Part 2 Writtens > PPs > Flashcards

PPs Flashcards

(75 cards)

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1
Q

College criteria for maculopathy

A
  • exudate within 1DD of the centre of the fovea
  • group of exudates >/1/2DD within the macular area
  • retinal thickening within 1DD of the fovea
  • any microaneurysm/haem within 1DD of the fovea if vision worse than or equal to 6/12
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2
Q

investigation of birdshot

A

ICG is more sensitive in early disease

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3
Q

Lens power equation

A

L = A = (2.5xAL) - (0.9xK)

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4
Q

Normal fusional ranges for near and distance

A

Near
convergent 32PD
divergent 16PD

Distance
convergent 16PD
divergent 8PD

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5
Q

with the rule vs against the rule astigmatism

A

with the rule vertical steepers

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6
Q

Risk factors for CIN

A

UV light, HIV, HPV, xerophthalmia, exposure to petrolium products, smoking

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7
Q

where is the lesion in webers

A

medial midbrain

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8
Q

lateral medullary syndrome (wallenberg):

typical artery
symptoms/signs

A

Typically caused by posterior inferior cerebellar arter occlusion

ipsilateral: Horners, cerebellar signs, palatal paralysis, pain and temp sens in the face

contralateral: pain/temp sensation body

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9
Q

increased risk of patent ductus arteriosis with which congenital infection

A

rubella

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10
Q

treatment for CMV retinitis

A

900mg valaciclovir PO

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11
Q

bests retinal changes

A

homogenous hyperreflextice material in the subretinal space replaced over time by clear fluid which appears hyporeflective

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12
Q

which white syndrome has this highest risk of developing CNV

A

Punctate inner choroiditis

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13
Q

what causes moores lighting streaks

A

shock waves in the vitreous

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14
Q

Causes of electronegative ERG

A

X Night BOMB
X linked retinoschisis
Nighttime blindness
Battens
Ogushi/occlusion
MAR
Birdshot

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15
Q

MOA and use of pyridostigmine

A

reversible cholinesterase inhibitior used for treatment of MG

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16
Q

a drug that can increase lacrimal gland function

A

pilocarpine

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17
Q

summary of quickerts procedure

A

lid split and wedge resection

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18
Q

conditions you can get band keratopathy

A

sarcoidosis and JIA

hypercalcaemia, hyperphophataemia, hyperuricaemia, silicone oil

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19
Q

when to use MALE technique with squint surgery

A

in alphabet poatterns when there is no significant torsion

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20
Q

causes of bulls eye

A

chloroquine, clofazine, stargardts, cone dystrophy, battens diseas

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21
Q

SO tuck does what to the SO

A

improves its function/strengthens it

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22
Q

RP electrodiagnostic changes

A

initially A wave then B wave, with normal EOG

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23
Q

different enzymes for galactosemia type 1 and 2

A

type 1 G1PUT deficiency (oil drop catartact, low IQ, failure to thrive)

type 2 galactokinase (cataract only)

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24
Q

granulomatous uveitic iris nodules

A

koeppe pupil margin
busacca periphery

sarcoid, TB

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25
stains for lipid
oil red A sudan black
26
causes of hyperostosis
meningioma, osteosarcoma, mets
27
causes of low ESR
polycythaemia, sickle cell, heart failure, clotted, cachexia, low fibrogen
28
causes of high ESR
inflammation, infection, pregnancy, age, anaemia, kidney disease, malignancy
29
common side effects of MEK inhibitors
RVOs, dry eye, uveitis
30
MOA of rivaroxaban
inhibits factor Xa
31
what does synoptophore measure
angles of deviation and fusional ability
32
only common test that cant test below 100 seconds of arc
Lang
33
incontentia pigmenti (block sulzberger)
x linked dominent, lethal for boys in utero, NEMO gene, akin to ROP, TRD, abnormal teeth and CNS, blue sclera, cataract
34
how does beta blockers work as a treatment for capillary haemangiomas
Vasoconstriction Inhibit VEGF Induce apoptosis of capillary endothelial cells
35
ICE
unilateral, abnormal corneal endothelium migrates across the angle, fine guttata, correctopia, PAS anterior to schwalbe line
36
G1QD antibodies found
in miller fishers syndrome
37
tram track imaging of optic nerve
optic nerve sheath meningioma
38
cardiac manifestations of kearne sayres
heart block
39
sterilisation of tonometry
immerse in freshly prepared hypochlorite CL 1% for 10 minutes
40
contraindications of doxycycline
MH, <11 years, alcohol dependence, SLE
41
White dot which most commonly has CNS signs
acute posterior multifocal placoid pigment epitheliopathy, CNS involvement in roughly one half
42
which diabetic drugs can cause macular oedema
sulphonylureas such as pioglitazone
43
ocular manifestations of Down's
cataracts, myopia, keratoconus, brushfield spots, epicanthus INVersus, hypoplastic discs, astigmatism
44
ICG and FFA in APMPPE
ICG hypoflourescence of placoid areas, FFA early hypoflourescence and later hyperflourescence
45
monoclonal antibody for treatment of atopic dermatitis
dupilumab
46
diagnosis of diabetes markers
hba1c >/ 48 fasting >/ 7 random >/11.1
47
cyl transposition
add the cylinder to the sphere, then switch +/- of cyl and axis by 90. Watch out for ADD
48
features of bilateral fourth nerve palsy
alternating hypertropia, positive bielschowsky both sides, large degree of excyclo >10, V pattern greater than 25 PD
49
monoclonal Ab used for GCA and RA also its' MOA
tocilizumab, works on IL6
50
SLT laser settings vs ALT laser settings
SLT 400 micron spot size, 3ns, 0.6mJ, inferior 180degrees ALT 50 microns spot size, 0.1s duration, 300-1000mW
51
difference in reflectivity in choroidal melanoma and haemangioma
haemangioma high melanoma low
52
tube vs trab study, what tube, what IOP reduction at 5 years, what % failure, what % reoperation
Baeveldt tube 14 tube 12 trab IOP 29% tube 47% trab failure Reop 9% tube 29% trab
53
DMARD for JIA
methotrexate and adalimumab
54
VF testing to detect early glaucoma
SWAP
54
EAGLE study cost effectiveness,
£14,284 PAC >30 or PACG>20
55
most common location of retinal dialysis
superonasal, except when not traumatic then inferonasal
56
Causes of posterior lenticonus
Low syndrome, sporadic, familial
57
types of bitemporal hemianopia
inferior VF- craniopharyngioma superior VF - pituitary adenoma central - hydrocephalus
58
wavelength of PTK laser
200
59
RCOPHTH if any of progression, progression uncertain, or lack of control then review in how many months
2-6 months
60
NICE glaucoma monitoring OHT/POAG
no conversion and IOP controlled 18 - 24 months Uncertain conversion and IOP controlled 6-12 months No/uncertain conversion and IOP not controlled 1-4 months Conversion with or without control then look at progression: no progression and no control 1-4 uncertain progression or progression and no control 1-2 no progression, control and low risk 12-18 no progression, control and high risk 6-12 uncertain progression and control 2-6 months in summary no control then 1-4 months or 1-2 if progression for POAG no progression and control 12-18 months unless high risk POAG then 6-12
61
CSF in FLAIR and STIR
FLAIR (T1) CSF is dark STIR (T2) CSF is bright
62
visual field loss with disc drusen
enlarged blind spot
63
hemifacial spasm cancer
could be from irritation of root of VII by a compressive lesion, in the posterior fossa such as tuour of the parotid gland or cerebellopontine angle, or could be anterior inferior cerebellar artery
64
65
V and A pattern surgery if there is torsion
weakening of the overacting oblique
66
birmingham ocular trauma score expected VA
1 and 2 = NPL 3 = 20/200 -20/50 4 and 5 = >20/40
67
how does birmingham ocular trauma score work
start with a raw score based on initial visual acuity e.g. >20/40 gives you 100, and NPL gives you 60 then subtract different things globe rupture -23 worse and RAPD -10 best then score brackets 1 = 0-44 2 = 45 -65 3 = 66-80 4 = 81-91 5 = 92-100
68
main ocular feature of tuberous sclerosis
retinal astrocytoma
69
is behcets nongranulomatous
yes
70
RCOPhth when to repeat biometry
AL <21.2 or >26.6 K <41 dioptres or >47 dioptres AL difference >/ 0.7 Difference in Ks >2.5 Difference in corneal power >0.9 dioptres
71
macular laser settings
100um spot size, 100mW energy
72
enzyme in Refsum
phytanic acid alpha hydrolase RP, neuropathy, deafness, ataxia, ichthyosis
73
causes of vortex keratopathy
FAB Sciatca Fabreys Suramin Chloroquine Indometacin Amiodarona Tamoxifen Chlorpromazine Atovaquone
74
DR screening in pregnancy
ideally extra screening before 13 weeks, if DR then another at 16-20. everyone has it at 28 weeks
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