Pleural Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

What percentage of patients in a prospective trial experienced an improvement in dyspnea with thoracentesis?

A

73% of patients experienced an improvement in dyspnea.

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2
Q

In patients with a large pleural effusion, what symptom, besides dyspnea, may be caused by the distortion of the lung with volume loss?

A

Cough.

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3
Q

Pain fibers responsible for pleuritic chest pain are primarily located in the _____ pleura, but are also recognized in the visceral pleura and adhesions.

A

parietal

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4
Q

What is the approximate annual incidence of malignant pleural effusions in the United States?

A

200,000 cases per year.

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of transudative pleural effusions?

A

Congestive heart failure (CHF).

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6
Q

When should a diagnostic thoracentesis be performed on a patient with free pleural fluid?

A

When the fluid measures more than 10 mm on a lateral decubitus film, ultrasound, or chest CT scan.

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7
Q

Under what conditions should thoracentesis be performed without delay in a patient with suspected CHF-related effusion?

A

If the patient is febrile, has pleuritic chest pain, or if the effusions are not of comparable size on both sides.

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8
Q

A pleural fluid NT-proBNP level greater than _____ is 94% sensitive and 91% specific for a CHF-related effusion.

A

1500 pg/mL

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9
Q

If a patient appears to have a transudative effusion clinically but meets exudative criteria, how can a transudative etiology be verified using serum and pleural fluid protein concentrations?

A

If the difference between the serum and pleural fluid protein concentration exceeds 3.1 g/dL.

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10
Q

A reduced pleural fluid glucose level (<60 mg/dL) narrows the diagnostic possibilities to what seven conditions?

A

Parapneumonic effusion, malignant effusion, tuberculous effusion, rheumatoid effusion, hemothorax, paragonimiasis, or eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA).

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11
Q

In a patient with a parapneumonic effusion, a pleural fluid glucose level less than _____ should prompt consideration for tube thoracostomy.

A

40 mg/dL (2.22 mmol/L)

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12
Q

Most patients with pleural effusion secondary to systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) will have a pleural fluid glucose level greater than what value?

A

80 mg/dL (4.44 mmol/L).

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13
Q

A pleural fluid white blood cell count greater than _____ is most common with empyemas and parapneumonic effusions.

A

$10,000/\mu L$

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14
Q

What are the three most common causes of exudative pleural effusions?

A

Pneumonia, malignancy, and pulmonary embolism.

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15
Q

What is the best screening test for lupus pleuritis?

A

Measurement of the antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer in the pleural fluid.

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16
Q

What is the recommended imaging modality for distinguishing a parenchymal lung abscess from an empyema with an air-fluid level?

A

Chest CT with contrast enhancement.

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17
Q

Which imaging modality is currently less satisfactory than ultrasound or CT for evaluating pleural effusions due to limitations from respiratory and cardiac motion?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).

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18
Q

For which two diagnoses is a closed-needle biopsy of the pleura most useful?

A

Malignant and tuberculous pleural effusions.

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19
Q

In diagnosing tuberculous pleuritis, combining histology and culture from a closed pleural biopsy can achieve a sensitivity as high as what percentage?

A

0.92

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20
Q

The demonstration of _____ on a pleural biopsy is virtually diagnostic of tuberculous pleuritis.

A

granulomas

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21
Q

In a patient with suspected malignant pleural effusion, a prudent approach is to obtain a pleural biopsy only if the _____ obtained at the initial thoracentesis is nondiagnostic.

A

cytology

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22
Q

For a patient with a pleural effusion that remains undiagnosed after thoracentesis and needle biopsy, in whom malignancy is strongly suspected, what is the recommended procedure?

A

Thoracoscopy.

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23
Q

Diuretic use in a patient with CHF can cause a transudative effusion to meet Light’s criteria for an exudate. How can the transudative origin be confirmed using albumin levels?

A

If the serum minus the pleural fluid albumin concentration is greater than 1.2 g/dL.

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24
Q

What is the treatment of choice for a patient with refractory hepatic hydrothorax?

A

Liver transplantation.

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25
What is the second-best approach for refractory hepatic hydrothorax if liver transplantation is not feasible?
Implantation of a transjugular intrahepatic portal systemic shunt (TIPS).
26
What is spontaneous bacterial pleuritis?
By definition, it is an infection of a preexisting hepatic hydrothorax in which a parapneumonic infection has been excluded.
27
A diagnosis of spontaneous bacterial pleuritis is made if the pleural fluid culture is positive and the pleural fluid neutrophil count is greater than _____ cells/μL.
250
28
In a patient with esophageal rupture, the elevated amylase found in the pleural fluid originates from where?
The salivary glands.
29
The key to diagnosing a chronic pancreatic pleural effusion is a markedly elevated pleural fluid amylase level, which is generally greater than what value?
1000 U/L.
30
How can a malignant effusion with elevated amylase be differentiated from one caused by pancreatic disease?
By measuring amylase isoenzymes, as the amylase in malignant effusions is primarily of the salivary type.
31
The pleural fluid in a patient with an intra-abdominal abscess is an exudate with predominantly _____.
polymorphonuclear leukocytes
32
If a pleural effusion develops more than _____ hours after abdominal surgery, alternative explanations like PE or intra-abdominal abscess must be sought.
72
33
How is a bilious pleural effusion diagnosed based on laboratory analysis of the pleural fluid?
By demonstrating that the ratio of pleural fluid to serum bilirubin is greater than 1.0.
34
What are the characteristic pleural fluid findings in rheumatoid pleuritis?
A glucose level < 30 mg/dL, a high LDH level, a low pH (< 7.20), and a high rheumatoid factor titer (>1:320).
35
What is the term for the elongated macrophages with tadpole-like tails seen in the pleural fluid of patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
Comet-tail cells.
36
IgG4-related pleural effusion presents as a lymphocytic exudate, often with a positive ADA, and thus can be mistaken for what other condition?
A tuberculous effusion.
37
A pleural effusion secondary to asbestos exposure is frequently _____ an exudate with pleural fluid eosinophilia.
eosinophilic
38
Post–cardiac injury syndrome (PCIS), or Dressler syndrome, is characterized by a combination of pericarditis, pleuritis, and _____.
pneumonitis
39
Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is one of the more common causes of pleural effusions, with approximately _____% of patients developing a significant effusion in the subsequent month.
10
40
What is the term for the syndrome consisting of the triad of deformed yellow nails, lymphedema, and pleural effusions?
Yellow nail syndrome.
41
What is the basic abnormality responsible for yellow nail syndrome?
Hypoplasia or decreased function of the lymphatic vessels.
42
What is the term for a stable, chronic pleural effusion that occurs when a thickened visceral pleura prevents the lung from re-expanding?
Trapped lung.
43
During a therapeutic thoracentesis, a rapid fall in pleural pressure (greater than 14 to 15 cm H2O/L removed) suggests what diagnosis?
Trapped lung.
44
What are the three overlapping stages in the evolution of a pleural infection?
The exudative stage, the fibrinopurulent stage, and the organizing stage.
45
In community-acquired pleural infections, what bacterial species group is most frequently identified, especially with nucleic acid amplification techniques?
The Streptococcus anginosus group (formerly Streptococcus milleri).
46
A low _____ level has been consistently shown to be a marker of poor outcome in patients with pleural infection.
albumin
47
Chest tube drainage for a parapneumonic effusion is usually indicated if the pleural fluid pH is less than _____ or the glucose is less than 40 mg/dL.
7.2
48
The MIST2 trial demonstrated that for pleural infection, a combination of a _____ agent and a _____ was effective, whereas monotherapy with either agent was not.
fibrinolytic; DNase
49
Historically, it was thought that tuberculous pleuritis was caused by a delayed _____ reaction to mycobacterial antigens.
hypersensitivity
50
What is the term for a spontaneous pneumothorax that arises without preceding trauma or injury?
Spontaneous pneumothorax.
51
A primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP) develops in patients with apparently 'normal' lungs, whereas a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax (SSP) develops in patients with _____.
known lung disease
52
According to British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines, a pneumothorax in patients older than 50 years or with a significant smoking history should be labeled as _____.
secondary spontaneous pneumothorax (SSP)
53
What is the classic body shape associated with patients who develop a primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP)?
Tall and thin (ectomorphic).
54
A _____ is defined as an outpouching of the visceral pleura less than 1 cm in diameter, while a _____ is an airspace measuring greater than 1 cm.
bleb; bulla
55
The concept that air leakage in PSP may be due to diffuse areas of abnormal visceral pleura, rather than solely from bleb/bulla rupture, is known as _____.
pleural porosity
56
Overexpression of what group of zinc- and calcium-dependent endopeptidases, such as MMP-2 and MMP-9, has been implicated in the pathogenesis of PSP?
Matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs).
57
What medical emergency develops when a one-way valve leak in the visceral pleura causes progressive increases in intrapleural pressure, leading to hemodynamic compromise?
Tension pneumothorax.
58
What is the immediate intervention required for a tension pneumothorax?
Urgent decompression with a cannula placed anteriorly in the second intercostal space in the midclavicular line.
59
According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), what is the definition of a large pneumothorax on a chest radiograph?
Greater than 2 cm of air between the lung margin and the chest wall, measured at the level of the hilum.
60
What is the term for unilateral pulmonary edema that may develop after rapid reinflation of a collapsed lung?
Reexpansion pulmonary edema (RPE).
61
A prolonged air leak (PAL) is typically defined as an ongoing leak despite _____ to _____ days of chest tube drainage.
5; 7
62
What is the term for the surgical procedure that involves insufflation of talc into the pleural space to induce pleurodesis?
Talc poudrage.
63
The instillation of 1 to 2 mL/kg of autologous venous blood into the pleural space via a chest tube to resolve a prolonged air leak is known as _____.
blood patch pleurodesis
64
What is the term for a pneumothorax that is detectable on CT but not on a chest radiograph?
Occult pneumothorax.
65
What is a leading cause of iatrogenic pneumothorax?
Transthoracic needle aspiration or CT-guided transthoracic lung biopsy.
66
What is the term for a recurrent pneumothorax that develops in conjunction with menstruation?
Catamenial pneumothorax.
67
Catamenial pneumothorax is often associated with the presence of _____ on the diaphragm or visceral pleura.
endometriosis
68
The thoracic duct normally conveys how much chyle daily?
1500 to 2500 mL.
69
Thrombosis of which two veins can lead to chylothorax due to increased venous pressure and obstruction of chyle flow?
The superior vena cava (SVC) or subclavian vein.
70
What are the two main categories of causes for chylothorax?
Traumatic (iatrogenic and non-iatrogenic) and nontraumatic.
71
What is the diagnostic criterion for chylothorax based on pleural fluid triglyceride levels?
A triglyceride concentration greater than 110 mg/dL.
72
The presence of what particles in the pleural fluid confirms the diagnosis of chylothorax?
Chylomicrons.
73
Conservative management of chylothorax includes dietary modification, specifically a low-fat diet supplemented with what type of triglycerides?
Medium-chain triglycerides (MCTs).
74
What is the image-guided procedure designed to occlude the thoracic duct to stop a chyle leak?
Thoracic duct embolization (TDE).
75
If interventional radiology procedures fail, what surgical approach should be considered as a last resort to stop a chyle leak?
Thoracic duct ligation (TDL).
76
What is a pseudochylothorax?
A cholesterol-rich pleural effusion that develops in a long-standing pleural space, often due to chronic inflammation.
77
The demonstration of _____ with a typical rhomboid appearance in pleural fluid is considered confirmatory for pseudochylothorax.
cholesterol crystals
78
What are the two most common underlying diseases associated with pseudochylothorax?
Tuberculosis (TB) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
79
The term _____ refers to an irreducible pleural space caused by a restrictive visceral pleural rind, endobronchial obstruction, or prolonged atelectasis.
unexpandable lung (or nonexpandable lung)
80
What is the difference between trapped lung and lung entrapment?
Trapped lung refers to fixed, established fibrosis from a resolved insult, whereas lung entrapment refers to restriction from an active process like inflammation or malignancy that may be reversible.
81
The term _____ refers to fibrotic fusion of the visceral and parietal pleural layers, resulting in complete obliteration of the pleural cavity.
fibrothorax
82
What rare, upper zone–predominant fibrotic lung condition is associated with visceral pleural thickening and may present with recurrent pneumothoraces?
Pleuroparenchymal fibroelastosis (PPFE).
83
What is the definition of a hemothorax based on the pleural fluid hematocrit?
A pleural fluid hematocrit that is greater than 50% of the patient's peripheral blood hematocrit.
84
Expert opinion suggests surgical intervention for hemothorax is needed if the acute blood loss upon chest tube placement is _____ or more.
1500 mL
85
Surgical intervention for hemothorax is recommended if there is persistent drainage of _____ or more over 3 to 4 hours.
250 mL
86
In a patient with a malignant pleural effusion (MPE), what are the four CT findings highly specific for malignancy?
Circumferential pleural thickening, nodular pleural thickening, parietal pleural thickening > 1 cm, and mediastinal pleural involvement.
87
For patients with an MPE, what are the two main 'definitive' treatment options for long-term symptom control?
Pleurodesis or placement of an indwelling pleural catheter (IPC).
88
Pleurodesis is only feasible if the underlying lung expands sufficiently to allow contact between the _____ and _____ pleural surfaces.
visceral; parietal
89
What is the guideline-recommended treatment option for patients with MPE and a nonexpandable (trapped) lung?
An indwelling pleural catheter (IPC).
90
Malignant mesothelioma is a universally fatal malignancy originating from _____ surfaces, most commonly affecting the pleura.
serosal
91
What is the primary etiologic agent responsible for malignant mesothelioma?
Asbestos exposure.
92
What FDA-approved biomarker, measured in serum or pleural fluid, can be elevated in mesothelioma?
Soluble mesothelin-related protein (mesothelin).
93
Primary effusion lymphoma is associated with systemic immunosuppression from HIV and is caused by _____, while pyothorax-associated lymphoma is associated with chronic inflammation and the _____ virus.
human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8); Epstein-Barr
94
rate of reduction of pneumothorax once on O2 support
4.8x18cm2