Picmonic Flashcards

Question

Imipenem

Answer 1

1. Resistant to beta lactamases 2. Broad spectrum anaerobe 3. Gram - rods, gram + cocci 4. Must administer with cilastatin 5. Cilastatin is inhibitor of renal Dehydropeptidase I 6. Diarrhea, skin rash, seizures 7. Meropenem 8. Stable to dehydropeptidase I 9. Reduced risk of seizures (non seizure causing)

Answer 2

1. Used to treat TB 2. Requires catalase peroxidase 3. Decreases mycolic acid synthesis 4. Fast vs slow acetylators 5. B6 deficiency 6. Neurotoxicity 7. Hepatotoxicity 8. Drug induced lupus

Answer 3

1. Bacteriostatic 2. Erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin 3. Bind to 23 S rRNA of 50S subunit 4. Inhibit protein synthesis by blocking translocation 5. Gram positive cocci 6. Atypical pneumonia 7. Chlamydia 8. Resistance by methylation of 23 S rRNA binding

Answer 4

1. P450 inhibitor 2. Prolonged QT 3. Diarrhea 4. Cholestatic hepatitis 5. Eosinophilia 6. Skin Rash

Answer 5

1. Diuretic use 2. Vomiting 3. Antacid 4. Hyperaldosteronism

Answer 6

1. Bactericidal 2. Forms free radical toxic metabolites 3. Damages DNA 4. Giardia lamblia 5. Entaemoeba 6. Trichomonas 7. Anaerobe 8. Gardnerella 9. Metallic taste 10. Disulfiram like reaction with alcohol

Answer 7

1. Diarrhea 2. Hyperchloremia 3. Renal tubular acidosis 4. Glue sniffing

Answer 8

1. Gram Positives 2. Spirochetes 3. Bind PBPs 4. Block transpeptidase cross linking of cell wall 5. Activate autolytic enzymes 6. Bactericidal 7. Hypersensitivity reactions 8. Hemolytic anemia 9. Beta lactamase sensitive

Answer 9

1. Cationic 2. Act like detergents 3. Bind to cell membranes of bacteria 4. Disrupt their osmotic properties 5. Use for resistant gram negative infections 6. Neurotoxicity 7. Renal tubular necrosis

Answer 10

1. 30S inhibitors 2. Aminoglycosides 3. Tetracyclines 4. 50S inhibitors 5. Chloramphenicol 6. Clindamycin 7. Erythromycin 8. Lincomycin 9. Linezolid

Answer 11

1. Hypoventilation 2. Increased PCO2 \> 40 3. Babiturates depress central respiratory center of brain 4. Opioids depress central respiratory center of the brain 5. Airway obstruction 6. Respiratory muscle weakness/ paralysis

Answer 12

1. Hyperventilation 2. High altitude 3. Aspirin 4. Restrictive lung disease 5. Pulmonary embolism 6. Progesterone 7. Progesterone 8. Rib fracture 9. Anxiety

Answer 13

1. Mycobacterium TB 2. Blocks RNA polymerization 3. Haemophilus influenzae B 4. Leprosy 5. Meningitis 6. P450 inducer 7. Red-orange urin

Answer 14

1. Sulfasalazine 2. Sulfonylureas 3. Thiazide diuretics 4. Acetazolamide 5. Furosemid diuretic 6. Celeboxib 7. Probenecid

Answer 15

1. Bacteriostatic 2. Gram + and - 3. Nocardia 4. Chlamydia 5. PABA antimetabolites 6. Inhibit dihydropteroate synthetase 7. Sulfamethoxazole 8. Sulfisoxazole 9. Sulfadiazine

Answer 16

1. Hypersensitivity 2. Hemolysis of G6PD deficient people 3. Nephrotoxicity 4. Photosensitivity 5. Displace warfarin from albumin 6. Kernicterus in infants

Answer 17

1 Doxycycline, Demeclocyline, Minocycline 2. Fecally eliminated (doxycycline) 3. Use in renal failure 4. Antidiuretic hormone antagonist 5. Chlamydia 6. Rickettsia 7. Borrelia Burgdoferi 8. Helicobacter pylori 9. Mycoplasma pneurmonia

Answer 18

1. Binds to 30 S to prevent attachment of aminoacyl tRNA 2. Limited CNS penetration 3. Divalent cations inhibit absorption 4. Must not take with milk, antacids, iron

Answer 19

1. Photosensitivity 2. GI distress 3. Teratogen 4. Discoloration of teeth 5. Inhibition of bone growth in children

Answer 20

1. Bacteriostatic 2. Inhibits bacterial dihyrdofolate reductase 3. Used in comboination with sulfamethoxazole 4. Causes sequential block of folate synthesis 5. Combination used for recurrent UTIs 6. Shigella 7. Salmonella 8. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia 9. Decrease in red and white blood cells 10. Can be alleviated with leucovorin rescue

Answer 21

1. Bactericidal 2. Gram positive 3. Inhibits cell wall mucopeptide 4. Binds to D-ala D ala 5. Resistance with change to D-ala D-lac 6. Staph aureus 7. Clostridum difficile 8. Enterococci

Answer 22

1. Thrombophlebitis 2. Nephrotoxicity 3. Ototoxicity 4. Diffuse flushing called red man syndrom 5. Red man syndrome can be prevented with antihistamine 6. Red man syndrom can be prevented with slow infusion

Answer 23

1. Decreased cortisol 2. Decreased aldosterone 3. Increased sex hormones 4. Masculinization 5. Increased 11 deoxycoticosterone 6. Hypertension

Answer 24

1. Decreased cortisol 2. Decreased sex hormones 3. Increased mineralocoticoids 4. Hypertension 5. Hypokalemia 6. XY externally phenotypic female 7. No internal reproductive structures due to Mullerian inhibitory factor 8. XX externally phenotypic femal 9. Sexual infantilism

Answer 25

1. Decreased cortisol 2. Increased 17 hydroxyprogesterone 3. Decreased aldosterone 4. Hypotension 5. Increased renin 6. Hyperkalemia 7. Femal pseudohermaphroditism

Answer 26

1. Non enveloped 2. linear 3. double stranded 4. Pharyngitis 5. Conjunctivitis 6. fever 7 summer swimming 8. daycare centers 9. acute hemorrhagic cystitis 10. pneumonia

Answer 27

1. Defect in DNA repair 2. Cerebellar defects 3. Spider angiomas 4. senstivite to radiation 5. defective tumor suppressor gene 6. Increased risk of cancer, leukemias, and lymphomas 7. IgA deficiency 8. repeated sino pulmonary infections

Answer 28

1. X linked recessive 2. Defective tyrosine kinase 3. Blocks B cell maturation 4. Decreased immunoglobulins of all classes 5. Bacterial infections after 6 months 6. Maternal IgG protects before 6 months

Answer 29

1. Cartilaginous tumor 2. Malignant 3. Men 30-60 years old 4. Pelvic and femur bones 5. Glistening mass in medullary cavity 6. Can be primary in origin origin or from osteochondroma 7. Metastasize to lungs

Answer 30

1. Anterior cerebral arteries ACA supply motor/ sensory parts of cortex for lower extremities 2. Anterior Communicating artery Acomm connects ACA to ACA 3. Internal carotid arteries ICA 4. Middle cerebral arteries MCA supplies cortex for upper limbs and face 5. Posterior communicating artery Pcomm connects ICA to PCA 6. Posterior cerebral arteries PCA supplies occipital 7. Basilar Artery supplies Medulla, Pons and PCA

Answer 31

1. Defect in B cell maturation 2. Decreased Plasma cells 3. Decreased immunoglobulins 4. SInopulmonary infections 5. increased risk of autoimmune disease 6. Lymphoma

Answer 32

1. Hypopituitary 2. Remnants of rathkes pouch 3. Tooth enamel like calcification 4. Cholesterol crystals 5. Yellow viscous fluid 6. Headache 7. Bitemporal hemianopsia

Answer 33

1. Enveloped 2. double stranded DNA 3. Herpesvirus 5 4. Congenital TORCH infection 5. Mononucleosis 6. Non heterphile antibodies 7. AIDS retinitis and esophagitis 8. infection in transplant recipients 9. Owl's eye inclusions

Answer 34

1. Occur in children 2. Fourth ventricle 3. Hydrocephalus 4. Perivascular pseudorosettes 5. Rod shaped blepharoplasts 6. Cauda equina in adults 7. poor prognosis

Answer 35

1. Herpesvirus 4 2. Enveloped 3. Double stranded DNA 4. Linear 5. Virus attaches to CD21 in B cells 6. Infectious mononucleosis 7. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 8. Burkitt's Lymphoma

Answer 36

1. Mononucleosis 2. Fever 3. Hepatosplenomegaly 4. Pharyngitis 5. Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy 6. Atypical lymphocytes 7. Heterophile antibodies 8. Rash develops if treated with ampicillin

Answer 37

1. Most common in boys \<15 years old 2. 11;22 translocation 3. Long bones, pelvis, ribs 4. Diaphysis 5. Small Blue cells 6. Malignant 7. Aggressive 8. Onion skin appearance 9. Responsive to chemotherapy

Answer 38

1. Osteoclastoma 2. Epiphyseal end of long bones 3. Peak incidence 20-40 years 4. Benign 5. Knee region 6. Soap bubble appearance on x ray 7. Spindle shaped cells 8. Multinucleated giant cells

Answer 39

1. Most common primary brain tumor 2. Grade 4 astrocytoma 3. Can cross corpus callosum 4. Butterfly glioma 5. Pseudo-palisading tumor cells 6. Areas of necrosis and hemorrhage 7. Stain astrocytes for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) 8. Grave prognosis

Answer 40

1. Hepadnavirus 2. Enveloped 3. Double stranded DNA 4. Partial circular 5. Has reverse transcriptase 6. IV drug use 7. Sex 8. Maternal fetal routes 9. 3 month incubation period

Answer 41

1. Can turn chronic 2. Less than 10% of adults become chronic carriers 3. 90% of newborns become chronic carriers 4. Cirrhosis 5. Hepatocellular carcinoma 6. Membranous glomerulonephritis 7. Polyarteritis nodosa 8. Serum sickness like syndrome

Answer 42

1. Most often cerebellar 2. Associated with Von Hippel Lindau 3. Retinal Angiomas 4. Can produce EPO 5. Secondary polycythemia 6. Foamy cells 7. High vascularity

Answer 43

1. Enveloped 2. Double stranded DNA 3. Linear 4. Type 1 HSV 5. Gingivostomatitis 6. Keratoconjunctivitis 7. Encephalitis of temporal lobes 8. Latent in trigeminal ganglia 9. Type 2 HSV 10. Genital vesicles 11. Neonatal herpes 12. TORCHES 13. Latent in sacral ganglia 14. Tzank test 15. Multinucleated giant cells 16. Cowdry A inclusions 17. Acyclovir

Answer 44

1. Non enveloped 2. Circular 3. Double stranded DNA 4. Warts 1,2,6,11 5. Condyloma acuminata 6. Type 16, 18 7. Cervical carcinoma 8. Penile carcinoma 9. Immunosuppression/ AIDS 10. Worsened by smoking 11. Koilocytic change in squamous epithelium 12. Pyknotic nuclei surrounded by clear halo 13. Vaccine available

Answer 45

1. Defective CD 40 Ligand on helper T cells 2. CD 40 ligand receptor on B cell 3. INability to class switch 4. Pyogenic abscess 5. Decreased IgG, IgA and IgE

Answer 46

1. Occur in children 2. Cerebellum 3. Primitive neuroectodermal tumor PNET 4. Small blue cells 5. Lots of mitotic figures 6. Homer wright rosettes 7. Perivascular pseudorosettes 8. 4th Ventricle 9. Hydrocephalus 10. Ataxia 11. Wide based gait 12. Radiosensitive

Answer 47

1. Second most common adult primary brain tumor 2. Originate from arachnoid villi 3. Parasagittal 4. Contralateral leg weakness 5. Psammoma bodies 6. Calcifications 7. Increased bone density

Answer 48

1. Slow growing tumor 2. Frontal lobe 3. Chicken wire pattern 4. Fried egg appearance 5. Calcifications

Answer 49

1. Osteogenic sarcoma 2. Peak incidence men 10-20 years old 3. Metaphysis of long bones 4. Knee region 5. Pagets disease 6. Radiation 7. Familial retinoblastoma 8. Codman triangle 9. Sunburst pattern from elevated periosteum 10. Grave prognosis

Answer 50

1. Non enveloped 2. DNA 3. Single stranded 4. LIanear 5. Smallest DNA 6. B19 7. Erythema infectiosum 8. Slapped cheek rash in children 9. 5th disease 10. Arthritis in adults 11. Aplastic crisis in sickle cell 12. Hydrops fetalis 13. RBC aplasia

Answer 51

1. Most common in kids 2. Most common childhood brain tumor 3. Posterior fossa 4. Cerebellum 5. well circumscribed 6. GFAP 7. Rosenthal fibers 8. Eosinophilic corkscrew fibers

Answer 52

1. Melatonin 2. Germinoma 3. Teratoma 4. Insomnia 5. Superior colliculi 6. Paralysis of upward gaze 7. Parinauds syndrome 8. Setting sun sign 9. Secrete B Hcg 10. Precocious puberty 11. Obstructs cerebral aqueduct 12. Hydrocephalus

Answer 53

1. Non enveloped 2. Double stranded DNA 3. Circular 4. BK virus 5. Kidney damages 6. JC virus 7. Progressive mulifocal leukoencephalopathy PML 8. HIV/ AIDS 9. Oligodendrocyte 10. Demylination of CNS

Answer 54

1. Enveloped 2. Double stranded DNA 3. Linear 4. Non icosahedral 5. Smallpox 6. Cowpox 7. Mulluscum contagiosum 8. Umbilicated flesh colored domed lesions

Answer 55

1. Pituitary adenoma 2. Galactorrhea 3. Prolactin inhibits gonadotropin releasing hormone 4. Impotence 5. Amenorrhea 6. Bitemporal hemianopsia 7 treat with dopamine

Answer 56

1. Exanthem 2. HHV 6 3. Enveloped 4. Double stranded DNA 5. Linear 6. High fevers can lead to seizures 7. Diffuse macular rash after fever

Answer 57

1. 3rd most common adult brain tumor 2. Cerebellopontine angle 3. Cranial nerve VIII 4. Acoustic schwannoma 5. Tinnitus 6. Bilateral schwannoma in neurofibromatosis type 2 7. Cranial nerve V 8. Affects corneal reflex 9. S100 positive

Answer 58

1. Defect in class switching 2. Sinus and lung infections 3. Milk allergies 4. Diarrhea 5. Anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products with IgA 6. Cannot make IgA therefore make more IgE 7. Increase atopy

Answer 59

1. Rules out 2. Screening test 3. TP / (FN + TP)

Answer 60

1. Both B and T cell deficiency 2. Recurrent viral, bacterial, fungal, protozoal infections 3. Defective interleukin IL2 receptor 4. X linked 5. Adenosine deaminase deficiency 6. Failure to synthesize MHC II antigens 7. Treat with bone marrow transplant

Answer 61

1. Rules in 2. Confirmatory test 3. TN / (TN + FP)

Answer 62

1. HHV3 2. Enveloped 3. double stranded DNA 4. Chicken pox 5. Pneumonia 6. Encephalitis 7. Trigeminal and dorsal root ganglia 8. Shingles 9. Tzanck test 10. Multinucleated giant cells 11. Cowdry A inclusion 12. Acyclovir

Answer 63

1. Xlinked recessive defect 2. Progressive deletion of B and T cells 3. Thrombocytopenic purpura 4. Eczema 5. Infections 6. Decreased IgM 7. Increased IgE and IgA

Answer 64

1. Cruises 2. May take steps alone 3. Plays peek a boo 4. uses simple gestures like waving bye 5. says mama and dada 6. feeds self 7. birth weight triples 8. height increases 50 %

Answer 65

1. Stacks 3 blocks 2. scribbles 3. walks backward 4. eats with a spoon 5. says 10 spontaneous words 6. tantrums

Answer 66

1. Coos 2. Can hold head up but unsteady 3. Orients to voice 4. Social smile 5. Follows movements with eyes 6. Rooting reflex

Answer 67

1. stacks 6 blocks 2. walks up and down stairs 1 step at a time 3. stands on tiptoes 4. throws overhead 5. jumps 6. run 7. 1/2 of speech is understandable to a stranger 8. follow a 2 step verbacl command 9. parallel play

Answer 68

1. rides tricycle 2. climbs stairs with alternating feet 3. 9 block towers 4. begins toilet training 5. three word sentences 6. says first name 7. 3/4 of speech is understood 8. dresses and undresses self 9. copies circle

Answer 69

1. follows object across midline 2. reach for objects with hands 3. holds a rattle 4. raise body on hands when on stomach 5. shows interest in image in mirror 6. rolls from stomach to back 7. babbles

Answer 70

1. hop on one foot 2-3 times 2. stands on one foot for 2 seconds 3. counts to 10 4. draws simple stick figures 5. imaginary friends 6. buttons and zippers 7. grooms self 8. brushes teeth 9. uses scissors 10. birth height doubles 11. speech understood all of the time 12. copy square 13. catch bounced ball

Answer 71

1. sit with support or tripod position 2. rolls over in both directions 3. raking grasp 4. transfer objects hand to hand 5. infant reflexes should be gone 6. babbles consonant sounds 7. development of object permanence 8. stranger anxiety

Answer 72

1. pincer grasp 2. put things in mouth 3. further development of object permanence 4. uses finger to point at things 5. crawls 6. pulls to stand 7. understands no 8. responds to name 9. separation anxiety

Answer 73

1. Erosive 2. disruption of mucosal barrier 3. caused by stress 4. alcohol 5. NSAIDS 6. uremia 7. burns 8. curlings ulcer 9. brain injury 10. cushings ulcer 11. increase H production

Answer 74

1. adenosine to inosine 2. excess ATP 3. inhibition of ribonucleotide reductase 4. Prevents DNA synthesis 5. Decreases B cells and T cells 6. major cause of SCID

Answer 75

1. autosomal recessive 2. deficiency of homogentisic acid oxidase 3. in degradative pathway of tyrosine to fumarate 4. homogentisic acid harmful to cartilage 5. arthritis 6. dark connective tissue 7. urine turns black on standing

Answer 76

1. Gq subunit 2. increase vascular smooth muscle contraction 3. increase pupillary dilator muscle contraction 4. increase intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction

Answer 77

1. Gi subunit 2. decrease sympathetic outflow 3. decrease insulin release 4. decrease lipolysis 5. increase platelet aggregation

Answer 78

1. contralateral paralysis of lower limb 2. contralateral loss of sensation in lower limb

Answer 79

1. Gs protein class 2. increased heart rate 3. increased contractility 4. increased renin release 5. increased liplysis

Answer 80

1. Gs protein class 2. increased heart rate 3. increased contractility 4. increase lipolysis 5. increases insulin 6. increase aqeuous humor production 7. ciliary muscle relaxation 8. vasodilation 9. bronchodilation 10. uterine tone

Answer 81

1. neuroendocrine cells 2. serotonin 3. appendix 4. chromogranin A 5. Neuron specific enolase stain 6. dense core bodies on EM 7. Symptoms when metastasize to liver 8. flushing 9. wheezing 10. right heart murmur 11. diarrhea

Answer 82

1. Type A 2. fundus and body 3. autoimmune disorder 4. autoantibodies to parietal cells 5. pernicious anemia 6. achlorhydria 7. type B 8. most common type 9. Helicobacter pylori 10. antrum 11. increase risk for MALT lymphoma 12. HIV/ AIDS 13. chrons disease

Answer 83

1. autosomal recessive 2. absence of galactose 1 phosphate uridyltransferase 3. galactose 1 P to glucose 1 P 4. Accumulates in lens of the eye 5. infantile cataracts 6. failure to thrive 7. hepatomegaly 8. jaundice 9. mental retardation

Answer 84

1. terminal ileum and colon 2. Rectal sparing 3. transmural inflammation 4. granulomas 5. skip lesions 6. cobblestone mucosa 7. fissures 8. fistulas 9. perianal disease 10. creeping fat 11. lymphoid aggregates 12. string sign on barium swallow

Answer 85

1. diarrhea 2. malabsorption 3. bile wasting 4. gallstones 5. oxalate kidney stones 6. ankylosing spondylitis 7. erythema nodosum 8. uveitis 9. migratory polyarthritis

Answer 86

1. defect of renal tubular amino acid transporter 2. cysteine 3. ornithine 4. lysine 5. argining 6. excess cystine in urine 7. staghorn kidney stones 8. cyanide nitroprusside test 9. acetazolamide to alkalinize the urine 10. hexagonal crystals

Answer 87

1. autosomal recessive 2. defect in fructokinase 3. fructose to fructose 1 p 4. benign 5. fructose appears in blood and urine 6. fructose does not enter cell

Answer 88

1. deficiency of aldolase B 2. Fructose 1 p to DHAP or G3P 3. Accumulation of fructose 1p and phosphate trapping 4. inhibition of gluconeogensis 5 inhibition of glycogenolysis 6. hypoglycemia 7. vomiting 8. jaundice 9. cirrhosis 10. autosomal recessive

Answer 89

1. hemolytic anemia 2. inflammatory response 3. fava beans 4. sulfonamides 5. primaquine 6. anti TB drugs 7. heinz bodies 8. bite cells 9. prevalent among blacks due to increase in malarial resistance

Answer 90

1. turns NADP to NADPH 2. NADPH used by lutathione reductase 3. Detoxifies free radicals and peroxides 4. X linked recessive

Answer 91

1. autosomal recessive 2. galactose to galactose 1P 3. galactose appears in blood and urine 4. benign 5. infantile cataractts 6. failure to develop a social smile

Answer 92

1. autosomal recessive 2. defective transporter 3. neutral amino acids 4. on renal and intestinal cells 5. causes tryptophan excretion in urine 6. leads to pellagra 7. diarrhea 8. dermatitis 9. dementia

Answer 93

1. hemosiderin deposition 2. autosomal recessive 3. HLA A3 4. secondary to transfusion therapy 5. increase iron 6. increase ferritin 7. decrease transferrin

Answer 94

1. Micronodular cirrhosis 2. Hepatocellular carcinoma 3. Diabetes 4. Bronze skin coloring 5. Congestive heart failure 6. arthropathy 7. testicular atrophy 8. impotence

Answer 95

1. Failure of neuronal crest cell migration 2. Involves rectum 3. Lack of auerbach and meissner plexus 4. Chronic constipation 5. failure to pass meconium 6. congenital megacolon 7. increased risk with down syndrome

Answer 96

1. 3 forms 2. All autosomal recessive 3. Methionine synthase 4. cystathionine synthase deficiency 5. Decreased affinity of cystathionine synthase for vit B6 6. Marfanoid body habitus 7. Kyphosis 8. Lens subluxation 9. Mental retardation 10. Atherosclerosis

Answer 97

1. Hereditary urea cycle defects 2. Acquired through liver disease 3. inhibits the citric acid cycle 4. somnolence 5. slurring of speech 6. tremor 7. cerebral edema 8. vomiting 9. blurring of vision 10. limit protein in diet 11. lactulose 12. benzoate binds amino acid for excretion 13. phenylbutyrate

Answer 98

1. X linked recessive 2. Absence of HGPRT 3. Hypoxanthine to IMP 4. Guanine to GMP 5. Excess uric acid 6. Gout 7. retardation 8. self mutilation 9. choreoathetosis 10. PRPP is increased

Answer 99

1. Defect in alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase 2. Blocked degradation of branched chain amino acids 3. Leucine 4. isoleucine 5. valine 6. seizures 7. mental retardation

Answer 100

1. Lack of proper diet during therapy like nutrasweet 2. congenital heart defects 3. Growth retardation 4. mental retardation 5. microcephaly

Answer 101

1. True diverticulum 2. vitelline duct 3. Yolk stalk 4. Contain ectopic tissue 5. pancreatic and gastic mucosa 6. hemorrhage 7. intussusceptions 8. volvulus 9. 2 feet from ileocecal valve 10. 2 inches long 11. 2% population 12. first 2 years of life 13. pertechnetate T99

Answer 102

1. Contralateral paralysis upper limb and face 2. Contralateral loss of sensation of upper limb and face 3. Affects Wernicke's area and Broca's area 4. Aphasia if lesion in dominant (left) hemisphere 5. Hemineglect if lesion in nondominant (right) hemisphere

Answer 103

1. Most common urea cycle disorder 2. X linked recessive 3. Hyperammonemia 4. Decreased BUN 5. Carbamoyl phosphate is converted to orotic acid 6. Pyrimidine synthesis pathway 7. Evident in babies

Answer 104

1. Autosomal recessive 2. Defect in orotic acid phosphoribosyl transferase 3. Or orotidine 5' phosphate decarboxylase 4. in de novo pyrimidine synthesis pathway 5. enzyme converts orotic acid to UMP 6. Increased orotic acid in urine 7. megaloblastic anemia 8. failure to thrive 9. no hyperammonemia 10. treatment oral uridine adminstration

Answer 105

1. Decreased phenylalanine hydroxylase 2. Decreased tetrahydrobiopterin cofactor 3. Tyrosine becomes essential 4. mental retardation 5. Growth retardation 6. seizures 7. hypopigmentation 8. Eczema 9. musty or mousy body odor 10. Phenylalanine found in nutrasweet

Answer 106

1. Acquired from thiamine deficiency 2. Backup of alanine and pyruvate 3. Neurologic defects 4. Lactic acidosis 5. Treatment= ketogenic nutrients 6. Lysine and leucine (ketogenic nutrients)

Answer 107

1. Almost always adenocarcinoma 2. Smoked foods containing nitrosamines 3. Achlorhydria 4. Helicobacter pylori 5. Type A blood 6. Signet ring cells 7. Linitis plastica (leather bottle stomach) 8. Acanthosis nigricans 9. Left supraclavicular lymph nodes 10. Virchows node 11. Subcutaneous periumbilical mets 12. Sister mary josephs nodule 13. Bilateral mets to ovaries 14. Krukenbergs tumor

Answer 108

1. Toxic megacolon 2. Colorectal carcinoma 3. Anterior uveitis 4. Pyoderma gangrenosum 5. Primary sclerosing cholangitis

Answer 109

1. Autoimmune 2. Mucosal and submucosal only 3. rectal involvement 4. stepwise lesions 5. Friable pseudopolyp 6. Crypt abscess 7. Loss of haustra 8. lead pipe appearance 9. Bloody diarrhea

Answer 110

1. Autosomal recessive 2. mutation in ATP7B gene 3. Chromosome 13 4. Decrease in ceruloplasmin 5. inadequate copper excretion 6. liver 7. brain 8. kidney 9. cornea 10. joints 11. Treat with penicillamine

Answer 111

1. Cirrhosis 2. Hepatocellular carcinoma 3. Basal ganglia degeneration 4. Dementia 5. Dyskinesia 6. Asterixis 7. Kayser Fleischer rings 8. Slit lamp diagnosis 9. Hemolytic anemia

Answer 112

1. Gram negative 2. anaerobe 3. Produces vitamin K 4. Gastrointestinal abscess 5. Produces gas in tissue 6. foul smelling 7. Clindamycin 8. metronidazole

Answer 113

1. gram negative 2. pleomorphic 3. bacilli 4. cat scratch fever 5. lymphadenopathy 6. bacillary angiomatosis 7. aids patients 8. mimic kaposi's sarcoma 9. benign

Answer 114

1. gram negative 2. coccobacillus 3. bordet gengou agar 4. ADP ribosylating AB toxin 5. inhibits Gi to cause increase in cAMP 6. Lymphocytosis 7. Increase in insulin 8. Catarrhal phase is infectious period 9. Paroxysmal phase is symptomatic period 10. Whooping cough 11. Erythromycin

Answer 115

1. Lyme disease 2. Spirochete 3. Dark field microscopy 4. giemsa stain 5. silver stain 6. deer 7. Ixodes tick 8. Babesia 9. Ehrlichiosis 10. Flu like symptoms 11. Bulls eye rash 12. Erythema migrans 13. Bilateral bells palsy 14. Conduction defects 15. Arthropathy 16. Doxycycline 17. Ceftriaxone

Answer 116

1. Gram negative 2. Coccobacilli 3. Unpasteurized milk 4. Goat cheese 5. Inside macrophages 6. Lymphadenopathy 7. Granulomas 8. Undulating fever 9. Doxycycline 10. Gentamicin

Answer 117

1. gram negative 2. bacilli 3. flagella 4. curved 5. corkscrew appearance 6. oxidase positive 7. grows well at 42 degress 8. Undercooked poultry 9. unpasteurized milk 10. puppies with diarrhea 11. bloody diarrhea 12. Guillian-barre syndrome (ascending paralysis) 13. Reiter's syndrome or reactive arthritis

Answer 118

1. cannot make ATP 2. cell wall lacks muramic acid 3. giemsa stain 4. elementary body infects 5. intraepithelial 6. reticulate body replicates 7 inclusion bodies 8. doxycycline 9. azithromycin

Answer 119

1. A to C 2. Trachoma 3. Follicular conjunctivitis 4. causes blindness 5. Africa 6. L1 to 3 7. Lymphogranuloma venereum 8. buboes 9. genital ulcer 10. D to K 11. Urethritis and PID 12. Neonatal pneumonia 13. Staccato cough 14. Neonatal conjunctivitis

Answer 120

1. Type III glycogen storage disease 2. Debranching enzyme 3. Alpha 1,6 glucosidase 4. normal blood lactic acid levels 5. hepatomegaly 6. stunted growth 7. hypoglycemia

Answer 121

1. rickettsia 2. no arthropod vector 3. no rash 4. negative weil felix 5. cattle placenta 6. Q fever 7. Pneumonia 8 Flu like symptoms

Answer 122

1. gram negative 2. bacilli 3. purple colony with metallic green sheen 4. lactose fermenting 5. pink on macconkey agar 6. diarrhea 7. lipid A septic shock 8. P pili pyelonephritis and cystitis 9. K capsule neonatal meningitis 10. k capsule pneumonia 11. H antigen flagella

Answer 123

1. hamburger meat 2. O157:H7 3. Produces shiga like toxin 4. Inactivates 60s ribosome 5. bloody diarrhea 6. hemolytic uremic syndrome 7. hemolytic anemia 8. acute renal failure 9. thrombocytopenia 10. lysogeny 11. non sorbitol fermenting

Answer 124

1. gram negative 2. bacilli 3. fever 4. lymphadenopathy 5. deer fly 6. dermacentor wood tick 7. rabbit skinning

Answer 125

1. bacterial vaginosis 2. not an STD 3. Fishy smell 4. Whiff test 5. Grey vaginal discharge 6. Increase pH 7. Clue cells 8. squamous epithelial cells covered with bacteria 9. Mobiluncus coinfection 10. Metronidazole

Answer 126

1. gram negative bacteria 2. coccobacilli 3. pleomorphic 4. parallel short chains 5. School of fish appearance on gram stain 6. chancroid 7. painful genital ulcer 8. buboes 9. azithromycin 10 ceftriaxone

Answer 127

1. gram negative 2. coccobacilli 3. PRP capsule in type B 4. Quellung 5. IgA protease 6. Chocolate agar 7. Factor V is NAD 8. Factor X is hematin 9. Staph aureus provides factor V

Answer 128

1. pneumonia 2. meningitis 3. otitis media 4. cherry red epiglottitis 5. thumb print sight 6. COPD exacerbation 7. Ceftriaxone 8. Rifampin

Answer 129

1. gram negative 2. bacilli 3. Curved 4. polar flagellum 5. gastric and duodenal ulcers 6. ammonia 7. alkaline 8. gastic adenocarcinoma 9. MALT lymphoma 10. serology IgG antibody 11. stool antigen 12. Urease positive breath test 13. biopsy 14. 2 ABX and PPI

Answer 130

1. Gram negative 2. bacilli 3. intestinal flora 4. polysaccharide capsule 5. antiphagocytic virulence factor 6. positive quellung reaction 7. oxidase negative 8. fast lactose fermenter 9. Macconkey agar pink 10. mucoid colonies

Answer 131

1. Aspiration pneumonia 2. alcoholics 3. diabetics 4. red currant jelly sputum 5. lung abscess 6. nosocomial UTI

Answer 132

1. Bacilli 2. Poor gram stain 3. charcoal yeast with rion and cysteine 4. Silver stain 5. Water sources 6. smokers and heavy drinkers 7. Detect antigen in urine

Answer 133

1. high fever 2. diarrhea 3. increase liver enzyme 4. hyponatremia 5. tupe IV renal tubular acidosis 6. severe atypical pneumonia 7. pontiac fever 8. Fluoroquinolones 9. Macrolides

Answer 134

1. Type V glycogen storage disease 2. Muscle glycogen phosphorylase 3. increased glycogen in muscle 4. painful muscle cramps 5. myoglobinuria 6. normal lactic acid

Answer 135

1. no cell wall and no gram stain 2. Cholesterol membrane 3. Eatons agar 4. fried egg colonies 5. atypical pneumonia 6. military recruits 7. Cold IgM autoimmune hemolytic anemia 8. Erythema multiforme 9. Tetracycline 10. Erythromycin

Answer 136

1. Gram negative 2. diplococci 3. chocolate agar 4. thayer martin media 5. VPN 6. Oxidase positive 7. Glucose fermenting 8. Pilus 9. Opa surface protein 10. rapid antigenic variation 11. IgA protease

Answer 137

1. Dysuria 2. Pelvic inflammatory disease 3. Fitz hugh Curtis syndrome 4. Neonatal conjunctivitis 5. Pharyngitis 6. Septic arthritis 7. tenosynovitis 8. Pustules on hands and feet 9. Susceptible when C 6-9 complement def 10. Ceftriaxone 11. Doxycycline 12. Azithromycin

Answer 138

1. gram negative 2. diplococci 3. chocolate agar 4. Thayer martin media 5. VPN 6. Oxidase postive 7. Glucose fermenting 8. Maltose fermentation 9. Endotoxin 10. Polysaccharide capsule 11. antiphagocytic 12. IgA protease 13. Waterhouse friderichsen syndrome 14. Adrenal insufficiency 15. Petechial rash 16. Ceftriaxone 17. Rifampin prophylaxis

Answer 139

1. Type II glycogen storage disease 2. Lysosomal alpha 1,4 glucosidase 3. Acid maltase 4. Heptaomegaly 5. Cardiomegaly 6. hyptonic 7. normal blood glucose

Answer 140

1. Gram negative 2. Bacilli 3. Aerobic 4. Pyocyanin pigment 5. Blue green pigment 6. Grape like odor 7. Non lactose fermenting 8. Oxidase positive 9. catalase positive 10. Polysaccharide capsule 11. Endotoxin 12. exotoxin A 13. Inactivates elongation factor 2 14. Water source

Answer 141

1. Pneumonia 2. Cystic fibrosis 3. burn wounds 4. hot tub folliculitis 5. urinary tract infection 6. osteomyelitis associated with IV drug use 7. Puncture wound through shoes osteomyelitis 8. Diabetic osteomyelitis 9. COrneal infections in contact lens users 10. Endocarditis 11. Ecthyma gangrenosum

Answer 142

1. Need CoA and NAD 2. Rocky Mountain spotted fever 3. Typhus 4. Ehrlichiosis 5. Q fever atypical 6. Arthropod vector 7. Fever 8. Headache 9. Rash 10. Weil felix reaction 11. treatment doxycycline

Answer 143

1. Rickettsia rickettsii 2. Dermacentor wood tick 3. Endemic to east coast 4. Fever 5. Headache 6. Rash starts on wrist and ankle 7. migrates towards trunk 8. Thrombocytopenia 9. Hyponatremia 10. Elevated liver enzymes

Answer 144

1. Flagella 2. Gram negative 3. Bacilli 4. Oxidase negative 5. non lactose fermenting 6. MacConkey agar white 7. Hydrogen sulfide producing 8. animal reservoir chicken and turtles 9. Bloody diarrhea 10. Produces monocytic response 11. Do not give antibiotic 12. Osteomyelitis in sickle cell patient

Answer 145

1. Typhoid fever 2. Peyers patches 3. Rose spots on abdomen 4. stored in gall bladder 5. osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients

Answer 146

1. Gram negative 2. bacilli 3. non lactose fermenting 4. white on mac conkey agar 5. oxidase negative 6. Non h2s producing 7. Day care centers 8. High virulence 9. Replicates intracellularly 10 actin rocket 11. bloody diarrhea 12. shiga toxin 13. inhibits 60s ribosome 14. hemolytic uremic syndrome 15. hemolytic anemia 16. thrombocytopenia 17. kidney failure

Answer 147

1. treponema pallidum 2. Spirochete with characteristic motility 3. painless chancre 4. condylomata lata 5. generalized lymphadenopathy 6. rash on palms and soles 7. aortitis 8. gummas 9. Neurosyphilis 10. argyll robertson pupils 11. vasa vasorum 12. tabes dorsalis 13. penicillin 14. Jarisch herxheimer

Answer 148

1. Gram negative 2. Bacilli 3. Glucose fermenting 4. Non lactose fermenting 5. Oxidase positive 6. Comma shaped 7. Thrives in alkaline environment 8. From crustaceans

Answer 149

1. ADP ribosylating AB toxin 2. Turn Gs on causing increase in cAMP 3. Secretion of Cl 4. Blocks reabsorption of Na 5. Rice water diarrhea

Answer 150

1. Type 1 glycogen storage disease 2. Glucose 6 phosphatase 3. Severe hypoglycemia 4. Increased glycogen in liver 5. Increased blood lactic acid 6. hepatomegaly 7. Enlarged kidneys

Answer 151

1. Gram negative 2. Bacilli 3. Pork 4. Raw milk 5. Pet feces 6. day care centers 7. bloody diarrhea 8. Mesenteric adenitis 9. Granulomatous microabscess in mesenteric lymph nodes 10. mimic appendicitis 11. reiter's syndrome / reactive arthritis

Answer 152

1. Gram negative 2. Coccobacilli 3. Prairie dogs 4. Southwest region 5. Fleas 6. Polysaccharide capsule 7. F1 antigen 8. VW antigen 9. Inhibits macrophages 10. lymphadenopathy 11. Buboes 12. pneumonia 13. Black cutaneous hemorrhagic lesions

Picmonic Flashcards

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