delay;
c) initial length of the cardiac muscle;
d) respiratory rate;
e) ST-segment.
c) initial length of the cardiac muscle
571
The inferior vena cava brings blood from the lower regions of the body
and empties into the:
a)left atrium;
b) right atrium;
c) aorta;
d) left ventricle;
e) right ventricle.
b) right atrium
571
The tricuspid valve is located between the:
a) right and left atria;
b) right and left ventricles;
c) right atrium and right ventricle;
d) left atrium and left ventricle;
e) right ventricle and the aorta.
c) right atrium and right ventricle;
571
The pacemaker of the heart is the:
a) Purkinje fibers;
b) the bundle branches;
c) bundle of His;
d) AV node;
e) SA node.
e) SA node.
572
When the mitral valve closes, it prevents the backflow of blood from
the:
a) left atrium into the left ventricle;
b) left ventricle into the left atrium;
c) right atrium into the right ventricle;
d) left ventricle into the aorta;
e) right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.
b) left ventricle into the left atrium;
573
Which of the following elements of the conducting system has the
slowest velocity of conduction:
a) SA node;
b) atrial muscle;
c) Purkinje fibres;
d) AV node;
e) Hiss bundle.
d) AV node;
574
The myocardium functions as a functional syncytium due to:
a) the presence of striations in the myocardium;
b) branching of myocardial cells;
c) the presence of gap junctions (intercalated disks);
d) the presence of desmosomes;
e) higher concentration of Ca 2+;
c) the presence of gap junctions (intercalated disks);
575
Positive bathmotropic effect on the heart is produced by:
a) stimulation of vagus nerve;
b) stimulation of sympathetic nerves;
c) atropin;
d) cutting vagus;
b) stimulation of sympathetic nerves;
576
Coronary blood flow to the left ventricle increases during:
a) early systole;
b) myocardial hypoxia;
c) hypothermia;
d) stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart;
e) AV block.
b) myocardial hypoxia;
577
Local metabolic activity is the main factor determining the rate of blood
flow to the:
a) heart;
b) skin;
c) glands;
d) lung;
e) kidney.
a) heart;
578
Blood brain barrier is made up of:
a) astrocytes;
b) oligodendrocytes;
c) oligodendroglia;
d) microglia;
e) others.
a) astrocytes;
579
The second heart sound differs from the first heart sound in that it is:
a) related to turbulence set up by valve closure;
b) longer lasting than the first sound;
c) higher in frequency;
d) occasionally split;
e) heard when the ventricles are contracting.
c) higher in frequency;
580
Pulmonary vascular resistance is:
a) is equal to that offered by the systemic circuit;
b) decreased when alveolar oxygen pressure falls;
c) expressed in units of volume flow per unit time per unit pressure gradient;
d) decreased during exercise;
e) regulated reflexvely by sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerves.
d) decreased during exercise;
580
Which of vessels mentioned below are not under sympathetic
control:
a) cerebral;
b) splanchnic;
c) cardiac;
d) cutaneous;
e) in the striated muscles.
a) cerebral;
581
In the heart:
a) the left atrial wall is about three times thicker than the right atrial wall;
b) systolic contraction normally begins in the left atrium;
c) excitation spreads directly from atrial muscle cells to ventricular muscle
cells;
d) atrial and ventricular muscle contracts simultaneously in systole;
e) the contracting ventricles shorten from apex to base.
e) the contracting ventricles shorten from apex to base.
582
When measuring blood pressure by the auscultatory method:
a) the sounds that are heard are generated in the heart;
b) the cuff pressure at which the first sounds are heard indicate the systolic pressure;
c) the cuff pressure at which the loudest sounds are heard indicate
diastolic pressure;
d) systolic pressure estimations tend to be lower than those made by the
palpatory method;
e) wider cuffs are required for smaller arms.
b) the cuff pressure at which the first sounds are heard indicate the systolic pressure;
582
When the eye balls are pressed the reflex that is triggered is called:
a) Goltz`s reflex;
b) pressor reflex;
c) Bezold – Yarish`s reflex;
d) Ashner – Dagnini`s reflex;
e) depressor reflex.
d) Ashner – Dagnini`s reflex;
583
The strength of contraction of left ventricular muscle increases when:
a) end-diastolic ventricular filling pressure rises;
b) serum potassium levels rise;
C. blood calcium levels fall;
d) blood magnesium levels fall;
e) peripheral resistance is decreased.
a) end-diastolic ventricular filling pressure rises;
583
When the heart rate is 75 bt∙min-1, the duration of the cardiac cycle is:
a) 1 s;
b) 0.6 s;
c) 1.2 s;
d) 0.8 s;
e) 1.5 s.
d) 0.8 s;
583
The absolute refractory period in the ventricles:
a) is the period when the ventricles are completely still excitable;
b) corresponds to the period of ventricular depolarization;
c) corresponds approximately to the period of ventricular
relaxation;
d) is shorter than the corresponding period in atrial muscle;
e) decreases during parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
b) corresponds to the period of ventricular depolarization;
584
The first heart sound corresponds in time with:
a) closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves;
b) the P wave of the electrocardiogram;
c) a decline in atrial pressure;
d) a rise in ventricular pressure;
e) the A wave in central venous pressure.
d) a rise in ventricular pressure;
584
Hyperaemia in skeletal muscle during exercise is normally associated
with:
a) release of sympathetic vasoconstrictor tone in the exercising muscles;
b) capillary dilation due to relaxation of capillary smooth muscle;
c) a fall in arterial pressure;
d) reflex vasoconstriction in other vascular beds;
e) an increase in venous pressure.
d) reflex vasoconstriction in other vascular beds;
584
Sinoatrial node cells are:
a) found in both atria;
b) innervated by the somatic nerves;
c) unable to generate impulses when completely denervated;
d) connected to the AV node by fine bundles of Purkinje tissue;
e) able to self generate impulses because their membrane potential is unstable.
e) able to self generate impulses because their membrane potential is unstable.
584
Absolute refractory period in the heart:
a) corresponds to the duration of relaxation;
b) lasts till half of cardiac contraction;
c) shorter than refractory period in skeletal muscle;
d) lasts till cardiac contraction;
e) last only 10 ms.
d) lasts till cardiac contraction;
584
When parasympaticus is activated, there is:
a) hypertension;
b) tachycardia;
c) bradycardia;
d) increase in Stroke Volume;
e) none of the above pointed.
c) bradycardia;
585
Cardiac output:
a) is normally expressed as the output of each of the ventricles in litre/minute-1
b) is about 2.0 l at rest;
c) is about 10.0 l at rest;
d) rises in a cold environment;
e) does not increase in exercise following denervation of the heart.
a) is normally expressed as the output of each of the ventricles in litre/minute-1
586
In the brachial artery:
a) pulse waves travel at the same velocity as blood;
b) pulse pressure falls with decreasing elasticity of the wall;
c) pressure rises markedly when the artery is occluded distally;
d) pressure falls when the arm is raised above head level;
e) pulse pressures have a smaller amplitude than aortic pulse pressures.
d) pressure falls when the arm is raised above head level;
587
From functional point of view arterioles:
a) allow exchange of water, salts, electrolytes, hormones and other
substances between plasma and tissues in both directions;
b) contain bigger part of the blood volume;
c) decrease the big fluctuations in blood plasma during the cardiac cycle;
d) form the resistance against the ventricular contractions;
e) play the role of reservoirs of blood from the capillaries.
d) form the resistance against the ventricular contractions;
588
In atrial fibrillation:
a) the electrocardiogram shows no evidence of atrial activity;
b) the ventricular rate is lower than atrial rate;
c) respiratory sinus arrhythmia can usually be registered;
d) the ventricular rate is higher than atrial rate;
e) the QRS complex has abnormal configuration.
b) the ventricular rate is lower than atrial rate;
588
In a denervated heart, the left ventricular stroke volume increases
when the:
a) end-diastolic length of the ventricular fibres increases;
b) peripheral resistance decreases;
c) blood volume falls;
d) right ventricular output decreases;
e) veins dilate.
a) end-diastolic length of the ventricular fibres increases;
589
The greater the distance from the heart, the arterial:
a) walls contain relatively more smooth muscle fibers than elastic;
b) flow has a greater tendency to be turbulent;
c) mean pressure tends to decrease slightly;
d) pulse pressure tends to increase slightly;
e) pO2 falls appreciably.
a) walls contain relatively more smooth muscle fibers than elastic;
589
The heart rate is decreased when:
a) atropine is injected;
b) vagus is stimulated;
c) glucocorticoids are injected;
d) Ca2+ is applied;
e) adrenalin is injected.
b) vagus is stimulated;
590
Systemic hypertension may be caused by:
a) hypoxia due to chronic respiratory failure;
b) the excessive secretion of aldosterone;
c) excessive secretion of insulin;
d) myocardial thickening (hypertrophy) of the left ventricle;
e) the rapid cardiac action of ventricular fibrillation.
b) the excessive secretion of aldosterone;
590
The main factor, determining the diastolic blood pressure is:
a) the volume of blood;
b) viscosity of blood;
c) cardiac performance;
d) peripheral vascular resistance;
e) the length of the blood vessel.
d) peripheral vascular resistance;
591
The velocity of arterial pulse coduction:
a) depends on the blood flow velocity;
b) is equal for the big and small ateries;
c) depends on the arterial wall peculiarities;
d) doesn`t depend on age;
e) in lower in the smaller arteries.
c) depends on the arterial wall peculiarities;
591
Left ventricular failure tends to cause an increase in:
a) right atrial pressure;
b) left ventricular ejection fraction;
c) pulmonary capillary pressure;
d) lung compliance;
e) pulmonary oedema when the patient stands up.
c) pulmonary capillary pressure;
591
Fenestrated capillaries:
a) have pores in their walls;
b) are located in most of the tissues;
c) permit only one-way exchange of materials;
d) have a layer of smooth muscle in their walls;
e) are found in the liver and kidneys.
a) have pores in their walls;
592
The mean arterial blood pressure is about:
a) close in value to systolic, rather than the diastolic;
b) the average of systolic and diastolic blood pressure;
c) the diastolic plus one third of the pulse pressure;
d) the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures;
e) the systolic plus one third of the diastolic pressure.
c) the diastolic plus one third of the pulse pressure;
592
The cardiac output (C.O.):
a) the volume of blood, pumped by the right ventricle per minute;
b) the volume of blood, flowing through the systemic circulation per minute;
c) is a function of stroke volume and heart rate;
d) the volume of blood ejected by the right ventricle;
e) the volume of blood ejected by the left ventricle.
c) is a function of stroke volume and heart rate;
593
Hardening of the arterial walls tends to raise:
a) arterial compliance;
b) systolic arterial pressure;
c) diastolic arterial pressure;
d) peripheral resistance;
e) the frequency of breathing.
b) systolic arterial pressure;
594
Which of following factors doesn`t play role in the formation of the
Effective Filtration Pressure in the capillaries:
a) the hemodynamic pressure;
b) the coloid osmotic pressure of plasma protein;
c) the intrapleural pressure;
d) the tissue fluid pressure;
e) the interstitial coloid osmotic pessure.
c) the intrapleural pressure;
594
The plateau phase of the action potential of the contractile
myocardiocytes is due to:
a) the slow movement of Na+ across the cell membrane;
b) the influx of Ca2+;
c) the increased membrane permeability to K+
d) the increased membrane permeability to Na+
e) a decrease in Ca2+ diffusing across membrane.
b) the influx of Ca2+
595
If the vagus nerve innervating the heart is blocked, than:
a) the heart rate would decrease;
b) the stroke volume would decrease;
c) thecardiac output would decrease;
d) the heart rate would increase;
e) the heart activity would remain unchanged.
d) the heart rate would increase;
596
The term ‘metabolism’:
a) refers to all the chemical reactions that occur in the body;
b) includes the synthesis of complex molecules from simpler ones;
c) includes the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler ones;
d) includes anabolism and catabolism;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
597
Which of the following statements concerning energy storage in the body
is true?
a) most is stored in the form of ATP;
b) most is stored in the form of glucose;
c) most is stored in the form of fat;
d) most is stored in the form of protein;
e) most is stored in the form of DNA.
c) most is stored in the form of fat;
598
Chewing food aids digestion by:
a) stimulating the release of bile;
b) increasing the surface area of the food;
c) breaking up large protein molecules into peptides;
d) breaking down carbohydrates;
e) breaking down fats;
b) increasing the surface area of the food;
598
The enzyme amylase is secreted by:
a) liver and duodenum;
b) duodenum and pancreas;
c) salivary glands and liver;
d) pancreas and salivary glands;
e) stomach and duodenum.
d) pancreas and salivary glands;
599
An example of absorption is the:
a) movement of food by peristalsis;
b) active transport of glucose into a villus;
c) hydrolysis of a peptide into amino acids;
d) release of secretin in the presence of HCl;
e) c, and d.
b) active transport of glucose into a villus
600
A function of the small intestine is to:
a) secrete bile;
b) filter waste;
c) make vitamins;
d) absorb nutrients;
e) secrete HCl.
d) absorb nutrients;
601
The main sources of energy in food are:
a) proteins;
b) vitamins;
c) nucleic acids;
d) carbohydrates;
e) lipids.
d) carbohydrates;
602
Calcium absorption is facilitated by:
a) hypercalcaemia;
b) oxalates in the diet;
c) iron overload;
d) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol;
e) increased Na+ absorption.
d) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol;
602
Which of the following has the lowest pH?
a) gastric juice;
b) hepatic bile;
c) pancreatic juice;
d) saliva;
e) secretion of the intestinal glands.
a) gastric juice;
602
When parietal cells are stimulated, they secrete:
a) HCl and intrinsic factor;
b) HCl and pepsinogen;
c) HCl and HCO3
d) HCO3 and intrinsic factor;
e) mucus and pepsinogen.
a) HCl and intrinsic factor;
603
Secretion of HCl by the gastric parietal cells is needed for:
a) activation of pancreatic lipases.
b) activation of salivary lipases.
c) activation of intrinsic factor.
d) conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin;
e) formation of micelles.
d) conversion of pepsinogen into pepsin
603
Fat absorption occurs mainly in the:
a) stomach;
b) duodenum;
c) terminal ileum;
d) coecum;
e) sigmoid colon.
b) duodenum;
604
The movements of the small intestine are:
a) mixing contraction;
b) propulsive contraction;
c) antiperistaltic contraction;
d) hunger contraction;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
605
Which of the following organs or tissues is most dependent upon a
constant blood supply of glucose?
a) liver;
b) brain;
c) adipose tissue;
d) skeletal muscle;
e) cardiac muscle.
b) brain;
605
For fat digestion:
a) bile salts are the most efficient emulsifiers;
b) gastric lipase is the most important;
c) pancreatic lipase in the duodenum is needed;
d) digestion takes place in micelles;
e) micelles attach to enterocyte receptor.
c) pancreatic lipase in the duodenum is needed;
605
Where the protein hydrolysis occurs:
a) oral cavity;
b) stomach;
c) small intestine;
d) esophagus;
e) b, and c.
e) b, and c.
606
After a fatty meal is taken, most of the fat would be:
a) absorbed in the portal circulation and transported to the liver;
b) absorbed in the portal vein and transported in the hepatic artery;
c) absorbed as chylomicrons in the lymphatic system;
d) absorbed as triglycerides into the portal vein and bypasses the liver;
e) absorbed in the duodenum.
c) absorbed as chylomicrons in the lymphatic system;
607
Release of which one of the following increases the pH of duodenal
contents?
a) secretin;
b) gastrin;
c) intrinsic factor;
d) cholecystokinin;
e) gastrin releasing peptide.
a) secretin;
608
Gastric acid secretion is decreased by:
a) vagal inhibition;
b) ingestion of protein;
c) noradrenaline;
d) M1-cholinergic antagonist show the same efficacy at reducing gastric
acid secretion;
e) distension of bowel wall.
a) vagal inhibition;
609
In the small intestine, glucose is absorbed:
a) passively;
b) by secondary active transport (coupled to Na+
transport);
c) by facilitated diffusion;
d) by co-transport with chloride;
e) actively by insulin dependent uptake.
b) by secondary active transport (coupled to Na+
transport);
610
In the GI tract, the layer, responsible for absorption and secretion is:
a) mucosa;
b) submucosa;
c) muscularis;
d) serosa;
e) adventitia.
a) mucosa;
610
After ingestion of a meal:
a) digestion of fat and carbohydrate begins in the mouth while protein
digestion begins in the stomach;
b) carbohydrates are digested in the mouth and proteins in the stomach;
c) proteins are digested in mouth and fats and carbohydrates in stomach;
d) most fluid and electrolytes are absorbed in the large bowel;
e) composition of the food has no effect on transit time through the bowel.
a) digestion of fat and carbohydrate begins in the mouth while protein
610
Most of the chemical and mechanical digestion is carried
out within:
a) pylorus;
b) fundus;
c) stomach;
d) large intestine;
e) small intestine.
e) small intestine.
610
Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
a) vit. A;
b) vit. B;
c) vit. D;
d) vit. E;
e) vit. K.
b) vit. B;
610
Calcium uptake in the intestine:
a) is passive;
b) requires a carrier protein on the mucosal side;
c) is by facilitated diffusion;
d) is less than 10% of dietary intake;
e) is facilitated by phosphate.
b) requires a carrier protein on the mucosal side;
610
In the duodenum in response to acidic chyme is released:
a) cholecystokinin;
b) gastrin;
c) secretin;
d) peptide;
e) amylase.
c) secretin
611
The digestive enzyme, produced in the salivary glands and the
pancreas is:
a) maltase;
b) amylase;
c) pepsin;
d) nuclease;
e) lipase.
b) amylase;
611
This keeps the chyme in the stomach until it reaches the right
consistency to pass into the small intestine:
a) esophageal sphincter;
b) intrinsic sphincter;
c) cardiac sphincter;
d) pyloric sphincter;
e) duodenal sphincter.
d) pyloric sphincter;
612
The function of the ileum is to:
a) absorb nutrients;
b) absorb vitamin B12 and bile salts;
c) introduce bile and pancreatic juices;
d) absorb alcohol and aspirin;
e) all of the above.
b) absorb vitamin B12 and bile salts;
612
The cells at the base of fundic or oxyntic glands are:
a) chief cells;
b) G cells;
c) enteroendocrine cells;
d) goblet cells;
e) parietal cells.
a) chief cells;
612
Parietal cells secrete:
a) serotonin;
b) mucus;
c) pepsinogen;
d) hydrochloric acid;
e) gastrin.
d) hydrochloric acid;
612
Which enzymes are secreted with the pancreatic juice:
a) lipolytic: lipase and esterase;
b) proteolytic: trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, elastase, carboxypeptidase,
etc.;
c) amilolitic: amylase, maltase, sacharase, lactase;
d) nucleic: RNA-ase and DNA-ase;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
613
The gastrointestinal enzymes:
a) are situated in the epithelial intestinal cells (enterocytes) and control cell
metabolism;
b) are secreted into the blood stream by specialized cells in the gut walls and
modulate its motor and secretory activity;
c) are secreted by exocrine glands of the gut mucosa and break down nutrients;
d) are secreted by the gastric walls and protect the gut mucosa from the effect
of HCl and proteolytic enzymes;
e) are secreted by the gastric walls into the small intestine and protect the gut
mucosa from the effect of HCl, proteolytic and nucleic enzymes.
c) are secreted by exocrine glands of the gut mucosa and break down nutrients;
614
The chyme movement and flow into the stomach is controlled
by:
a) nervous system;
b) pancreas;
c) various digestive system hormones;
d) liver;
e) both the nervous system and various digestive system hormones.
e) both the nervous system and various digestive system hormones.
614
Gastrointestinal hormones:
a) are secreted by exocrine glands of the gut mucosa and affect metabolism;
b) are secreted into the blood stream by specialized cells in the gut walls and modulate its motor and secretory activity;
c) are secreted by the gastric walls and protect the gut mucosa from the effect of HCl and proteolytic enzymes;
d) are situated in the epithelial intestinal cells (enterocytes) and control the cell metabolism of nutrients;
e) are secreted by the gastric walls and colon and protect the gut mucosa from
the effect of HCl and proteolytic and nucleic enzymes.
b) are secreted into the blood stream by specialized cells in the gut walls and modulate its motor and secretory activity;
614
The humoral factors inhibiting gastric motility are:
a) gastrin;
b) GIP, catecholamines, secretin, somatostatin, cholecystokinin- pancreozimin;
c) secretin and cholecystokinin-pancreozimin;
d) gastrin and motilin;
e) intestinal hormones, somatostatin, secretin and cholecystockinin-
pancreozimin.
b) GIP, catecholamines, secretin, somatostatin, cholecystokinin- pancreozimin;
615
Which enzymes are secreted with the gastric juice:
a) pepsinogene and lipase;
b) pepsinogene, tripsinogene and maltase;
c) pepsinogene, lipase and HCl;
d) proteolytic, lipolytic and amylolytic enzymes;
e) proteolytic, nucleolytic, lipolytic and amylolytic enzymes.
a) pepsinogene and lipase;
616
Which of the bile components are important for digestion:
a) secretin and hepatocrinin;
b) bile salts, phospholipids, cholesterol;
c) acid phosphatase, secretin and hepatocrinin;
d) proteolytic, lipolytic and amylolytic enzymes;
e) cholecystokinin-pancreozimin and hepatocrinin.
b) bile salts, phospholipids, cholesterol;
616
The enzymes, secreted with the intestinal juice are:
a) exopeptidases, lipase, maltase, nucleic (nuclease, nucleotidases,
nucleosidases);
b) endo- and exopeptidases, esterase and amylolytic enzymes;
c) aminopeptidase, dipeptidase, nuclease and lipase;
d) aminopeptidase, dipeptidase, nuclease, somatostatin, secretin,
cholecystokinin-pancreozimin;
e) trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, elastase and lipase.
c) aminopeptidase, dipeptidase, nuclease and lipase;
617
The humoral factors stimulating gastric motility are:
a) catecholamines, secretin, gastric peptide, somatostatin, cholecystokinin-
рancreozimin;
b) secretin and cholecystokinim-pancreozimin;
c) motilin and gastrin;
d) GIP, VIP, somatostatin, secretin and cholecystokinin-pancrezimin;
e) gastrin, histamine, secretin.
c) motilin and gastrin;
618
The humoral factors that inhibit gastric secretion are:
a) gastrin, histamine, acetylcholine, cholecystokinin-pancreozinin, bombesin,
motilin;
b) secretin, сhоlесуstokinin-pancreozimin, somatostatin, catecholamines;
c) GIP, secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimm,VIP, enterogastrone;
d) enkephalines, endorphines, angiotensinogens;
e) corticoglomerolotropin, prolactin, substance P.
c) GIP, secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimm,VIP, enterogastrone;
618
The humoral factors that stimulate intestinal motility are:
a) catecholamines and intestinal hormones;
b) secretin and hepatocrinin;
c) secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, GIP, VIP, substance P and bombesin;
d) intestinal hormones;
e) gastrin, secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin and hepatocrinin.
c) secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, GIP, VIP, substance P and bombesin;
619
Which humoral factors stimulate gastric secretion:
a) secretin, сhоlecystokinin-somatostatin;
b) secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, histamine, acetylcholine, bombesin,
motilin, meat and vegetable extracts;
c) VIP, somatostatin, GIP, cholecystokinin-pancreosimin;
d) corticoglomerulotropin, prolactin, substance P;
e) gastrin, histamine, secretin.
e) gastrin, histamine, secretin.
620
The physiological effect of histamine on gastric secretion is:
a) increased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and low proteolytic activity;
b) to decrease the amount of the gastric juice;
c) increased amount of gastric juice of low acidity and high proteolytic
activity;
d) increased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and high proteolytic
activity;
e) increased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and low proteolytic activity.
a) increased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and low proteolytic activity
620
The physiological effect of gastrin on gastric secretion is:
a) increased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and low proteolytic activity;
b) increased amount of gastric juice of low acidity and high proteolytic
activity;
c) to decrease the amount of gastric juice;
d) decreased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and low proteolytic
activity;
e) increased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and low proteolytic activity;
e) increased amount of gastric juice of high acidity and low proteolytic activity;
621
The humoral factors that stimulate the formation and secretion of bile are:
a) angiotensin, thyroxine, somatostatin;
b) glucagon, calcitonin, VIP;
c) secretin, gastrin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, bile salts;
d) catecholamines, glucagon, calcitonin, VIP;
e) alkaline and acid phosphatase.
c) secretin, gastrin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, bile salts;
622
The humoral factors that inhibit the formation and secretion of bile are:
a) secretin, gastrin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, acetylcholine;
b) catecholamines;
c) alkaline and acid phosphatase;
d) angiotensin, tiroxin, somatostatin;
e) insulin, glucagon, catecholamines, growth hormone, glucocorticoids, thyroid
hormones.
b) catecholamines;
622
The humoral factors that stimulate the secretion of pancreatic juice are:
a) glucagon, calcitonin, somatostatin;
b) tripsin, amilase, lipase;
c) secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, gastrin, serotonin,VIP, insulin;
d) somatostatin, GIP;
e) glucagon, insulin, catecholamines, growth hormone, glucocorticoids, thyroid
hormones.
c) secretin, cholecystokinin-pancreozimin, gastrin, serotonin,VIP, insulin;
622
The carbohydrates are absorbed as:
a) mono- and disaccharides;
b) glucose and glycogen;
c) monosaccharides - pentoses and hexoses;
d) glucosamines;
e) glucose, glycogen, glucosamine.
c) monosaccharides - pentoses and hexoses;
623
The hormones regulating carbohydrate metabolism (synthesis, catabolism)
are:
a) androgenes, estrogenes, progesteron, adrenoglomerulotropin;
b) insulin, glucagon, catecholamines, growth hormone, glucocorticoids
(ACTH), T3 and T4 (TTH);
c) somatostatin, bombesin, gastrin, histanime, kinins;
d) glucagon, calcitonin, somatostatin, catecholamines, serotonin;
e) catecholamines, glucagon, dehydroepiandroserone, somatotropin.
b) insulin, glucagon, catecholamines, growth hormone, glucocorticoids
(ACTH), T3 and T4 (TTH);
624
The hormones that increase significantly the basic metabolic rate are:
a) insulin and glucocorticoids;
b) glucagon and parathyroid hormone;
c) testosterone and estrogens;
d) T3, T4, catecholamines and glucocorticoids;
e) insulin and growth hormone.
d) T3, T4, catecholamines and glucocorticoids;
624
Glucose enters the blood stream via:
a) absorption in the mouth;
b) gluconeogenesis in the skeletal muscles;
c) enterocytes’ absorption, liver glycogen catabolism,
hepatocytes and kidneys gluconeogenesis, renal proximal tubule epitheliocytes;
d) degradation of glycogen in the skeletal muscles;
e) glucogenolisis in the hepatocytes.
c) enterocytes’ absorption, liver glycogen catabolism,
hepatocytes and kidneys gluconeogenesis, renal proximal tubule epitheliocytes;
625
The humoral and pharmacological factors inhibiting salivary secretion are:
a) catecholamines;
b) cholinolytics;
c) adrenominetics;
d) catecholamines, cholinolytics; adrenomimetics;
e) adrenolytics and cholinomimetics.
d) catecholamines, cholinolytics; adrenomimetics;
625
The basal metabolic rate is the energy consumption of the body under the
following conditions:
a) adequate intake of vitamins regulating the intermediate processes of
metabolism of the various substances;
b) normal function of the endocrine glands;
c) physical and psychic rest, 12 hours after the last meal in a room at a temperature of 20-22°C;
d) during physical activity;
e) during sleep, pregnancy or lactation.
c) physical and psychic rest, 12 hours after the last meal in a room at a temperature of 20-22°C;
626
The chief cells of the stomach glands secrete:
a) proteolytic enzymes;
b) hydrochloric acid;
c) mucus;
d) gastrointestinal hormones;
e) autonomously active substances.
a) proteolytic enzymes;
626
Humoral factors taking part in the calcium/phosphorus homeostasis are:
a) parathyroid hormone and thyroxin;
b) parathyroid hormone, thyrocalcitonin and vitamin D3;
c) thyrocalcitonin and epinephrine;
d) thyrocalcitonin and aldosteron;
e) antidiuretic hormone, androgens and angiotensin II.
b) parathyroid hormone, thyrocalcitonin and vitamin D3;
627
As far as bile is considered:
a) contains enzymes required for the digestion of fat;
b) contains unconjugated bilirubin;
c) bile salts make cholesterol more water-soluble;
d) pigments contain iron;
e) becomes more alkaline during storage in the gallbladder.
c) bile salts make cholesterol more water-soluble
627
The body requires amino acids to:
a) produce new red blood cells;
b) produce new protein;
c) replace damaged red blood cells;
d) replace damaged proteins;
e) b, and d.
e) b, and d.
627
Which of the following will catalyze the breakdown of starches?
a) protease;
b) amylase;
c) lipase;
d) sucrase;
e) peptidase.
b) amylase;
628
Which molecule represents the storage form of glucose in the liver?
a) glycogen;
b) glucagon;
c) disaccharide;
d) lactic acid;
e) carbonic acid.
a) glycogen;
629
Saliva:
a) from different salivary glands has a similar composition;
b) contains enzymes essential for the digestion of proteins;
c) has less than half the ionic calcium level of plasma;
d) has more than twice the iodide level of plasma;
e) has a pH between 5 and 6.
d) has more than twice the iodide level of plasma;
629
Swallowing is a reflex which:
a) has its reflex centres in the cervical segments of the spinal cord;
b) is initiated by a voluntary act and includes inhibition of
respiration;
c) has its reflex centres in the thoracic segments of the spinal cord;
d) is not dependent on intrinsic nerve networks in the oesophagus;
e) is more effective when the person is lying down rather than when
standing.
b) is initiated by a voluntary act and includes inhibition of
respiration;
630
Appetite for food is increased:
a) by the secretion of cholecystokinin;
b) by the secretion of calcitonin;
c) when the stomach is distended;
d) the stomach is denervated;
e) the environment is cold.
c) when the stomach is distended;
630
Secretion of saliva increases when:
a) atropine is applied;
b) the mouth is flushed with fluids with a pH of about 7;
c) the subject thinks of unappetizing food;
d) epinephrine is applied;
e) the saliva glands parasympathetic nerve supply is stimulated.
e) the saliva glands parasympathetic nerve supply is stimulated.
631
In the stomach:
a) pH rarely falls below 4.0;
b) pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid;
c) ferrous iron is reduced to ferric iron by hydrochloric acid;
d) acid secretion is inhibited by pentagastrin;
e) there is a rise in the bacterial count after histamine H1 receptor
blockade.
b) pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid;
631
Defaecation is a reflex action:
a) that is coordinated by reflex centres in the sacral cord;
b) whose afferent limb carries impulses from stretch receptors in the colon;
c) whose efferent limb travels mainly in sympathetic autonomic nerves;
a) that is coordinated by reflex centres in the sacral cord;
632
Intestinal juice contain:
a) potassium in a concentration similar to that in extracellular fluid;
b) enzymes that are released when the vagus nerve is inhibited;
c) enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides;
d) enzymes that hydrolyze monosaccharides;
e) enzymes that suppress pancreatic proteolyic enzymes.
c) enzymes that hydrolyze disaccharides;
633
Pancreatic secretion:
a) in response to vagal stimulation is copious, rich in bicarbonate but poor
in enzymes;
b) in response to acid in the duodenum is scanty but rich in enzymes;
c) in response to secretin secretion is low in bicarbonate;
d) contains enzymes that digest neutral fat to glycerol and fatty acids;
e) contains enzymes that convert disaccharides to monosaccharides.
d) contains enzymes that digest neutral fat to glycerol and fatty acids;
634
The liver is the principal site for:
a) synthesis of plasma albumin;
b) synthesis of plasma globulins;
c) synthesis of vitamin B12;
d) storage of vitamin C;
e) activation of some polypeptide hormones.
a) synthesis of plasma albumin;
635
The gastric juice:
a) is secreted when the vagus nerves are stimulated;
b) is secreted in vagotomized animals when food is chewed but not
swallowed;
c) activates the digestive enzymes secreted with saliva;
d) digests the gastric mucosa because it is not protected by a pepsin
inactivator;
a) is secreted when the vagus nerves are stimulated
635
The respiratory quotient (RQ):
a) is the volume of O2 consumed to the volume of CO2
produced ratio;
b) depends essentially on the type of substrate being metabolized and is 1.0 when the substrate is glucose;
c) is 1.0 in conditions of metabolic alcalosis;
d) is between 0.9 and 1.0 in the second week of fasting;
e) is above 0.8 if fats are mainly metabolized.
b) depends essentially on the type of substrate being metabolized and is 1.0 when the substrate is glucose;
636
Oxygen consumption tends to increase when the:
a) concentration of oxygen in inspired air rises;
b) metabolic rate falls;
c) body temperature rises and environmental temperature falls;
d) environmental temperature increases;
e) before a meal is ingested.
c) body temperature rises and environmental temperature falls;
636
Brown fat is:
a) relatively more abundant in adults than in infants;
b) richer in mitochondria than ordinary fat and has an extensive sympathetic innervation;
c) produces less heat and more ATP than other tissues;
d) stimulated to generate more heat when its parasympathetic nerve
supply is stimulated;
e) less important than shivering in neonatal thermoregulation.
b) richer in mitochondria than ordinary fat and has an extensive sympathetic innervation;
637
The passage of acidic gastric contents to the duodenum may cause:
a) copious secretion of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate;
b) increased gastric motility;
c) relaxation of the gallbladder;
d) contraction of the sphincter of Oddi;
e) inhibition of pancreozymin secretion.
a) copious secretion of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonate;
637
The normally innervated stomach:
a) is stimulated to secrete gastric juice when food is chewed, even if it is not swallowed;
b) secrete HCl when its H1
histamine receptors are blocked;
c) increases gastric secretion when there are fear and depression;
d) empties slower than the denervated stomach;
e) is stimulated to secrete gastric juice by the hormone secretin.
a) is stimulated to secrete gastric juice when food is chewed, even if it is not swallowed;
637
Nitrogen balance:
a) is the relationship between the body’s nitrogen intake and nitrogen loss;
b) is usually negative in childhood;
c) becomes more positive when dietary protein is decreased;
d) becomes positive whenever a single essential amino acid is omitted
from the diet;
e) becomes less negative in the final stages of fatal starvation.
a) is the relationship between the body’s nitrogen intake and nitrogen loss;
638
The specific dynamic action of food:
a) is the decrease in metabolic rate that results from ingestion of food;
b) persists for about an hour after a meal is ingested;
c) is due to the additional energy expended in digesting and absorbing the
food;
d) results in about 30 per cent of the energy value of ingested protein
being unavailable for other purposes;
e) results in about 20 per cent of the energy value of ingested fat and
carbohydrate being unavailable for other purposes.
d) results in about 30 per cent of the energy value of ingested protein
being unavailable for other purposes;
639
Bile salts:
a) derived from cholesterol, are the only constituents of bile necessary for digestion;
b) have a characteristic molecule, being water-soluble;
c) are reabsorbed mainly in the upper small intestine;
d) increase surface tension;
e) are absorbed in the colon.
a) derived from cholesterol, are the only constituents of bile necessary for digestion;
639
Secretion of gastric juice:
a) decreases when food stimulates mucosal cells in the pyloric region;
b) is associated with a decrease in the pH of venous blood draining the
stomach;
c) in response to food is increased after vagotomy;
d) is essential for carbohydrate digestion;
e) is essential for absorption of vitamin B12.
e) is essential for absorption of vitamin B12.
639
In the small intestine:
a) the enzyme concentration in intestinal juice is higher in the ileum than in the jejunum;
b) vitamin B12 is absorbed mainly in the jejunum;
c) water absorption is independent on the active absorption of sodium and glucose;
d) absorption of calcium occurs mainly in the terminal ileum;
e) glucose absorption is dependent on sodium absorption.
e) glucose absorption is dependent on sodium absorption.
639
The cells of the liver:
a) help to maintain the normal blood glucose level;
b) deaminate amino acids to form NH4 + which is excreted as ammonium salts in the urine;
c) synthesize Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol);
d) manufacture most of the immune globulins;
e) activate steroid hormones manufactured in the gonads.
a) help to maintain the normal blood glucose level;
640
Peptic ulcer pain is typically relieved by:
a) raising the pH of the fluid bathing the ulcer and a drug blocking the gastric proton pump;
b) a drug decreasing the pH;
c) H2 stimulators;
d) a drug which interferes with the action of acetylcholinesterase;
e) a drug which stimulates the gastric proton pump.
a) raising the pH of the fluid bathing the ulcer and a drug blocking the gastric proton pump;
641
Absorption of dietary fat:
a) can only occur after the neutral fat has been split into glycerol and
fatty acids;
b) does not depend on their size;
c) is impaired when bile salt reabsorption is prevented by resection of the terminal ileum;
d) is carried out by passive diffusion;
e) is greatest in the lower parts of the small intestine.
c) is impaired when bile salt reabsorption is prevented by resection of the terminal ileum;
641
One gram of:
a) carbohydrate, metabolized in the body, yields more energy when oxidized in a bomb calorimeter;
b) fat, metabolized in the body, yields 10 per cent more energy than 1g of carbohydrate;
c) protein, metabolized in the body, yields the same energy as when oxidized in a bomb calorimeter;
d) carbohydrate, metabolized in the body, yields about the same energy as 1g of protein;
e) protein per kg body weight is not the adequate daily protein intake for a
sedentary adult.
d) carbohydrate, metabolized in the body, yields about the same energy as 1g of protein;
642
Impaired intestinal absorption of:
a) iron occurs frequently following removal of most of the stomach;
b) iodine leads to a reduction in size of the thyroid gland;
c) water occurs in infants who cannot digest lipids;
d) calcium may occur following removal of the terminal ileum;
e) bile salts may occur following resection of the stomach.
a) iron occurs frequently following removal of most of the stomach;
643
Cholesterol:
a) can be absorbed from the gut by intestinal lymphatics following its incorporation into chylomicrons;
b) can be synthesized in the spleen;
c) in the diet comes mainly from vegetable sources;
d) is eliminated from the body mainly by metabolic degradation;
e) is not a precursor of adrenal medulla hormones.
a) can be absorbed from the gut by intestinal lymphatics following its incorporation into chylomicrons;
643
Free (non-esterified) fatty acids in plasma:
a) are provided to fat cells and other tissues by chylomicrons and VLDL;
b) are bound to albumins ;
c) decrease when the level of blood adrenaline rises;
d) can be metabolized to release energy in smooth muscle;
e) are not synthesized in the fat depots where they are stored.
b) are bound to albumins ;
644
Metabolic rate can be estimated from measurements of:
a) total heat loss;
b) the calorific value of the food consumed in the previous 24 hours;
c) oxygen consumption and the respiratory quotient;
d) carbon dioxide production and the respiratory quotient;
e) c, and d.
e) c, and d.
644
Fat stores in the adult:
a) make up less than 5 % of average body weight;
b) Make up a smaller percentage of body weight in women than in men;
c) release fatty acids when there is increased sympathetic nerve activity;
d) release fatty acids when insulin is injected;
e) enlarge by increasing the number of adipocytes they contain.
c) release fatty acids when there is increased sympathetic nerve activity;
644
Complications that may arise after total gastrectomy include:
a) depletion of vitamin B12 stores in the liver;
b) malabsorption of fat due to rapid intestinal transit;
c) impaired defaecation due to loss of the gastrocolic reflex;
d) inability to digest protein;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
645
Urobilinogen is:
a) a mixture of colourless compounds also known as stercobilinogen;
b) formed in the reticuloendothelial system from bilirubin;
c) absorbed from the intestine;
d) excreted mainly in the urine;
e) a, and c.
e) a, and c.
646
Severe diarrhoea causes a decrease in:
a) body potassium;
b) antidiuretic hormone level;
c) extracellular fluid volume;
d) total vascular peripheral resistance;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
647
Surgical removal of 90 % of the small intestine may cause a decrease in:
a) the fat content of the stools;
b) bone mineralization (osteomalacia);
c) extracellular fluid volume;
d) blood haemoglobin level;
e) body weight.
c) extracellular fluid volume;
647
Lack of pancreatic juice in the duodenum may lead to:
a) the presence of undigested meat fibres in the stools;
b) an increase in the fat content of the faeces;
c) a decrease in the fat of the faces;
d) a high prothrombin level in blood;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
648
Constipation is a recognized consequence of:
a) psychological stress;
b) abnormality of the autonomic nerve supply to the esophagus;
c) a diet that leaves little unabsorbed residue in the gut;
d) over-activity of the thyroid gland as in thyrotoxicosis;
e) a, and c.
e) a, and c.
648
Gastric:
a) acid secretion in response to a lowered blood sugar is mediated by
the hormone gastrin;
b) emptying is facilitated by sympathetic nerve activity;
c) acid secretion increases when histamine H2, muscarinic M1 or
gastrin receptors are activated;
d) acid secretion is inhibited by the presence of food in the duodenum;
e) c, and d.
e) c, and d.
648
Iron is absorbed in:
a) stomach;
b) duodenum;
c) jejunum;
d) ileum;
e) colon.
b) duodenum;
648
Absorption of glucose by intestinal mucosal cells:
a) relies on a carrier mechanism in the cell membrane;
b) is blocked not by the same agents that block renal reabsorption of glucose;
c) is enhanced by blockade of active sodium transport in the cells;
d) takes place mainly in the ileum;
e) does not involve the same carriers that are used for the absorption of galactose.
a) relies on a carrier mechanism in the cell membrane;
649
Muscle tone in the lower oesophagus is:
a) lower than tone in the middle oesophagus;
b) a major factor in preventing heartburn;
c) increased in pregnancy;
d) decreased by gastrin;
e) increased by anticholinergic drugs.
b) a major factor in preventing heartburn;
649
All are GIT hormones except:
a) cholecystokinin;
b) gastrin;
c) secretin;
d) erythropoietin;
e) somatostatin.
d) erythropoietin;
650
Which of the following are incorrectly paired:
a) pancreatic alpha amylase-starch;
b) elastase-tissue rich in elastin;
c) renin-coagulated milk;
d) enteropeptidase-trypsinogen;
e) phospholipase A2-phospholipids.
c) renin-coagulated milk;
651
In infants, defecation often follows a meal. The cause of colonic
contractions in this situation is:
a) gastro-ileal reflex;
b) increased circulating levels of CCK;
c) gastrocolic reflex;
d) enterogastric reflex;
e) decreased circulating levels of gastrin.
c) gastrocolic reflex;
651
Man is unable to digest:
a) dextrin;
b) glucose;
c) cellulose;
d) glycogen;
e) maltose.
c) cellulose;
652
Which of the following has the highest pH:
a) gastric juice;
b) pancreatic juice;
c) bile in gallbladder;
d) secretions of intestinal glands;
e) saliva.
b) pancreatic juice;
653
Steatorrhoea may be caused by all factors except:
a) pancreatectomy;
b) gastrin secreting tumor;
c) resection of distal ileum;
d) hemolytic jaundice;
e) increased amount of fat in the stools.
d) hemolytic jaundice;
654
Normal swallowing is dependant on the integrity of the:
a) IX and X cranial nerves;
b) pyramidal tract;
c) trigeminal nerve;
d) appetite center of hypothalamus;
e) neurons, secreting VIP.
a) IX and X cranial nerves;
655
Vit. D is essential for normal:
a) fat absorption;
b) Ca2+ absorption;
c) ADH secretion;
d) protein absorption;
e) glucose absorption.
b) Ca2+ absorption;
655
Secretion of the intrinsic factor of Castle occurs in:
a) parietal cells of the stomach;
b) chief cells of the stomach;
c) upper abdomen;
d) alpha cells of pancreas;
e) cells of the parotid gland.
b) chief cells of the stomach;
656
Saliva is responsible for all except:
a) deglutition;
b) dental caries prevention;
c) complete digestion of proteins;
d) the concentration of iodine;
e) maintaining the oral pH at about 7.0.
c) complete digestion of proteins;
657
Gastrin secretion is increased by:
a) acid in the lumen of stomach;
b) calcitonin;
c) secretin;
d) vagal discharge;
e) a, and b.
d) vagal discharge
658
In which of the following is absorption of water greatest:
a) colon;
b) jejunum;
c) duodenum;
d) stomach;
e) mouth.
b) jejunum;
659
Secretin is released by:
a) acid in duodenum;
b) acid in stomach;
c) cells in the liver;
d) distention of colon;
e) gallbladder.
a) acid in duodenum;
659
The gastrin is secreted in the:
a) antrum of the stomach;
b) fundus of the stomach;
c) duodenum;
d) ileum;
e) colon.
a) antrum of the stomach;
660
The fats are resorbed mainly in the:
a) stomach;
b) duodenum;
c) terminal ileum;
d) cecum;
e) colon.
b) duodenum;
661
Carbonic anhydrase has a role to play in the formation of:
a) HCl by the parietal cells of the stomach;
b) carbaminohaemoglobin;
c) cerebrospinal fluid in the choroid plexuses;
d) Bile salts;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
662
Energy storage is mainly in the form of:
a) ATP;
b) glucose;
c) fats;
d) proteins;
e) DNA.
c) fats;
663
Vit. D is of essentiol significance for:
a) the absorbtion of fats;
b) the absorbtion of Ca2+;
c) secretion of ADH;
d) absopption of proteins;
e) absorption of glucose.
b) the absorbtion of Ca2+;
663
The mass movements are characteristic of the:
a) large intestine;
b) ileum;
c) duodenum;
d) stomach;
e) esophagus.
a) large intestine;
664
The proteins are resorbed in the form of:
a) polypeptides, dipeptides;
b) dipeptides and aminoacids;
c) aminoacids and pepsinogens;
d) chylomicrones;
e) proteolitic enzymes.
b) dipeptides and aminoacids
665
The carbohydrates are resorbed as:
a) mono- and disacharids;
b) glucose, glicogen;
c) glucosaminglicans;
d) glicogen;
e) only monosacharids.
a) mono- and disacharids;
666
Hormones, controlling the blood sugar level are:
a) androgens, estrogens, progesterone, adrenoglomerulotropin;
b) insulin, glucagon, catecholamines, growth hormon, glucocorticoids (ACTH), T3 and T4 (TSH);
c) somatostatin, bombesin, gastrin, histamine, kinins;
d) calcitonin, somatostatin, catecholamins, serotonin;
e) catecholamins, dehydroepiandrosteron, somatotropin.
b) insulin, glucagon, catecholamines, growth hormon, glucocorticoids (ACTH), T3 and T4 (TSH);
666
The fats are resorbed as:
a) glicerol, free fatty acids and cholesterol;
b) triglycerds;
c) lypases and higher fatty acids;
d) only cholesterol;
e) all of the above.
a) glicerol, free fatty acids and cholesterol;
667
In the stomach:
a) pH is above 4.0;
b) pepsinogen is converted into pepsin under the influence of HCI;
c) Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+ under the influence of HCI;
d) HCI secretion is suppressed by pentagastrin;
e) the bacterial count increases after applying H1-receptor blockers.
b) pepsinogen is converted into pepsin under the influence of HCI;
667
The motor activity of the stomach includes:
a) peristalsis at fasting;
b) propulsive peristalsis;
c) non propulsive peristalsis;
d) receptive relaxion;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
668
The lowest pH is characteristic of the:
a) gastric juice;
b) bile;
c) pancreatic juice;
d) saliva;
e) juice of the small intestine.
a) gastric juice;
668
The fats are resabsorbed mainly in the:
a) stomach;
b) duodenum;
c) terminal ileum;
d) cecum;
e) colon.
b) duodenum;
669
126.The secretion of K+
is in the:
a) antrum of the stomach;
b) fundus of the stomach;
c) duodenum;
d) ileum;
e) colon.
e) colon.
670
The receptive relaxation of the stomach ceases as a result of:
a) parasympathetic stimulation;
b) sympathetic stimulation;
c) gallbladder contraction;
d) vagotomy;
e) gastrin secretion.
d) vagotomy;
670
When stimulated, the pariethal sells in the stomach secret:
a) HCl and intrinsic factor of Castle (GIF);
b) HCl and pepsinogen;
c) HCl and HCO3;
d) HCO3 and intrinsic factor;
e) mucus and pepsinogen.
a) HCl and intrinsic factor of Castle (GIF);
671
The propulsive peristalsis of the small intestine:
a) mixes the food;
b) is coordinated by CNS;
c) results from smooth muscle contractions behind and in front of the zone of irritation;
d) results from smooth muscles`contraction behind the zone of irritation and relaxation in front of it;
e) results from smooth muscles relaxation along the small intestine.
d) results from smooth muscles`contraction behind the zone of irritation and relaxation in front of it;
671
The segment movements of the small intestine are carried out by:
a) the circular smooth muscle layer;
b) the longitudinal smooth muscle layer;
c) ring like contraction, when the segment in front relaxes;
d) a, and b;
e) a, b, and c.
a) the circular smooth muscle layer;
672
The propulsive peristalsis of the small intestine:
a) mixes the food;
b) is coordinated by CNS;
c) results from smooth muscle contractions behind and in front of the
zone of irritation;
d) results from smooth muscles`contraction behind the zone of irritation and relaxation in front of it;
e) results from smooth muscles relaxation along the small intestine.
d) results from smooth muscles`contraction behind the zone of irritation and relaxation in front of it;
673
Steatorrhea is caused by:
a) lack of fats in food;
b) no bile pigments in feces;
c) stoppage of bile flow into the duodenum;
d) the breakdown and reabsorption of fats are disturbed;
e) c, and d.
e) c, and d.
673
The enzyme, secreted by salivary glands and pancreas is:
a) maltase;
b) amylase;
c) pepsin;
d) nuclease carbonic
e) anhydrase.
b) amylase;
674
Tripsinogen is converted into tripsin under the influece of:
a) HCI;
b) Fe salts;
c) enterokynase;
d) gastrin;
e) acetylcholine.
c) enterokynase;
674
Choleretica are substances, which:
a) stimulate empting of the gallbladder;
b) stimulate the secretion and suppress the synthesis of bile salts;
c) suppress pancreas secretion;
d) suppress the secretion and stimulate the synthesis of bile salts;
e) suppress empting of the gallbladder.
b) stimulate the secretion and suppress the synthesis of bile salts;
674
The energy equivalent of oxygen (EEO) is:
a) determined by the body temperature and is the
same when all the substances are oxidized;
b) the amount of energy released, when one litre of O2 is
utilized for the oxidation of a given substance;
c) of highest value when lipids are oxidized, since they have the highest calorie content;
d) the ratio of CO2 produced and O2 utilized;
e) the energy, expended at rest for 24 hours.
b) the amount of energy released, when one litre of O2 is
utilized for the oxidation of a given substance;
674
Hormones increasing the basic metabolic rate are:
a) insulin and glucocorticoids;
b) glucagons and parathormone;
c) testosterone and estrogens;
d) T3 and T4 , catecholamines, glucocorticoids;
e) insulin and growth hormone.
d) T3 and T4 , catecholamines, glucocorticoids;
675
Enterohepatic circle refers to:
a) proteins;
b) fats;
c) carbohydrates;
d) bile salts;
e) bile pigments.
e) bile pigments.
676
Which are the bile components of basic significance for
digestion:
a) secretin and hepatocrinine;
b) bile salts;
c) acid phosphatase and hepatocrinine;
d) proteolytic, lypolitic and amylolitic enzymes;
e) cholecystokinin – pancreozymin and hepatocrinin.
b) bile salts;
677
Humoral factors, stimulating the secretion of pancreatic juice are:
a) glucagon, calcitonin, somatostatin;
b) tripsin, amylase, lipase;
c) secretin, cholecystokinin – pancreozymin, gastrin, serotonin, vasoactive intestinal peptide, insuline;
d) somatostatin, gastrie inhibitory peptide;
e) glucagons, insulin, catecholamines, glucocorticoids.
c) secretin, cholecystokinin – pancreozymin, gastrin, serotonin, vasoactive intestinal peptide, insuline;
678
Renin is secreted by:
a) cells in the macula densa;
b) cells in the proximal tubule;
c) cells in the distal tubule;
d) juxtaglomerular cells;
e) cells in the peritubular capillary bed.
d) juxtaglomerular cells;
678
The nephron:
a) has endocrine functions;
b) is lined by a single layer of epithelial cells;
c) is under endocrine control;
d) absorbs more ions and molecules than it secretes;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
679
The control of water excretion in the kidney is controlled by:
a) the antidiuretic hormone (ADH);
b) the medulla oblongata;
c) blood plasma;
d) sodium amount in the blood;
e) potassium amount in the blood.
a) the antidiuretic hormone (ADH);
679
Glucose reabsorption occurs in the:
a) proximal tubule;
b) loop of Henle;
c) distal tubule;
d) cortical collecting duct;
e) medullary collecting duct.
a) proximal tubule;
679
The kidneys have a direct effect on which of the following?
a) blood pressure;
b) how much water a person excretes;
c) total blood volume;
d) pH;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
679
The glomerulus:
a) has both afferent and efferent arterioles;
b) contains capillaries, which are at a higher hydrostatic pressure than the
peritubular capillaries;
c) filters 20% of the renal plasma flow;
d) contains renin-secreting cells;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
680
Renin release:
a) is promoted by reduced arteriolar stretch in the glomeruli;
b) increases when systemic arterial pressure rises;
c) directly activates angiotensin converting enzyme;
d) tends to expand the plasma volume;
e) a, and d.
e) a, and d.
681
The acid-buffering power:
a) of HCO3 in blood is increased by respiratory control of pCO2;
b) of haemoglobin exceeds that of HCO3 in blood;
c) of HCO3 is increased by the action of carbonic anhydrase;
d) of venous blood is normally greater than that of arterial blood;
e) a, b, and d.
e) a, b, and d.
682
Urinary volume is increased with:
a) consumption of alcohol;
b) hyperglycemia;
c) increased aldosterone secretion;
d) damage to the posterior pituitary;
e) a, b, and d.
e) a, b, and d.
683
The following occurs in the proximal tubule of the nephron:
a) reabsorption of all glucose;
b) reabsorption of most water;
c) active reabsorption of sodium;
d) secretion of bicarbonate;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
684
The antidiuretic hormone (ADH):
a) decreases the osmolarity of urine;
b) decreases the volume of urine;
c) increases the reabsorption of water in the proximal tubules;
d) is synthesized in the posterior pituitary gland;
e) increases the excretion of glucose.
b) decreases the volume of urine;
685
Regarding the kidneys:
a) there are 1.3 million nephrons in each kidney;
b) they produce aldosterone;
c) they receive 12% of the cardiac output at rest;
d) more blood flows through the renal cortex than the renal medulla;
e) a, and d.
e) a, and d.
686
Which of the following causes hyperkalemia ?
a) exercise;
b) alkalosis;
c) insulin injection;
d) decreased serum osmolality;
e) increased serum osmolality.
a) exercise;
687
Glucose is reabsorbed:
a) by active transport;
b) by passive transport;
c) by Na+ co-transport;
d) by H+
counter-transport;
e) a, and c.
e) a, and c.
688
Stimulation of the sympathetic nerves cause the following effects:
a) low diuresis;
b) decreased net filtration pressure;
c) increased glucose urine level;
d) decreased glucose urine level;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
689
The glomerular capillaries have the following functions:
a) blood plasma filtration;
b) hormone secretion;
c) water secretion;
d) formation of primary urine;
e) a, and d.
e) a, and d.
690
Obligatory water loss from the body is:
a) 400 ml in faeces;
b) 300 ml from the lungs;
c) loss from skin & lungs;
d) insensible water loss;
e) 500 ml by urine.
e) 500 ml by urine.
691
Blood flow at rest is most for:
a) brain;
b) liver;
c) kidneys;
d) heart;
e) skin.
c) kidneys;
692
Renal blood flow depends on:
a) juxtaglomerular apparatus;
b) [Na+] at macula densa;
c) afferent vasodilatation;
d) arterial pressure;
e) efferent vasoconstriction.
d) arterial pressure;
693
Which of the following substances has the highest renal clearance?
a) PAH;
b) glucose;
c) urea;
d) water;
e) inulin.
a) PAH;
694
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is:
a) impermeable to Na+
b) involved in active transport of K+ into the lumen;
c) involved in active transport of Cl out of lumen;
d) involved in active transport of Na+ into lumen;
e) hypotonic at the top.
c) involved in active transport of Cl out of lumen;
695
Which of the following is involved in the regulation of glomerular
filtration rate (GFR)?
a) juxtaglomerular apparatus;
b) afferent arteriolar tone;
c) efferent arteriolar tone;
d) chloride transport at the macula densa;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
695
24. Kidneys produce:
a) erythropoietin;
b) ADH;
c) angiotensin II;
d) ANP;
e) cholecalciferol.
a) erythropoietin;
696
Water excretion by the kidney is due to:
a) osmosis;
b) active transport into the lumen;
c) passive secretion in the collecting tubules;
d) solvent drag;
e) facilitated diffusion.
e) facilitated diffusion.
697
Increase in GFR occurs when there is:
a) increased sympathetic stimulation;
b) decreased renal blood flow;
c) hypoproteinaemia;
d) ureteric obstruction;
e) none of the above.
c) hypoproteinaemia;
698
The clearance (or 'renal regulation') of which one of the following is not
regulated by a hormone:
a) sodium;
b) potassium;
c) calcium;
d) phosphate;
e) sulphate
e) sulphate.
699
The kidneys filter from the blood every day about:
a) 1000 ml;
b) 180 l;
c) 18 l;
d) 50 l;
e) 8 l.
b) 180 l;
700
Direct control of water excretion in the kidneys is controlled by:
a) the antidiuretic hormone;
b) the medulla oblongata;
c) aldosterone;
d) sodium amounts in the blood;
e) adrenal cortex.
a) the antidiuretic hormone;
701
Kidneys have a direct effect on which of the following:
a) blood pressure;
b) how much water a person excretes;
c) total blood volume;
d) pH;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
702
The countercurrent exchange system includes:
a) glomerulus and macula densa;
b) proximal convoluted tubule and distal convoluted tubule;
c) loop of Henle and collecting tubule;
d) afferent arteriole and efferent arteriole;
e) ureters and bladder.
c) loop of Henle and collecting tubule;
703
Tubular reabsorption of a filtered substance is likely to be active
rather than passive if:
a) its concentration in the tubular fluid is lower than in peritubular capillary blood;
b) is carried out by the mechanism of simple difusion;
c) renal clearance is lower than that of inulin;
d) renal clearance rises at low plasma levels;
e) osmolality there is higher than the plasma one.
a) its concentration in the tubular fluid is lower than in peritubular capillary blood;
704
The renal clearance of a substance:
a) is inversely related to its urinary concentration, U;
b) is directly related to the rate of urine formation, and
is expressed in units of volume per unit time;
c) is directly related to its plasma concentration, P;
d) is expressed in mm Hg;
e) must fall in the presence of metabolic poisons.
b) is directly related to the rate of urine formation, and
is expressed in units of volume per unit time;
705
In the fluid in the distal part of the proximal convoluted tubule:
a) urea concentration is higher than in Bowman’s capsule;
b) pH is less than 6 when the kidneys are excreting an acid urine;
c) glucose concentration is similar to that in plasma;
d) osmolality is about 25 per cent that of glomerular filtrate;
e) bicarbonate concentration is higher than in plasma.
a) urea concentration is higher than in Bowman’s capsule;
706
Renal tubules normally reabsorb:
a) fluids with osmolality lower than the plasma one;
b) all filtered HCO3
in respiratory alcalosis;
c) substances closely related to Cl-
d) all filtered plasma proteins;
e) more Kthan Cl-
d) all filtered plasma proteins;
707
Transport maximum (Tmax) – limited reabsorption of a substance
implies that its:
a) reabsorption is active;
b) reabsorption is critically related to tubular transit time;
c) reabsorption is passive;
d) renal clearance falls with its plasma concentration;
e) reabsorbtion is carried out by the mechanism of faciliated diffusion.
a) reabsorption is active;
707
In the nephron, the osmolality of the fluid in the:
a) tip of the loop of Henle is less than that of plasma;
b) Bowman’s capsules is less than that in the distal tubules;
c) collecting duct rises when vasopressin is being secreted;
d) proximal convoluted tubule rises along its length;
e) proximal tubule is with lower osmolality than plasma one.
c) collecting duct rises when vasopressin is being secreted;
708
Urea:
a) and glucose have different molar concentrations in normal blood;
b) clearance is higher, than creatinins one;
c) is actively secreted by the renal tubular cells into the tubular fluid;
d) concentration in blood may rise ten-fold after a high protein meal;
e) causes diuresis when its blood concentration is increased.
e) causes diuresis when its blood concentration is increased.
709
The cells of the distal convoluted tubule:
a) reabsorb about 50% of the water filtered by the glomeruli;
b) reabsorb all filtered aminoacide;
c) reabsorb all filtered proteins;
d) reabsorb sodium in exchange for hydrogen or potassium ions;
e) determine the final composition of urine.
d) reabsorb sodium in exchange for hydrogen or potassium ions;
709
When a patient’s mean arterial blood pressure falls by 50%:
a) renal blood flow increases;
b) glomerular filtration increases;
c) there is a decrease in the circulating aldosterone level;
d) renal vasoconstriction occurs;
e) urinary output is increased.
d) renal vasoconstriction occurs;
709
Aldosterone:
a) is a steroid hormone, secreted by the adrenal medulla;
b) production ceases following removal of the kidneys and their
juxtaglomerular cells;
c) production decreases in treatment with drugs which block
angiotensin-converting enzyme;
d) secretion results in increased potassium reabsorption by the nephron;
e) secretion results in increased plasma volume.
e) secretion results in increased plasma volume
710
Renal blood flow falls:
a) about 10% when arterial pressure increases 10% above normal;
b) about 5% when metabolic activity in the kidney falls by 5%;
c) during emotional stress;
d) after small haemorrhage;
e) gradually from the inner medulla to the outer cortex per unit weight of
tissue.
c) during emotional stress;
711
The renal clearance of:
a) inulin provides an estimate of glomerular filtration rate;
b) chloride increases after an injection of aldosterone;
c) PAH falls when the PAH load exceeds the Tm for PAH;
d) urea is higher than that of inulin;
e) inulin is dependent of its plasma concentration.
a) inulin provides an estimate of glomerular filtration rate
711
In healthy people, urinary:
a) clearance of glucose differs 0, if its plasma concentration is below
11mmol∙l-1
b) osmolality ranges from 200–400 mOsm∙l-1
c) colour is due to small quantities of bile pigments;
d) pH falls as dietary protein rises;
e) calcium excretion is decreased by parathormone.
d) pH falls as dietary protein rises;
712
The renal clearance:
a) of glucose is above 0, if the plasma concentration of a given substance
is below 11 mmol∙1-1
b) of urea is higher than creatinin‘s one;
c) of glucose provides an estimate of renal plasma flow;
d) of phosphate is decreased by parathormone;
e) of proteins is normally zero.
e) of proteins is normally zero.
713
Diabetes insipidus (deficiency of antidiuretic hormone) causes a fall in
the:
a) osmolality of the urine;
b) reabsorption of water from the proximal tubules;
c) extracellular but not intracellular fluid volume;
d) extracellular fluid osmolality;
e) intracellular fluid osmolality.
a) osmolality of the urine;
714
Secretion of renin:
a) occurs in the stomach during infancy;
b) is stimulated by the hormone angiotensin I;
c) is stimulated by a fall in extracellular fluid volume and leads to raised levels of angiotensin II in the blood;
d) inhibits the secretion of aldosterone;
e) inhibits ACTH secretion by the pituitary gland.
c) is stimulated by a fall in extracellular fluid volume and leads to raised levels of angiotensin II in the blood;
715
Dialysis fluid used in the treatment of renal failure should contain
the normal plasma levels of:
a) urea;
b) potassium;
c) osmolality;
d) plasma proteins;
e) hydrogen ions.
e) hydrogen ions.
715
Long-standing obstruction of the urethra may cause:
a) enlargement of the prostate gland;
b) dystrophy of the bladder muscle;
c) dilation of the ureters and reduction of the glomerular filtration rate;
d) increase and reduction of the glomerular filtration rate;
e) a decrease in residual volume in the bladder.
c) dilation of the ureters and reduction of the glomerular filtration rate;
716
Emptying of the bladder may be less effective if:
a) the sympathetic nerves carrying afferent information from bladder to
the spinal cord are cut;
b) the pelvic nerves are cut or anticholinergic drugs are administered;
c) cholinergic agonists are administered;
d) alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonists are administered;
e) beta-adrenergic receptor blockers are administered.
b) the pelvic nerves are cut or anticholinergic drugs are administered;
717
Drugs which interfere with active transport of sodium in the proximal
tubule tend to increase:
a) urine production;
b) plasma osmolality;
c) chloride reabsorbtion;
d) interstitial fluid volume;
e) plasma volume.
a) urine production;
718
A drug which inhibits carbonic anhydrase:
a) decreases bicarbonate formation and reabsorption in the kidney;
b) increases plasma bicarbonate levels;
c) increases blood pH;
d) increases urinary loss of potassium ions;
e) increases urinary volume and pH.
a) decreases bicarbonate formation and reabsorption in the kidney;
719
A patient with chronic renal failure usually has:
a) an increased blood urea and blood uric acid;
b) a decreased blood uric acid;
c) an increased creatinine clearance;
d) an increased acid–base disturbance when he or she vomits;
e) an increased acid–base problem on a low protein diet.
a) an increased blood urea and blood uric acid
720
Cutting the sympathetic nerves to the bladder may cause:
a) difficulty in emptying the bladder;
b) loss of tone in the internal sphincter of the bladder and loss of pain
sensation in the bladder;
c) loss of tone in the external sphincter of the bladder;
d) increased pain sensation in the bladder;
e) infertility in the female.
b) loss of tone in the internal sphincter of the bladder and loss of pain
721
Acute renal failure differs from chronic renal failure in that:
a) potassium retention tends to be more severe;
b) blood urea levels tend to be higher;
c) depression of bone marrow activity is unlikely to occur;
d) metabolic acidosis is usually not a problem;
e) dietary protein restriction is unnecessary.
a) potassium retention tends to be more severe;
722
The inhibition of the antidiuretic hormone (ADH), say by alcohol,
would have what affect?
a) constriction of the afferent arteriole;
b) inhibition of diuresis;
c) stimulation of water conservation;
d) constriction of the efferent arteriole;
e) reduction in water reabsorption by the kidneys.
e) reduction in water reabsorption by the kidneys.
722
A long-standing increase in arterial pCO2 (respiratory acidosis) leads
to:
a) an increase in renal bicarbonate formation;
b) a decrease in urinary ammonium salts;
c) a decrease in plasma potassium concentration;
d) an increase of the monohydrogen /dihydrogen phosphate ratio in urine;
e) a decrease in urinary bicarbonate excretion.
a) an increase in renal bicarbonate formation;
723
Reabsorption (transport) of both Na+ and glucose together from the renal lumen is an example of:
a) facilitated diffusion;
b) secondary passive transport;
c) primary direct active transport;
d) secondary indirect active antiport;
e) secondary indirect active symport.
e) secondary indirect active symport.
723
Reabsorption of amino acids from the filtrate requires many different
protein carriers because:
a) denaturation may occur;
b) this transport is not competitive;
c) there are only 10 different amino acids;
d) transport of amino acids is typically highly specific;
e) glucose inhibits amino acid transport.
d) transport of amino acids is typically highly specific;
724
Drinking a litre of water:
a) increases secretion of antidiuretic hormone;
b) reduces the plasma sodium concentration;
c) increases osmolarity of the urine;
d) causes body cells to shrink;
e) decreases the specific gravity of the body.
b) reduces the plasma sodium concentration;
725
An acid–base buffer system:
a) can be a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate base;
b) can be a solution of sodium and bicarbonate ions;
c) prevents any change in pH when acid is added;
d) works best when acid and base are equal in concentration;
e) is hemoglobin as an example of intracelular buffer.
a) can be a mixture of a weak acid and its conjugate base;
726
Acidosis in a patient may lead to:
a) increased urinary excretion of potassium.
b) hypoventilation.
c) a blood pH of less than 5.5.
d) an urinary pH of less than 5.5.
e) tetany.
d) an urinary pH of less than 5.5.
727
A rise in the osmolality of extracellular fluid may lead to:
a) thirst and release of vasopressin;
b) increased water reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubules;
c) a decrease of vasopressin secretion;
d) an increase in intracellular fluid volume;
e) suppression of sweat secretion.
a) thirst and release of vasopressin;
728
A raised blood pH and bicarbonate level is consistent with:
a) metabolic acidosis;
b) partly compensated respiratory alkalosis;
c) a reduced pCO2;
d) chronic renal failure with a raised pCO2;
e) a history of persistent vomiting of gastric contents.
a) metabolic acidosis;
729
A patient with partly compensated respiratory acidosis:
a) must have a raised pCO2;
b) must have a raised bicarbonate concentration [HCO3-];
c) may have evidence of renal compensation.;
d) may have respiratory failure due to hypoventilation;
e) all of the above.
a) must have a raised pCO2;
730
Sodium retention:
a) occurs for several days after major surgery;
b) expands the extracellular fluid volume;
c) expands the blood volume;
d) increases the severity of oedema;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
731
Sodium depletion differs from water depletion in that:
a) cardiovascular changes are less pronounced;
b) intracellular fluid volume is less affected;
c) the haematocrit increases;
d) thirst is more severe;
e) antidiuretic hormone levels are higher.
b) intracellular fluid volume is less affected;
732
A high blood potassium level (hyperkalaemia):
a) occurs in acute renal failure;
b) follows severe crush injuries to the limbs;
c) may diminish cardiac performance and cause death;
d) may be reduced by intravenous infusion of insulin and glucose;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
732
A raised level of calcium in the blood (hypercalcaemia):
a) may occur when parathyroid activity decreases;
b) may occur when the plasma protein level falls;
c) may occur in chronic renal failure;
d) increases the risk of stone formation in the urinary tract;
e) causes increased excitability of nerve and muscle.
d) increases the risk of stone formation in the urinary tract;
733
Thirst is stimulated by:
a) increase in plasma osmolality and volume;
b) increase in plasma osmolality and decrease in volume;
c) decrease in osmolality and increase in volume;
d) decrease in plasma osmolality and volume;
e) increase in intracelular volume.
b) increase in plasma osmolality and decrease in volume;
733
The reference interval of plasma osmolarity is:
a) 190-200 mOsm∙l-1
b) 120 ml∙min-1;
c) 280-285 mOsm∙l-1;
d) 7.36 – 7.44 pH;
e) 1100 – 1200 mOsm∙kg-1
c) 280-285 mOsm∙l-1;
734
When the intake of water and salts is normal:
a) the osmotic pressure of ECF is higher than that of ICF;
b) the osmotic pressure ICF is higher than that of ECF;
c) the osmotic pressure of ECF is equal to that of ICF;
d) the volume of ECF is bigger than that of ICF;
e) none of the above.
c) the osmotic pressure of ECF is equal to that of ICF;
735
All but except one are followed by thirst:
a) plasmaosmolality above 295 mOsm∙kg-1
b) angiotensin II;
c) ADH;
d) hypervolemia;
e) dry oral mucosa.
d) hypervolemia;
736
The acid-base balance is maintained by:
a) buffer systems of body fluids;
b) respiratorry regulation;
c) renal regulation;
d) a, and c;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
736
The volume of ECF is regulated by:
a) the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system;
b) atrial nauriuretic peptide;
c) catheholamines;
d) sympathetic division of the ANS;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
737
For the buffer capacity of the blood of highest significance is the:
a) haemoglobin buffer system;
b) protein buffer system;
c) phosphate buffer system;
d) hydrogen carbonate buffer system;
e) ammonium buffer system.
a) haemoglobin buffer system;
738
All statesments about ADH are correct, except:
a) is secreted by the posterior pituitary;
b) its secretion is regulated by plasma osmolality;
c) increases the tubular reabsorption of K+
d) increases reabsorption of water in the distal and collecting tubules;
e) is synthesized in the hypothalamus.
c) increases the tubular reabsorption of K+
739
The H+
ions are excreted in the tubular fluid as a result of:
a) glomerular filtration;
b) tubular reabsorption;
c) tubular secretion;
d) b, and c;
e) none of the above.
c) tubular secretion;
740
HCO3 are excreted in the tubular fluid as a result of:
a) glomerular filtration;
b) tubular reabsorption;
c) tubular secretion;
d) b, and c;
e) none of the above.
a) glomerular filtration;
741
In acidosis, the kidneys:
a) increase the excretion of H+ and HCO3
b) decrease the excretion of H+ and increase the reabsorbtion of HCO3
c) increase the excretion of H+ and reabsorbtion of HCO3
d) decrease the excretion of H+ and reabsorbtion of HCO3
e) none of the above.
c) increase the excretion of H+ and reabsorbtion of HCO3
742
The secretion of H+ in the tubular fluid is achieved by:
a) osmosis and diffusion;
b) diffusion and primary active transport;
c) primary and secondary active transport;
d) secondary active transport;
e) a, and d.
c) primary and secondary active transport;
743
In alcalosis, the kidneys:
a) decrease the excretion of H+ and increase the reabsorbtion of HCO3
b) decrease the excretion of H+
c) decrease the indirect reabsorbtion of HCO3
d) increase the indirect reabsorbtion of HCO3
e) decrease the excretion of H+ and increase the excretion of HCO3
e) decrease the excretion of H+ and increase the excretion of HCO3
744
The formation of the final urine is achieved by:
a) filtration, diffusion and secretion;
b) reabsorbtion, osmosis and diffusion;
c) filtration, reabsorbtion and secretion;
d) filtration, secretion and paracrinia;
e) all of the above.
c) filtration, reabsorbtion and secretion;
745
Normal diuresis per 24h is about:
a) 500 ml;
b) 1.5 – 2 l;
c) 5 l;
d) 120 – 180 l;
e) 15 l.
b) 1.5 – 2 l;
746
Volume of plasma, totally cleared from a substance when passing
through the kidneys per unit time is called:
a) diuresis;
b) formation of final urine;
c) glomerular filtration;
d) transport maximum;
e) clearance.
e) clearance.
747
The glomerular filtration is estimated via the clearance of:
a) PAHA;
b) glucose;
c) urea;
d) inulin and creatinin;
e) sodium.
d) inulin and creatinin;
748
The transport maximum of glucose (TmaxGl) is:
a) 125 ml∙min-1
b) 300 – 370 mg∙min-1
c) 2.8 – 6.1 mmol∙l-1
d) up to 11.1 mmol∙l-1
e) none of the above.
b) 300 – 370 mg∙min-1
749
If the clearance of a substance is higher than the clearance of inuline:
a) the substance is additionally reabsorped in the tubules;
b) the substance is additionally secreted in the tubules;
c) the substance is either additionally reabsorped or secreted;
d) the substance is transported with proteins in the tubules;
e) the substance is secreted in the proxymal more than in the distal tubule.
b) the substance is additionally secreted in the tubules;
750
If the clearance of a substance is lower than the clearance of inulin:
a) the substance is additionally reabsorped in the tubules;
b) the substance is neither reabsorped, neither secreted;
c) the substance is additionally secreted in the tubules;
d) the substance is co-transported with proteins in the tubules;
e) the substance is secreted in the proxymal more than in the distal tubule.
a) the substance is additionally reabsorped in the tubules;
751
The human kidneys can concentrate the final urine up to:
a) 100 mOsm∙l-1
b) 120 mOsm∙l-1
c) 295 mOsm∙l-1
d) 7.36 – 7.44∙l-1
e) 1200 mOsm∙l-1
e) 1200 mOsm∙l-1
752
The factors determining glomerular filtration are:
a) hemodynamic, colloid-osmotic;
b) hemodynamic, reabsorptive;
c) hemodynamic, colloid-osmotic, intracapsular;
d) intraabdominal, hemodynamic, colloid-osmotic;
e) filtration, reabsorptive.
c) hemodynamic, colloid-osmotic, intracapsular;
753
What is specific about juxtaglomerular nephrons, it is that:
a) the glomerules are located in the inter part of cortex (near medulla);
b) have long loops of Henle, reaching papilles;
c) their efferent arterioles give rise of vasa recta in medulla;
d) all of the above;
e) there is no correct answer.
c) their efferent arterioles give rise of vasa recta in medulla;
754
Glomerular filtration will occure in all cases except:
a) increased mean arterial blood pressure above 180 mm Hg;
b) hypoproteinemia;
c) constriction of the afferent arteriole;
d) constriction of the efferent arteriole;
e) renalstone.
c) constriction of the afferent arteriole;
755
What is the percentage of water reabsorbed in the tubules, under the
control of ADH?
a) 100%;
b) 85%;
c) 50%;
d) 15%;
e) 0%.
d) 15%;
756
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the:
a) proximal tubule;
b) distal tubule;
c) collective tubule;
d) loop of Henle;
e) glucose is not reabsorbed.
a) proximal tubule;
757
The volume of glomerular filtration is about:
a) 125 ml∙min-1 primary urine;
b) 600 – 700 ml∙min-1 primary urine;
c) 1200 – 1300 ml∙min-1 primary urine;
d) 5 l∙min-1 primary urine;
e) 170 l∙min-1 primary urine.
a) 125 ml∙min-1 primary urine;
758
All statements about aldosterone are correct except:
a) is secreted by the adrenal cortex;
b) acts on distal and collective tubules;
c) increases the reabsorption of Na+
d) increases the tubular reabsorption of K+
e) its secretion is controlled by angiotensin II.
d) increases the tubular reabsorption of K+
759
The human kidneys can dilute the final urine up to:
a) 120 ml·min-1
b) 100 mOsm·l-1
c) 295 mOsm·kg -1
d) 7.36 – 7.44 pH;
e) 1200 mOsm·l-1
b) 100 mOsm·l-1
760
All the following substances are synthesized in the kidneys, except:
a) prostaglandines;
b) bradykinins;
c) ADH;
d) calsitriol;
e) renin.
c) ADH;
761
Which of the following are reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop
of Henle:
a) Na+
b) K+
c) CL-
d) water;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
762
Which of the following is/are reabsorbed in the descending limb of the
loop of Henle:
a) Na+
b) Cl
c) Ca2+;
d) K+
e) water.
e) water.
763
Which statement is correct:
a) the loop of Henle is permeable for salts and weakly permeable for water;
b) the descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable for Na+ and K+ and weakly permeable for CL-
c) the thick segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable for ions;
d) the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable for water and weakly permeable for ions;
e) the descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable for salts and weakly permeable for water.
c) the thick segment of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable for ions;
764
The concentration of the final urine is due to:
a) the countercurrent multiplying mechanism in the loop of Henle;
b) the countercurrent exchanger of vasa recta;
c) ADH;
d) the effective reabsorptive pressure;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
765
The secretion of renin is stimulated by:
a) increased parasympathetic tone;
b) increased sympathetic tone;
c) increased extracellular fluid;
d) decreased level of adrenalin;
e) increased Na+ in the tubular fluid.
b) increased sympathetic tone;
766
The atrial natriuretic peptide has/have the following effect/effects:
a) increase the reabsorbtion of Na+ and water;
b) increase the excretion of Na+ and water;
c) generalized vasodilatation;
d) a, and b;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
767
In the juxtaglomerular apparatus are found:
a) α1 – adrenergetic receptors;
b) α2 – adrenergetic receptors ;
c) β1 – adrenergetic receptors;
d) β2 – adrenergetic receptors;
e) М1 – cholinergetic receptors.
c) β1 – adrenergetic receptors;
768
Renin is secreted by:
a) juxtaglomerulary nephrons;
b) adrenal medulla;
c) juxtaglomerular apparatus;
d) adrenal cortex;
e) hypotalamus.
c) juxtaglomerular apparatus;
769
The secretion of less than 500 ml final urine per 24 hours is termed:
a) polyuria;
b) polydypsia;
c) oliguria;
d) anuria;
e) glucosuria.
c) oliguria;
770
The nerve center, controlling the secretion of urine is located in:
a) midbrain;
b) medulla oblongata;
c) the thoracic segments of the spinal cord;
d) the sacral segments of the spinal cord;
e) the lumbar segments of the spinal cord .
d) the sacral segments of the spinal cord;
771
The information about the extracellular volume and its Na+ content is
processed in the:
a) lateral hypothalamus;
b) anterior hypothalamus;
c) posterior hypothalamus;
d) anterior thalamus;
e) hyppocampus.
c) posterior hypothalamus;
772
Thermoreceptors are:
a) activated only by severe cold or severe hot;
b) located on the superficial layers of the skin;
c) a subtype of nociceptors;
d) on dendritic endings of A fibres and C fibres;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
773
The most significant heat source in the body is:
a) cellular respiration;
b) conductive heat loss;
c) convective heat loss;
d) evaporation;
e) shivering.
a) cellular respiration;
774
A major means for conserving heat is:
a) vasodilatation of coetaneous blood vessels;
b) increased metabolic rate;
c) vasoconstriction of coetaneous blood vessels;
d) enhanced sweating;
e) increased convective loss.
c) vasoconstriction of coetaneous blood vessels;
775
The thermoregulatory center is located in:
a) cortex;
b) vascular system;
c) septal region;
d) amygdale;
e) hypothalamus.
e) hypothalamus.
776
What is the normal body temperature?
a) 81.1 0C;
b) 36.9 0C;
c) 98.6 0 C;
d) 21.7 0C;
e) 39.5 0C.
b) 36.9 0C;
777
At which temperature does the excitation of the thermoreceptors begin to
cause pain?
a) at the temperature which causes tissue damage;
b) over 45°C;
c) at 30°C;
d) at 5°C;
e) b, and d.
b) over 45°C;
778
Heat stroke is characteristically associated with:
a) profuse sweating;
b) elevated basal metabolic rate;
c) hot dry skin;
d) a, and b;
e) b, and c.
e) b, and c.
779
As ambient temperature increases, heat loss increases by:
a) radiation;
b) convection;
c) conduction;
d) evaporation;
e) none of the above.
d) evaporation;
780
Which one of the following is produced by sebaceous glands?
a) adrenaline;
b) oil;
c) saliva;
d) sweat;
e) mucus.
b) oil;
781
Following adaptation to a hot climate there is an increase in:
a) basal metabolic rate;
b) heat loss by radiation and convection;
c) urinary output;
d) the ability to lose heat by sweating;
e) decreasing arteriovenous shunting of blood to venous plexus near the surface of the skin.
d) the ability to lose heat by sweating;
782
The set-point temperature of the hypothalamus, triggering heat-loss or
Heat-generating mechanisms is:
a) 34o C;
b) 37o C;
c) 20o C;
d) 36.3o C;
e) 30o C.
b) 37o C;
782
Heat-loss mechanisms:
a) by radiation and convection increase when the ambient temperature decreases;
b) by evaparation; depend on the activity of sweat glands being under sympathetic muscarinic control;
c) are controlled by the anterior hypothalamus;
d) cause an increase in sympathethic tone to skin blood vessels;
b) by evaparation; depend on the activity of sweat glands being under sympathetic muscarinic control;
783
When the temperature of environtment is above 34oC, the only heat-loss
mechanism is:
a) convection;
b) radiation;
c) shivering;
d) evaporation;
e) radiation and convection.
d) evaporation;
784
The set point level for body temperature is situated in:
a) anterior hypothalamus;
b) skin;
c) spinal cord;
d) posterior hypothalamus;
e) brown mast tissue.
d) posterior hypothalamus;
784
The most potent mechanism for increasing heat production is:
a) activation of the parasympathetic nervous system;
b) thyroid hormone increasing the metabolic rate;
c) shivering;
d) radiation;
e) decrease in sympatetic tone to skin blood vessels.
c) shivering;
785
Which of the following is a human thermoregulatory response
controlled by cholinergic sympathetics?
a) brown adipose tissue thermogenesis;
b) hand vasomotion;
c) shivering thermogenesis;
d) sweat secretion;
e) thermoregulatory behavior.
d) sweat secretion;
786
Regarding the receptors in the skin:
a) all skin receptor are encapsulated;
b) the receptive fields of touch receptors are uniform in area;
c) the nociceptors of the skin are bare nerve endings;
d) sensory information from the skin reaches the brain via the dorsal pathway;
e) sensory information from the skin is stored in the hypothalamus.
c) the nociceptors of the skin are bare nerve endings;
786
Capability to control body temperature is called:
a) osmoregulation;
b) thermodynamics;
c) thermoregulation;
d) regulation;
e) homeostasis.
c) thermoregulation;
786
What is the result of a rise in body temperature?
a) decrease in the production of sweat;
b) an increase in blood flow to the skin;
c) narrowing of blood vessels in the skin;
d) raising of hairs on the skin;
e) increase in the production of sweat.
b) an increase in blood flow to the skin;
787
The most important function of sweat is to remove from the body
excess:
a) heat;
b) salts;
c) water;
d) urea;
e) bilirubin.
b) salts;
787
Which response to overcooling does not involve muscle contraction?
a) blood vessels narrowing;
b) hairs standing up;
c) shivering;
d) reduced sweating;
e) hyperventilation.
d) reduced sweating;
787
What happens to the arterioles near the surface of the skin when the
body temperature rises?
a) they absorb oxygen from the surrounding tissues;
b) they dilate and become wider;
c) they move nearer the skin surface;
d) they take in water from the surrounding tissues;
e) they constrict.
b) they dilate and become wider;
788
Regarding the focusing of the eye:
a) hypermetropia may be corrected by diverging lens;
b) the focus of the eye is controlled by parasympathetic innervation of the ciliary body;
c) the lens is the chief refractive element of the eye;
d) when the eye focuses on a distant object the ciliary muscle contracts;
e) the focus of the eye is controlled by sympathetic innervation of the
ciliary body.
b) the focus of the eye is controlled by parasympathetic innervation of the ciliary body;
788
Regarding vision:
a) protanopes cannot distinguish between red and green because they lack
the pigment for detecting green light;
b) full colour vision is possible in dim light;
c) full dark adaptation takes nearly 30 min;
d) in a dark-adapted eye, the visual activity is best in the centre of the visual field;
e) in the retina there are more ganglion cells than photoreceptors.
c) full dark adaptation takes nearly 30 min;
789
Regarding the physiology of the eye:
a) the intraocular pressure is about 1,5 mm Hg;
b) when light is directed to one eye, both pupils constrict;
c) the pupils dilate when the eye is focused on a near object;
d) the aqueous humor is an ultrafiltrate of plasma;
e) the pupils constrict when the eye is focused on a distant object.
b) when light is directed to one eye, both pupils constrict;
790
In the lens:
a) potassium concentration is higher than that of sodium;
b) the majority of the lens proteins are water soluble;
c) the osmolarity is higher than that of the aqueous humour;
d) glutathione is increased in the presence of cataract;
e) all of the above
e) all of the above
790
Vitamin A is a precursor for the synthesis of:
a) somatostatin;
b) retinine-1;
c) the pigment of the iris;
d) scotopsin;
e) aqueous humour.
b) retinine-1;
791
The sense that certain foods are sweet is due to:
a) fungiform papillae;
b) filiform papillae;
c) foliate papillae;
d) circumvallate papillae;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
791
Taste receptors:
a) for sweet, sour, salt and bitter are spatially separated on the surface of
the tongue;
b) are synonymous with taste buds;
c) are a type of chemoreceptors;
d) are innervated by afferents in the facial, trigeminal and
glossopharyngeal nerves;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
792
Intraocular fluid includes:
a) lens;
b) aqueous humour;
c) cornea;
d) vitreous humour;
e) ciliary body.
b) aqueous humour;
793
Hair cells in the ear:
a) are sensory receptors that will fire off action potentials when they are
disturbed;
b) show a graded response, instead of the spikes typical of other neurons;
c) ‘rub’ against the overhanging tectorial membrane;
d) a, and c;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
793
What controls not only hearing but also a sense of gravity and motion:
a) the incus and the stapes;
b) the pinna and the ear drum;
c) the vestibular nerve and the semi circular canals;
d) the eustachian tube and the stapes;
e) the mesencephalon.
c) the vestibular nerve and the semi circular canals;
793
The large onion-shaped receptors deep in the dermis and in subcutaneous tissue, which respond to deep pressure are:
a) Merkel discs;
b) Pacinian corpuscles;
c) free nerve endings;
d) muscle spindles;
e) stretch receptors.
b) Pacinian corpuscles;
793
The retina:
a) allows vision in light and dark, using cones and rods;
b) gives depth perception using binocular vision;
c) contains the ciliary muscles that control the shape of the lens;
d) protects and supports the shape of the eye;
e) controls colour vision.
a) allows vision in light and dark, using cones and rods;
793
These receptors react to foods treated with monosodium glutamate:
a) salt;
b) sour;
c) bitter;
d) sweet;
e) umami.
e) umami
794
The portion of the fibrous layer of the eyeball that is white and opaque
is the:
a) choroid;
b) cornea;
c) retina;
d) sclera;
e) iris.
d) sclera
795
Nearsightedness is more properly called:
a) myopia;
b) hyperopia;
c) presbyopia;
d) emmetropia;
e) astigmatismus.
a) myopia;
796
Olfactory tract damage would probably affect the ability to?
a) see;
b) hear;
c) feel pain;
d) smell;
e) speak.
d) smell;
797
Where are taste buds found?
a) anterior part of the tongue;
b) posterior part of the tongue;
c) palate;
d) lips;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
798
Cells in the olfactory bulb that act as local ‘integrators’ of olfactory
inputs are the:
a) hair cells;
b) granule cells;
c) basal cells;
d) mitral cells;
e) supporting cells.
d) mitral cells;
798
The transmission of sound vibrations through the internal ear occurs
mainly through the:
a) nerve fibers;
b) air;
c) fluid;
d) bone;
e) cartilage.
c) fluid;
799
Which of the following is important in maintaining the balance of the
body?
a) visual cues;
b) semicircular canals;
c) the saccule;
d) proprioceptors;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
800
Which skin receptors are the most numerous?
a) pain receptors;
b) heat receptors;
c) cold receptors;
d) proprioceptors;
e) stretch receptors.
a) pain receptors;
800
Olfactory cells:
a) are epithelial cells which synapse with olfactory nerves;
b) generate impulses when stimulated which are relayed in the thalamus;
c) are chemoreceptors;
d) show little adaptation;
e) are less important than taste in appreciating the flavour of food.
c) are chemoreceptors;
801
Which two body areas were least sensitive to touch?
a) neck and shoulders;
b) back of calf and back of neck;
c) palm of hand and back of hand;
d) lips and fingertips;
e) chest and abdomen.
b) back of calf and back of neck;
802
Adaptation for vision in poor light is:
a) complete after 2–3 minutes;
b) due mainly to dilatation of the pupil;
c) due to regeneration of rod but not cone pigments;
d) slower if red goggles are worn before entering the dark
environment;
e) more effective for peripheral than for central vision.
e) more effective for peripheral than for central vision.
803
The basilar membrane of the cochlea vibrates:
a) at the same frequency as the applied sound;
b) with an amplitude which is proportional to the frequency of the applied sound;
c) with an amplitude which is counter proportional to the loudness of the applied sound;
d) more along of its length when the applied sound has a high rather than low frequency;
e) mainly at the base of the cochlea for the sound frequencies commonly used in speech.
a) at the same frequency as the applied sound;
e) mainly at the base of the cochlea for the sound frequencies commonly used in speech
804
The cones in the retina differ from rods in that they are:
a) more numerous;
b) more concerned with colour vision and high visual acuity;
c) more sensitive to light;
d) not concerned with high visual acuity;
e) more affected by vitamin a deficiency.
b) more concerned with colour vision and high visual acuity;
804
Increasing the salt concentration applied to a ‘salt’ taste bud increases:
a) its sensitivity to salt;
b) the amplitude of its generator potentials and impulse traffic to the thalamus;
c) the amplitude of the action potentials generated;
d) impulse traffic to the anterior pituitary;
e) impulse traffic to the adrenal medula.
b) the amplitude of its generator potentials and impulse traffic to the thalamus;
805
On entering a darkened room, the:
a) light intensity threshold of the eye starts to rise;
b) final phase of retinal adaptation is mainly in the cones;
c) final phase of retinal adaptation is mainly in the rods;
d) adaptation is quicker if a long period was spent in bright light beforehand;
e) time course for pupillary dilatation is similar to that for dark adaptation down to the adrenal medula.
c) final phase of retinal adaptation is mainly in the rods;
806
Dilation of the pupil:
a) increases the amount of light entering the eye and the spherical aberration;
b) increases the refractive power of the eye;
c) decreases the spherical aberration;
d) increases the depth of focus;
e) increases the field of vision.
a) increases the amount of light entering the eye and the spherical aberration;
807
The olfactory system can detect:
a) 20–40 distinct odours;
b) the direction from which an odour comes and differences in odour
between isomers of the same substance;
c) odours better in young than in old people;
d) small differences in the concentration of the substance responsible for
the odour;
e) odours better in old than in young people.
b) the direction from which an odour comes and differences in odour
808
During accommodation for near vision:
a) more light enters the eye;
b) the curvature of the cornea increases;
c) chromatic and spherical aberration is decreased and the depth of focus increases;
d) the depth of focus decreases;
e) the visual axes of the two eyes diverge.
c) chromatic and spherical aberration is decreased and the depth of focus increases;
809
Visual acuity is:
a) a measure of the sensitivity of the retina to light;
b) greater in a person with 0.5 vision than in one with 0.75;
c) greater using central rather than peripheral vision;
d) greater using one eye than both eyes;
e) greater in normal than in colour-blind people.
c) greater using central rather than peripheral vision;
810
The tympanic membrane:
a) modifies the frequencies of sound waves impinging on the ear;
b) stops vibrating almost immediately after the sound stops;
c) bulges outwards when the pharyngotympanic tube is blocked;
d) transmits sound more effectively when the small muscles of the
middle ear are contracted;
e) continues to vibtate after the sound stops.
b) stops vibrating almost immediately after the sound stops;
811
In the refracting system of the eye:
a) the cornea causes less refraction than the lens;
b) more refraction occurs at the inner surface of the cornea than at the outer surface;
c) the lens, by becoming more convex, can more than double the total refractive power of the eye;
d) the back surface of the lens contributes more to accommodation than the front;
e) aging reduces the maximum refractive power of the eye.
e) aging reduces the maximum refractive power of the eye.
812
The hair cells in the semicircular canals are stimulated by:
a) movement of perilymph;
b) linear acceleration;
c) rotation at constant velocity;
d) gravity;
e) movement of endolymph relative to hair cells.
e) movement of endolymph relative to hair cells.
812
When light is directed to one eye, the pupil:
a) constricts even though its optic nerve has been cut;
b) responds due to sympathetic nerve activity;
c) does not respond if autonomic cholinergic nerves are blocked by local application of atropine or if there is brainstem death;
d) In that eye constricts and the opposite pupil dilates;
e) respond instead is brainstem is death.
c) does not respond if autonomic cholinergic nerves are blocked by local application of atropine or if there is brainstem death;
813
Light from an object to the right of the visual axis:
a) impinges on the retina in the right eye to the right of the fovea;
b) impinges on the retina in the left eye to the left of the fovea;
c) generates impulses which produce conscious sensation in the frontal
lobe eye fields;
d) forms an inverted image on the retina;
e) b, and d
e) b, and d
814
The tympanic membranes
a) bulge outwards during descent in an unpressurized airplane;
b) have an area about twice that of the oval window;
c) prevent sound waves from reaching the oval and round windows at the same time;
d) transmit only 10 per cent of applied sound energy to the cochlea for sound waves of 1000 Hz;
e) transmit sounds in the 500–5000 Hz frequency range with the least loss of energy.
c) prevent sound waves from reaching the oval and round windows at the same time;
815
The rods in the retina:
a) contain visual pigment which is more sensitive to red than to blue light;
b) are rendered sensitive by ordinary daylight;
c) are more widely distributed over the retina than are cones;
d) reflect blue light more than red light;
e) comprise about 20 per cent of foveal receptor cells.
c) are more widely distributed over the retina than are cones;
816
Cones:
a) are found in the most superficial layer of the retina;
b) show a graded depolarization in response to light;
c) contain pigments which are more light-sensitive than the rod pigment;
d) contain pigments which are most affected by yellow-green light;
e) are absent in an individual with colour blindness.
d) contain pigments which are most affected by yellow-green light;
817
The receptor cells serving taste:
a) are confined to the tongue;
b) are stimulated when chemicals diffuse through the overlying
epithelium to reach them;
c) are primary sensory neurones;
d) are histologically different for the four primary taste modalities;
e) for sweetness are more common at the tip than at the back of the tongue.
e) for sweetness are more common at the tip than at the back of the tongue.
818
Rhodopsin, the pigment of the rods is:
a) a purple pigment;
b) highly absorbent of red light;
c) most sensitive to violet light;
d) regenerated in the dark and least sensitive to red light;
e) not regenerated in the dark light and least sensitive to blue light.
d) regenerated in the dark and least sensitive to red light;
819
Sound waves:
a) are quantified on the decibel scale which is logarithmic;
b) with an intensity of 0 decibels are inaudible;
c) may have an intensity of plus 10 decibels;
d) with an intensity of 90 decibels are usually painful;
e) are heard as a note one octave higher when their frequency increases eight-fold.
a) are quantified on the decibel scale which is logarithmic;
820
The frequency of impulses generated by receptors in an utricle is:
a) related to the orientation of the head and reduced in the weightless conditions in outer spase;
b) higher during travel at 100 than at 20 miles per hour;
c) not related to the orientation of the head and increased in the weightless conditions in outer space;
d) inversely related to the frequency being generated by the opposite utricle;
e) related to the impulse frequency being generated by semicircular canal
receptors.
a) related to the orientation of the head and reduced in the weightless conditions in outer spase;
821
In the visual field of the left eye, an object:
a) in the upper temporal quadrant is detected in the lower nasal quadrant of the retina;
b) at the centre of the field of vision is detected in the optic disc;
c) focused on the blind spot is in the nasal half of the visual field;
d) in the temporal half generates impulses which travel the left optic tract;
e) in the temporal half is more likely to be perceived in binocular vision
than one in the nasal half.
a) in the upper temporal quadrant is detected in the lower nasal quadrant of the retina;
822
An audiogram:
a) is a plot of hearing ability (or hearing loss) against sound frequency;
b) showing equal impairment of air and bone conduction suggests conductive deafness;
c) showing hearing loss at high frequencies for air conduction suggests ear drum damage;
d) showing loss at 8000 Hz for air and bone conduction suggests
conductive deafness;
e) showing hearing loss at the lower frequencies is common in elderly
people.
a) is a plot of hearing ability (or hearing loss) against sound frequency;
823
In someone with short-sightedness (myopia):
a) the eye tends to be longer than average from lens to retina;
b) a convex lens is required to correct the refractive error;
c) close vision is affected more than distance vision;
d) the near-point is farther than normal from the eye;
e) a circular object tends to appear oval.
a) the eye tends to be longer than average from lens to retina;
824
Colour blindness:
a) results from inability to detect one of the three primary light colours: red, yellow and blue;
b) where red and green are indistinguishable is due to failure of red and green cone systems;
c) in which no colours can be detected is due to failure of all the cones systems;
d) is more common in women than men;
e) is a disability linked to the Y-chromosome.
a) results from inability to detect one of the three primary light colours: red, yellow and blue;
825
Local application of atropine to the eye causes:
а) dilation of the pupil and reduced drainage of aqueous humour;
b) the near-point for clear vision to move closer to the eye;
c) inability to focus on objects at infinity;
d) dilation of the pupil and increased drainage of aqueous humour.
e) difficulty in looking upwards.
а) dilation of the pupil and reduced drainage of aqueous humour;
826
In the middle ear:
a) destruction of the auditory ossicles abolishes hearing;
b) paralysis of the auditory muscles makes sounds more faint;
c) immobilization of the stapes causes smaller deafness than removal
of the ossicles;
d) air pressure is normally atmospheric pressure;
e) the round window doesnt move reciprocally with the oval window.
d) air pressure is normally atmospheric pressure;
827
Impairment of visual acuity in bright light can be explained by:
a) random light scattering when there is dense pigmentation of the eye;
b) random light scattering when there is asymmetrical corneal curvature due to astigmatism;
c) random light scattering in the cornea when there is vitamin A deficiency;
d) impairment of rod function when there is vitamin A deficiency;
e) inability to alter the focal length of the lens when a cataract is present.
c) random light scattering in the cornea when there is vitamin A deficiency;
827
Which of these neurotransmitters is primarily responsible for
natural pain relief in the body?
a) NE;
b) substance P;
c) dopamine;
d) serotonin;
e) beta-endorphins.
e) beta-endorphins.
828
Interruption of the visual pathway in the:
a) left optic tract causes blindness in the right visual field (right homonymous hemianopia);
b) optic chiasma causes blindness in the nasal half of each visual field
(binasal hemianopia);
c) left optic radiation causes loss of vision to the left;
d) occipital cortex causes loss of the light reflex;
e) occipital cortex causes loss of central vision with preservation of peripheral vision.
a) left optic tract causes blindness in the right visual field (right homonymous hemianopia);
829
Squinting (strabismus) may result from:
a) poor vision in one eye in childhood or a refractive error in childhood;
b) damage to the posterior pituitary;
c) central suppression of vision in one eye in childhood;
d) damage to the cerebellum;
e) damage to the external capsule.
a) poor vision in one eye in childhood or a refractive error in childhood;
829
Involuntary oscillatory eye movements (nystagmus):
a) do not occur in healthy people;
b) may result from cochlear disease;
c) occur in cerebellar disease and when hot fluid is run into one external ear canal;
d) occur when hot fluid is run into one external ear canal;
e) do not affect acuity of vision.
c) occur in cerebellar disease and when hot fluid is run into one external ear canal;
830
In long-sightedness (hypermetropia):
a) objects at infinity cannot be focused sharply on the retina;
b) objects at the usual near-point are focused in front of the retina;
c) ciliary muscle contracts more strongly to bring objects in mid-visual range into clear focus;
d) the range of unblurred vision (near-point to far-point) is greater than normal;
e) the near-point can be brought closer to the eye by the use of a biconcave lens.
c) ciliary muscle contracts more strongly to bring objects in mid-visual range into clear focus;
831
Severe pain may lead to:
a) a fall in blood pressure due to a fall in vascular resistance in skeletal muscle;
b) a fall in heart rate due to an increase in cardiac vagal tone;
c) vomiting through a reflex centre in the brainstem;
d) profuse sweating due to activation of sympathetic nerves;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
831
Pain receptors in the gut and urinary tract may be stimulated by:
a) distention;
b) inflammation of the wall;
c) acid fluid;
d) vigorous rhythmic contractions behind an obstruction;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
832
Headache can be caused by:
a) dilatation of intracranial blood vessels;
b) meningeal irritation;
c) blood in the cerebrospinal fluid;
d) loss of cerebrospinal fluid following lumbar puncture;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
832
Visceral pain:
a) is poorly localized compared with pain arising in skin;
b) is often felt in the mid line;
c) may cause reflex contraction of overlying skeletal muscle;
d) may cause reflex vomiting;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
832
Regarding the function of the cerebral hemispheres:
a) the parietal lobes are involved in pain perception;
b) the frontal areas are involved in auditory perception;
c) damage to the temporal lobes can cause failure of object recognition;
d) the right parietal lobe is important for speech comprehension;
e) a, and b.
e) a, and b.
833
Regarding speech:
a) in left-handed people the faculty of speech is mainly located in the right hemisphere;
b) individuals affected by Broca’s aphasia are able to speak only with difficulty;
c) in right-handed people the faculty of speech is mainly located in the left hemisphere;
d) an individual with Broca’s aphasia will have paralysis of the lips and tongue;
e) Wernike’s aphasia results from damage to the frontal speech area.
b) individuals affected by Broca’s aphasia are able to speak only with difficulty;
834
Regarding the electroencephalogram (EEG):
a) the normal EEG of an awake person is dominated by alpha waves;
b) during deep sleep the EEG is always dominated by delta waves;
c) the presence of theta waves in the EEG of an awake child is indicative
of cerebral pathology;
d) the EEG can be used to monitor the bioelectrical activity of the brain;
e) none of the above.
d) the EEG can be used to monitor the bioelectrical activity of the brain;
835
Regarding sleep:
a) reflects the intrinsic circadian rhythm of the brain;
b) slow wave sleep is associated with rapid eye movements;
c) young adults need less sleep than elderly individuals;
d) during normal sleep the secretion of growth hormone is decreased;
e) women need less sleep than men.
a) reflects the intrinsic circadian rhythm of the brain;
835
What regions of the brain are involved in emotional reactions?
a) hypothalamus;
b) cerebral cortex;
c) thalamus;
d) limbic system;
e) a, and d.
e) a, and d.
835
The dorsal column of the spinal cord conveys the following sensations:
a) pain;
b) temperature;
c) vibration;
d) proprioception;
e) c, and d;
e) c, and d;
836
At what level the section of the spinal cord causes sudden death?
a) I thoracic segment;
b) I – II cervical segment;
c) IV lumbar segment;
d) VIII thoracic segment;
e) I lumbar segment.
b) I – II cervical segment;
837
Which are the functions of the brain stem?
a) control of respiration;
b) control of cardiovascular system;
c) control of gastrointestinal system;
d) control of micturition;
e) a, b, and c.
e) a, b, and c.
837
The primary motor cortex, Broca's area, and the premotor area are
located in which lobe?
a) frontal;
b) parietal;
c) temporal;
d) occipital;
e) prefrontal.
a) frontal;
838
The medulla oblongata has centers for the following:
a) vasomotor;
b) respiratory;
c) emesis and coughing;
d) sneezing;
e) all of the above.
e) all of the above.
838
The Renshaw cells:
a) receive recurrent collaterals from motor neurons and inhibit other motor neurons in the vicinity;
b) represent the inhibitory system of cerebellum;
c) are a major component of muscle spindle;
d) are present in retina;
e) are present in the basal ganglia.
a) receive recurrent collaterals from motor neurons and inhibit other motor neurons in the vicinity;
839
Lesions of which of the following nuclei cause hypothalamic obesity:
a) ventromedial nucleus;
b) dorsomedial nucleus;
c) suprachiasmatic nucleus;
d) supraoptic nucleus;
e) paraventricular nucleus.
a) ventromedial nucleus;
839
Loss of fear and emotion is often observed in the lesion at:
a) septal nucleus;
b) thalamus;
c) amygdaloidal nucleus;
d) sensory cortex;
e) basal ganglia.
c) amygdaloidal nucleus;
839
Premotor cortex refers to:
a) some areas anterior to primary motor cortex causing complex co- ordinate movements like speech, eye movements;
b) an area of motor cortex responsible for voluntary movements;
c) an area in temporal cortex;
d) an area of cerebellum;
e) c, and d.
a) some areas anterior to primary motor cortex causing complex co- ordinate movements like speech, eye movements;
840
Functions of limbic system are all the following except:
a) olfaction;
b) gustation;
c) feeding behaviour;
d) sexual behaviour;
e) vision.
b) gustation;
841
REM is:
a) characterised by delta waves on EEG;
b) a sound and dreamless sleep;
c) characterised by total lack of muscular activity;
d) referred to as paradoxical sleep;
e) characterised by alfa waves on ECG.
d) referred to as paradoxical sleep;
842
Sleep deprivation:
a) can cause psychotic episodes;
b) is associated wit sluggishness of thoughts;
c) makes a person more alert;
d) has no effect on the individual;
e) can cause reduction in arterial pressure.
a) can cause psychotic episodes;
843
The naked nerve endings are responsible for the sensation of:
a) pain;
b) touch;
c) hearing;
d) vision;
e) olfaction.
a) pain;
844
In a healthy adult sitting with eyes closed the EEG rhythm registered
with electrodes on the occipital lobes is:
a) alpha rythm;
b) theta rythm;
c) delta rythm;
d) beta rythm;
e) delta, folowed by beta episodes.
a) alpha rythm;
845
The basal ganglia are primarily concerned with:
a) sensory integration;
b) short term memory;
c) control of movement;
d) neuroendocrine control;
e) control of body temperature.
c) control of movement;
846
Lesions of which of the following hypothalamic nuclei cause loss of
circadian rhythm:
a) ventromedial;
b) dorsomedial;
c) suprachiasmatic;
d) supraoptic;
e) paraventricular.
c) suprachiasmatic;
846
Human circadian (24-hour) rhythms:
a) are triggered totally by external (exogenous) factors;
b) depend more on the integrity of the cerebral cortex than of the hypothalamus;
c) adapt within 48 hours on changing from day to night shift work;
d) for melatonin secretion produce high night-time and low day-time levels of the hormone;
e) for the eosinophil count produce peak values around midday.
d) for melatonin secretion produce high night-time and low day-time levels of the hormone;
847
1. The lack of which hormone does NOT affect growth?
a. Growth hormone
b. Insulin
c. Thyroxin
d. Sex hormone
e. Aldosterone
e. Aldosterone
848
Removal of the adenohyphysis would affect all except:
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Ovaries
d. Mammary gland
e. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal medulla
848
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) causes (2p)
a. Activation of thyroid follicular cells
b. Decreased iodide trapping in iodide follicles
c. Increase thyroglobulin synthesis
d. Decreased release of T3 and T4
e. Decreased activity of thyroid peroxidase
a. Activation of thyroid follicular cells
c. Increase thyroglobulin synthesis
849
Somatostatin is secreted by the:
a. Pancreatic F-Cells
b. Zona fasciculata
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Posterior pituitary
e. Pancreatic delta cells
e. Pancreatic delta cells
850
Which of these is/are examples of negative feedback
2p
a. Insulin lowers blood sugar
b. Growth hormone causes osteoblast division
c. Parathyroid hormone raises blood calcium levels
d. Low blood sugar inhibits insulin
e. Testosterone lowes LH production
d. Low blood sugar inhibits insulin
e. Testosterone lowes LH production
851
Sex hormones are secreted by:
a. All endocrine tissues of the body
b. Inner cortex of the adrenal gland
c. Medulla of the adrenal gland
d. The gonads
e. The anterior pituitary.
d. The gonads
851
Which of the answers below is correct concerning a preganglionic neuron 2p
a. Form the final part of an autonomic pathway
b. Form a gap junction with the postganglionic neuron
c. Have its cell body in the ganglion
d. Have an axon exciting the CNS with a cranial or spinal nerve
e. Have thick, myelated axons
d. Have an axon exciting the CNS with a cranial or spinal nerve
e. Have thick, myelated axons
852
10.Which of these structures are innervated almost entirely by the sympathetic division 2p
a. Heart
b. Sweat glands
c. Urinary bladder
d. Blood vessels
e. Reproductive organs
a. Heart
d. Blood vessels
852
The stimulation of muscarinic (M) receptors would lead to 2p
a. Increased heart rate
b. Brochodialtion
c. Constriction of pupils
d. Stimulated motility of the digestive track
e. Inhibition of digestive tract secretion.
a. Increased heart rate
e. Inhibition of digestive tract secretion.
852
Which of the following effects occur during the fight or flight response 2p
a. Bronchoconstriction
b. Heart rate speeds up
c. Blood pressure increases
d. Blood vessels to skeletal muscle constrict
e. Pupils constrict
b. Heart rate speeds up
c. Blood pressure increases
853
Which symptoms are distinctive for hyperthyroidism 2p
a. Lower body temperature and slow reaction
b. Reduce blood pressure and decreased basal metabolism rate
c. Increased heart rate
d. Weight gain and increased appetite
e. Irritability and insomnia
c. Increased heart rate
e. Irritability and insomnia
853
The anterior pituitary secretes
a. ADH and oxytocin
b. Dopamine and gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c. Oxytocin and prolactin
d. TSH and FSH
d. TSH and FSH
853
Growth hormone
a. Stimulates the release of amino acids from the cells
b. Stimulates the enlargement of cartilage and synthesis of new bone substance
c. Stimulates the breakdown of proteins in cells
d. Cilla takes the uptake of glucose and to muscle and fat cells
e. Stimulates lipolysis
b. Stimulates the enlargement of cartilage and synthesis of new bone substance
853
The main target cells for oxytocin are
a. Fat and skeletal muscle cells
b. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts
c. Hepatocytes and kidney cells
d. Myoepithelial cells of the mammary gland and uterine myocytes
d. Myoepithelial cells of the mammary gland and uterine myocytes
854
Hypothyroidism in infants can result in
a. Graves disease
b. Cretinism
c. Hashimoto's Disease
d. Myxoedema
e. Gigantism
b. Cretinism
854
Major stimulus for cortisol secretion is
a. Angiotensin II
b. Acetylcholine
c. ACTH
d. Thyroxine
e. Estrogens
c. ACTH
855
Removal of the adrenalhypophysis would affect all except
a. Adrenal cortex
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Ovaries
d. Mammary glands
e. Thyroid gland
b. Adrenal medulla
856
Thyroid stimulating hormone causes 2p
a. Activation of thyroid follicular cells
b. Decreased iodide trapping in the thyroid follicles
c. Increased thyroglobulin synthesis
d. Decreased release of T3/ T4
e. Decreased activity of thyroid peroxidase
a. Activation of thyroid follicular cells
c. Increased thyroglobulin synthesis
857
Sex hormones are secreted by
a. All endocrine tissues of the body
b. the the inner core
c. the medulla of
d. the going the gonads
e. the anterior pituitary
d. the going the gonads
857
Somatostatin is secreted by the
a. pancreatic f cells
b. Zona fasciculata
c. Parafollicular cells
d. Posterior pituitary
e. Pancreatic delta cells
e. Pancreatic delta cells
857
Which of these is an example of negative feedback 2p
a. Insulin lowers blood sugar
b. growth hormone causes osteoblast adhesion
c. hormone raises blood calcium levels
d. low blood sugar inhibit insulin
e. testosterone LH production
d. low blood sugar inhibit insulin
e. testosterone LH production
858
Which of the answers below is not correct concerning a preganglionic neuron 2p
a. Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway
b. Forms a gap junction with the postganglionic neuron
c. Have it cell body in the brain or spinal cord
d. Have its axon exiting the CNS with the cranial or spinal nerve
e. Have thick myelinated axons
d. Have its axon exiting the CNS with the cranial or spinal nerve
e. Have thick myelinated axons
859
Which of the following describes the parasympathetic division 2p
a. Ganglion in the head
b. Short preganglionic neurons
c. Craniosacral output
d. Synapse with blood vessels
e. Stimulate sweat glands
c. Craniosacral output
e. Stimulate sweat glands
860
Which of the following effects do not occur during a fight or flight response 2p
a. the Airways decrease in in diameter
b. heart rate speeds up
c. the pupils constrict
d. blood pressure increases
e. blood vessels to skeletal muscles dilate.
a. the Airways decrease in in diameter
c. the pupils constrict
861
Which of these structures is innervated almost entirely by the sympathetic division 2p
a. Heart
b. gastrointestinal tract
c. Urinary bladder
d. Blood vessels
e. reproductive organs
a. Heart
e. reproductive organs
862
the posterior pituitary stores and secretes
a. ADH and oxytocin
b. growth hormone and gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c. aldosterone and cortisol
d. oxytocin and prolactin
e. TSH and ADH
a. ADH and oxytocin
863
If ___is lacking in the diet, the thyroid gland enlarges producing a goitre.
a. Thyroxin
b. Iron
c. Iodine
d. Calcium
e. phosphorus
c. Iodine
864
Antidiuretic hormone ADH 2p
a. to increase the amount of urine formed and excreted
b. Causes an increase in water reabsorption in the collecting duct in kidney
c. Causes vasodilation
d. causes vasoconstriction
e. has a steroid structure.
b. Causes an increase in water reabsorption in the collecting duct in kidney
d. causes vasoconstriction
865
which of these hormones is secreted by the liver
a. Renin
b. Somatomedin (IGF)
c. EPO erythropoetin
d. Estrogens
e. aldosterone
b. Somatomedin (IGF)
866
which statement is false
a. the endocrine system is composed of ductless glands
b. Content of e.s are released into the bloodstream
c. the mammary gland is not part of the endocrine system
d. exocrine glands are not part of the endocrine system
d. exocrine glands are not part of the endocrine system
867
What is the target of ACTH?
a. Thyroid glands
a. Mammary glands
b. adrenal medulla
c. renal cortex
d. adrenal cortex
d. adrenal cortex
868
Major stimulus for aldosterone secretion is
a. Angiotensin II
b. Acetylcholine
c. ACTH
d. Thyroxine
a. Angiotensin II
869
The hormone insulin 2p
a. stimulates the entry of glucose in muscle cells
b. stimulates the entry of glucose in brain cells
c. enhances the synthesis of triacylglycerols in adipocytes
d. enhances glycogenolysis in the liver
e. stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver and kidneys.
a. stimulates the entry of glucose in muscle cells
c. enhances the synthesis of triacylglycerols in adipocytes
869
Regarding insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus which of the following statements is or are
correct.
a. It is caused by a reduction in functional beta cells in pancreas
b. it is characterised by a fall in urine output
c. it is associated with an increase in light policies
d. it leads to hypoglycemia
e. it is common symptom in anorexia
a. It is caused by a reduction in functional beta cells in pancreas
870
Which of these is an example of negative feedback
a. Thyroxin lower TSH production
b. Insulin lowers blood sugar
c. growth hormone causes osteo glass division
d. cortisol raises blood glucose levels
e. low blood sugar inhibit insulin
e. low blood sugar inhibit insulin
871
thyroid stimulating hormone does not cause
a. activation of thyroid follicular
b. increased iodide trapping in thyroid follicles
c. increase globulin synthesis
d. decrease rate of T3 and T4
e. decrease activity of thyroid peroxidase
d. decrease rate of T3 and T4
872
glucagon is secreted by the
a. the pancreatic episodes
b. pancreatic alpha cells
c. paraphilic yourselves
d. posterior pituitary
e. adrenal cortex
b. pancreatic alpha cells
873
Sex hormones are secreted by
A. all endocrine tissues of the body
B. the inner Cortex of the adrenal gland
C. the medulla of the adrenal gland
D. The gonads
E. the anterior pituitary
D. The gonads
874
The receptor for steroid hormones lies 2p
a. within the plasma membrane
b. within the nuclear envelope
c. in the cytoplasm
d. in the blood plasma
e. steroid hormones does not bind to receptors
a. within the plasma membrane
b. within the nuclear envelope
875
increased level of thyroid hormones T3 and T4 stimulate the synthesis of receptors for 2p
a. Insulin
b. growth hormone
c. Estrogens
d. acetylcholine
e. Epinephrine
b. growth hormone
e. Epinephrine
876
If your adrenal Cortex was producing high levels of aldosterone It would cause your urine to
have:
a. High sodium and low potassium concentration
b. Low sodium and high potassium concentration
c. high sodium and potassium concentration
d. low sodium and low potassium concentration
e. none of the above would not affect the urine
b. Low sodium and high potassium concentration
877
Which of the following statements are true 2p
a. hormone can play different roles in different parts of the body
b. once I use more than one second Messenger
c. hormonal action research development of new functions in the cells
d. all hormones bind to transport proteins in the blood
a. hormone can play different roles in different parts of the body
c. hormonal action research development of new functions in the cells
878
Which of the following effects do you occur during the rest and digest response 2p
a. Heart rate speeds up
b. blood pressure increases
c. Pupils constrict
d. blood vessels to skeletal muscles dilate
e. the Airways decreasing of diameter
c. Pupils constrict
e. the Airways decreasing of diameter
879
Which of the mentioned below releases a catecholamine as a neurotransmitter
a. Preganglionic sympathetic fibres
b. postganglionic sympathetic fibres
c. preganglionic parasympathetic fibres
d. postganglionic parasympathetic fibres
c. preganglionic parasympathetic fibres
d. postganglionic parasympathetic fibres
b. postganglionic sympathetic fibres
880
Catecholamines are derived from
a. Acetylcholine
b. Tryptophan
c. Epinephrine
d. Tyrosine
e. Histamine
d. Tyrosine
881
Steroid hormones are secreted
a. the adrenal medulla
b. adrenal cortex
c. the gonads
d. the thyroid gland
e. the posterior pituitary
b. adrenal cortex
881
Which of the following substances are produced by the pituitary gland 3p
a. Prolactin
b. luteinizing hormone
c. ACTH
d. Somatostatin
e. aldosterone
a. Prolactin
b. luteinizing hormone
c. ACTH
882
The target organ of TRH ( thyrotropin releasing hormones)
a. The thyroid glands
b. the adrenal gland
c. the pancreas
d. the pituitary gland
e. the hypothalamus
d. the pituitary gland
bc
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