Pointers Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

What five systems BITE’s are carried out from the FMC?

A

FMCS
DFCS
A/T
ADIRS
FQIS

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2
Q

From where is the multi-function panel powered from?

A

DC standby bus

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3
Q

Where is the maintenance/bite panel powered from? (P61)

A

DC bus 2

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4
Q

Hydraulic pressure information for system A is fed to which DPC?

A

DPC 1

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5
Q

Hydraulic pressure information for system B is fed to which DPC?

A

DPC 2

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6
Q

What are the symbols displayed on the OMD for each of the selectors?

A

Captains = Square w/ cross
F/O = Double cross
P61 = Crossed Wrenches

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7
Q

What does the amber message “DISPLAY CONTROL PANEL” on the PFD indicate?

A

A failure of the on-side EFIS control panel

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8
Q

What does the amber message “DISPLAY SOURCE 1” on the PFD indicate?

A

That only DPC 2 is providing information and there is a failure with source 1

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9
Q

Where do the remote light sensors receive their power from, and what voltage?

A

The RLS’s receive 15vdc from the respective outboard DU’s

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10
Q

What four systems are available on the OMD MAINT CTRL PGS?

A

Airplane config data
Misc system controls
Latched message erase
MAINT light

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11
Q

How many flight legs of data can the NFS hold?

A

200 flight legs

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12
Q

The NSP light on the face of the NFS LRU is off, what does this indicate?

A

The device is off or not receiving power

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13
Q

The NSP light on the face of the NFS LRU is quickly blinking, what does this indicate?

A

The system is booting up

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14
Q

The NSP light on the face of the NFS LRU is blinking slowly, what does this indicate?

A

The system is operating correctly

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15
Q

The NSP light on the face of the NFS LRU is blinking periodically, what does this indicate?

A

A reset has been performed and the system is restarting

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16
Q

The NSP light on the face of the NFS LRU is on solid, what does this indicate?

A

There has been a failure

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17
Q

How is IDG oil cooled on the LEAP 1B?

A

It is cooled by an air oil cooler only.

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18
Q

What would indicate an internal blockage in the air oil cooler and how is it rectified?

A

You would notice a high oil temperature indication, internal bypass valves within the cooler bypass blockages

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19
Q

What are the changes in relation to location of fuel pumps?

A

All fuel pumps are now located on the AFT spar?

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20
Q

Where is the FQPU located?

A

In the FWD cargo

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21
Q

What does the amber CONFIG message indicate?

A

That fuel is in the centre tanks but the pumps are de-energised.

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22
Q

An amber FUEL DISAGREE message means?

A

There is a disagree in fuel QTY between the FMC 2 and the FQPU

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23
Q

What does the amber INSUFFICIENT FUEL message indicate?

A

You will have less than 2000lbs (907kg) in the tanks when arriving at your destination

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24
Q

What does the amber USING RSV FUEL on the EICAS indicate?

A

You are now using the preselected reserve fuel set on the FMC

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25
When the taxi light sw is in the ON position, what LRU gives it an ON signal?
It is energised by the R444 relay through the PSEU upon receiving a down and locked signal.
26
Where would you find the transformers for tail strobe lights?
In the section 48, stab bay
27
How many anti-collision lights are there?
6 2 red, 4 white
28
How does the landing gear selector value receive its input?
Electrically, through the PSEU
29
What are the differences in the nose landing gear?
It is 8 inches taller and there is a broken cable compensator
30
How do you manually override the landing lever solenoid?
The push button located on the P2
31
What degree of deflection can be achieved using the rudder pedals?
6 degrees
32
Why do we no longer require the OFF detent on the landing gear lever?
The uplock sensors provide an UP signal to the PSEU which removes power from the landing gear actuators.
33
How many connectors are on the PSEU and, how are they split between one and two?
There are 7 connectors in total. 4 for PSEU one and 3 for PSEU two.
34
How many gear on ground sensors are there?
4, two per gear.
35
How many gear on ground switches are required to be activated in order to energise the lever lock solenoid?
Any two
36
How many uplock sensors are there?
6
37
Where’s the landing gear transfer valve located?
On the keel beam
38
Where’s the landing gear selector valve located?
FWD UPR left main wheel well.
39
How does the landing gear selector valve receive its input?
Through the UP or DOWN solenoid valve.
40
Where is the NOSE WHEEL STEER ALT switch located?
On the P2
41
What is the purpose of the broken cable compensator?
If a nose wheel steering cable breaks, it centres the gear, preventing it from turning.
42
How does the aircraft know when it is appropriate to deploy GND spoilers?
The AACU provides wheel speed data to the SCE (wheel SPD above 60kts)
43
Where has the autobreak selector switch been relocated to?
The P9
44
How are the capt’s and f/o’s control columns linked?
With two control cables
45
What is located in the control wheel transducer and where does it provide its signal to?
3 RDVT’s which provide signal to the SCE (Rotary Variable Differential Transformer)
46
Where is the control wheel transducer located?
Under the first officers control column
47
How are the spoilers controlled?
Electrically control and hydraulically actuated.
48
Where does the SCE get power from?
It is powered by 28vdc from bus 1/2
49
How many lines of information are provided to the SCE?
3 digital, 1 analog
50
Can you dispatch the aircraft with one spoiler INOP?
Yes but, the corresponding spoiler must also be disabled. You cannot INOP spoiler #5 or #8
51
How many control laws operate in the SCE?
7
52
Lateral control in the SCE does….?
It uses the flight spoilers to assist the ailerons in flight
53
Speedbrake lever mixing in the SCE does….?
It mixes control wheel position and speedbrake handle position (When spoilers are used during a turn)
54
What is the purpose of the weight estimator control law?
It uses information from the aircraft in order to provide the SCE with an estimated weight to be used in Manoeuvre Load Alleviation and the Landing Attitude Modifier
55
What is Manoeuvre Load Alleviation?
This lowers the flight spoilers in order to reduce load and prevent damage during some manoeuvres
56
What is the landing attitude modifier?
This adjusts the position of the spoilers in order to assist the pilot in capturing the glide
57
What is Direct Lift Control?
DLC is activated by pressing the elevator jam landing assist switch. It assists the pilots fly in the event of an elevator jam.
58
What conditions must be met in order to activate DLC?
ELEV JAM ASSIST sw to ON Altitude above 200ft Flaps greater than 1 A/P disconnected
59
What is the function of Emergency Descent Spoilers?
The EDS function helps the aircraft descend rapidly during a sudden decompression
60
What conditions must be met in order to activate EDS?
Aircraft altitude greater than 30,000ft Cabin altitude greater than 10,000ft The speedbrake handle is in the flight detent position
61
The SPOILER light comes on when the SCE detects faults with which components?
Control wheel position transducer Speedbrake lever position transducer Spoiler actuator Ground spoiler control module SCE
62
Where is the ground spoiler control module located?
Upper right hand corner of the main wheel well
63
Where is the Spoiler Control Electriconic’s LRU?
The E3-2
64
What conditions must be met to deploy speed brakes automatically on touchdown?
Speedbrake must be ARMED. R/A must read less then 6ft. MLG must be compressed. Throttles at idle. Wheel speed under 60kts.
65
What conditions must be met for automatic spoilers to deploy during an RTO?
Wheel speed greater then 60kts Thrust at idle
66
What brings on the feel differential light?
When there’s a difference of hydraulic pressure between system A and B of 25% for 30 seconds.
67
What is the purpose of the solenoid in the feel differential computer?
It alleviates pressure on the control column for the first 7 seconds of flight.
68
What triggers a takeoff warning configuration light?
Mid/overwing exits open
69
What conditions must be met for MCAS to operate?
A/P off, Flaps up, Not commanding stab position.
70
If the difference between both AOA sensors is more than ___, MCAS will not activate.
5.5 degrees
71
When does the speed trim system operate?
It operates when the aircraft is at low weight, c/g is aft, high thrust and A/P is disengaged.
72
The AOA Split vane monitor checks for what conditions and what are the results?
It checks for a 5.5 degree split, if detected, both STS and MCAS will be deactivated.
73
When will you get an AOA disagree message on the PFD?
When the difference in AOA sensors is greater than 10° for 10 seconds
74
What brings on the speed trim light?
When both FCC’s fail
75
What are the four characteristics that will disable STS?
MCAS maximum command limit monitor Software column AOA split monitor Cross FCC trim monitors
76
What five functions can the IMMR carry out?
It controls ILS GPS GLS VOR MARKER BEACON
77
How do you carry out a bite test of the IMMR?
The push button on the LRU and the test button on the nav control panel
78
Where are the IMMR’s located?
E1-2, E1-4.
79
Where is the weather radar receiver/ transmitter located?
In the nose radome
80
Where is the WXR processor located?
The E1-2 rack
81
Where does the landing gear lever lock solenoid receive power from?
It receives 28vdc from the battery bus
82
Where can you find the APU oil QTY info?
OMF MAINT data pages
83
Where do you find the limited restart function for the APU?
Onbd MAINT, other functions, special functions
84
How do you power the APU ECU for maintenance purposes?
MAINT CTRL PGS, MISC
85
What brings on the APU DOOR light?
A disagreement between the APU ECU and the actual door position
86
What six protective shutdowns will prevent the APU from restarting until appropriately reset?
Inlet door shutdown Fire shutdown ECU shutdown Loss of EGT Starter generator rotating diode fault Overspeed protection
87
Where do you carry out a BITE of the PSEU?
Onboard maintenance, line maintenance, ground tests
88
In relation to selecting landing gear lever position, The down signal goes to… The up signal goes to….
Down goes straight to the landing gear selector valve Up goes vis the PSEU
89
How do you put the aircraft into air mode?
Onboard maintenance, other functions, special functions, PSEU
90
Where is the flap position indicator located?
On the EICAS, capt inbd
91
Where is the control wheel position transmitter located?
Under the F/O’s control column
92
How does the SCE get feedback from the spoilers?
Through a LVDT
93
The engine indicating (El) format is normaly displayed on the
Captains inboard DU
94
Which of the following data bus is used by the Display Processing Computer (DPCs) to send display data to the display units?
ARINC 818
95
Which of the following pushbutton switch is used to show N1/SPD REF SET page on the display?
Info push button
96
The Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) air/oil coolers decrease the oil temperature using
Fan air
97
Which of the following exterior lights has an auto position?
Taxi light
98
Which of the following controls the UP solenoid of the landing gear selector/bypass valve?
PSEU
99
When all the three landing gears are up-and-locked for more than 10 seconds, the proximity switch electronics unit (PSEU):
de-energizes the up solenoids in the landing gear selector/bypass valve.
100
When does the proximity switch electronics unit (PSEU) energizes the landing gear lever lock solenoid?
when the aircraft in air mode and the landing gear control lever is down.
101
Which of the following LRUs are connected to the NFS through an ethernet connection?
DPC and FMC
102
The flight leg logic is calculated by the
NFS
103
The INBOUND FLIGHT DECK EFFECTS menu in the onboard maintenance function (OMF) shows the default view of
correlated maintenance messages for the inbound flight leg 0
104
The hardware part number, serial number and software part number of the selective Line replaceable units (LRUs) is shown on the:
Line Maintenance > System Configuration
105
Where is the NFS located?
The E4 rack
106
Which of the following flight spoiler pair is non-dispatchable?
#5 & #8
107
Where is the weather radar processor located?
E1 rack
108
When does the the maneuvering characteristics augmentation system (MCAS) function is disabled?
the angle of attack (AOA) split is above 5.5 degrees.
109
If the maneuvering characteristics augmentation system (MCAS) function is disabled, the following light illuminate on flight control panel (PS):
SPEED TRIM FAIL light
110
Which of the following function in the speed trim system has higher priority?
MCAS
111
The PSEU has the following special function on the on board Maintenance system…
Air/ Ground override
112
What is the location of the broken cable compensator assembly?
The front of the nose landing gear
113
In the direct lift function, the amber ASSIST ON light (P5) comes on for the following condition:
Alt above 200 A/P off Flaps out Elevator jam assist ON
114
How does the SCE receive position feedback from the speed brake actuators?
Through LVDT
115
When does the AOA split vein monitor in the trim system become active?
116
What is the function of the maximum command limit monitor in the MCAS system?
117
When does the insufficient fuel message show on the EICAS?
118
Which of the following APU protective shutdowns causes an APU start inhibit?
Starter/generator rotating diode fault