Practice Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

What are the five types of dermatological treatment?

A

1) surface treatment (insect repellent, sunscreen, topical anti microbial/fungal)
2) stratum corneum (solar keratosis, emollient therapy)
3) skin appendages (acne, depilatory, antiperspirant)
4) viable epidermis/dermis (anti-inflammatory, anaesthetic, antihistamine)
5) transdermal (HRT, opioid, Parkinson’s)

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2
Q

Examples of internal topical preparations?

A
Mucosal membranes, rectal, vaginal 
Bonjela 
Nystatin
Clotrimazole
Anusol
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3
Q

Advantages of topical delivery?

A
No first pass metabolism 
Controlled release 
More selective to target site
Less side effects 
Easy to use
Good compliance
Avoid fluctuation in drug levels 
Efficacy with lower daily doses 
Easy to terminate drug action
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4
Q

Disadvantages of topical delivery?

A

Allergic reactions to active and excipients
Larger drug particles may not penetrate the skin
Only for drugs where smaller plasma concentrations are required
Enzymatic breakdown of some drugs in the skin

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5
Q

How do transdermal penetration enhancers act?

A

1) disruption of highly ordered structure of stratum corneum lipid
2) interaction with intercellular protein
3) improved partition of the drug, co-enhancer or solvent into the strain corneum

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6
Q

Examples of transdermal penetration enhancers?

A

Propylene glycol
N-methyl pyrrolidone (NMP)
Dimethyl sulphoxide (DMSO)
Laurocapram (azone)

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7
Q

Types of solid topical dosage forms?

A

Powder
Aerosol
Plaster

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8
Q

Types of liquid topical dosage forms?

A
Lotion
Liniment 
Solution
Emulsion
Suspension
Aerosol
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9
Q

Types of semi-solid topical dosage forms?

A
Ointment
Cream
Paste
Gel
Jelly
Suppository
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10
Q

Ointment features?

A
Usually less than 20% water 
More than 50% hydrocarbons
Greasier than other preparations 
Soften/melt at body temperature
Translucent
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11
Q

Advantages of ointments?

A

Less skin sensitivities due to less preservatives
Good for moderate to severe dry skin
Good for night time application
Less regular applications needed

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12
Q

Disadvantages of ointments?

A

Some people don’t like the greasy feeling so can cause non-adherence
Can ‘grease’ clothes and bedding

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13
Q

Features of creams?

A

Semisolid that possesses a relatively soft, spreadable consistency
More fluid than ointments
Formulated as either water in oil or oil in water emulsions
White appearance due to scattered light from dispersed oil globules
Less greasy

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14
Q

Advantages of creams?

A

Less greasy so increased adherence

Can be used in weeping eczema

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15
Q

Disadvantages of creams?

A

More applications required

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16
Q

Features of lotions?

A

Light preparations with high water content

Oil in water emulsion

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17
Q

Advantages of lotions?

A

Spread easily
Quickly absorbed
Can use on hair areas
Can be used to deliver antibiotics, antifungals, corticosteroids etc

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18
Q

Disadvantages of lotions?

A

Poor moisturising properties

Must be shaken

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19
Q

Features of gels?

A

Semisolid systems
Consist of dispersion of small inorganic particles or large organic molecules in an aqueous suspension
Also use a gelling agent such as carbomer to thicken the colloidal dispersion
Non-Newtonian flow characteristics
Very high water content but are water insoluble
Can contain drug substances, cosolvents, anti microbial preservatives, stabilisers
Drug release rate depends of physical structure of the gel

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20
Q

What are emollients?

A

Smooth and soften skin by restoring the skin barrier
Semi-solids that contain no water (oil or grease based)
Can contain exfoliations (salicylic acid), antipruritics (lauromacrogols), lipids such as ceremides and cholesterol and antiseptics

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21
Q

How do emollients moisturise the skin?

A

Increase the amount of water in the stratum corneum in two ways:
Occlusion by trapping moisture into the skin it is best achieved by greasy emollients such as petrolatum products
Active movement of water from the dermis with low molecular weight molecules called humectants (urea, glycerine)

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22
Q

What are parabens?

A
Hydroxybenzoates
Popular preservative found in creams
Broad spectrum of anti microbial activity
Colourless, odourless
Stable 
Unexpensive
But allergies in 1.2% of patients
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23
Q

What is lanolin?

A

Yellow, waxy substance secreted from sebaceous glands of sheep to waterproof their wool
Rarely cause reactions (hypoallergenic)

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24
Q

Counselling required for paraffin?

A

Flammable

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25
What is sodium Lauryl Sulfate?
Surfactant and detergent Partly water soluble and partly oil soluble this allows the water and oil to become mixed Used in emollients for its thickening and emulsifying properties Can be drying and may cause irritation
26
Advice when giving out an emollient?
Wash and dry hands and affected area Maybe use a spatula to reduce microbial contamination or give a pump dispenser Apply as frequently as possible and especially after bathing Avoid bubble baths Use as a soap substitute- either apply when wet or dry then wash off Apply in the direction of the growing body hair
27
What is the recommended amount of emollient to use per week?
500-1000g per week | Half for a child
28
Cautions with bath oils?
Elderly and young children due to bath becoming slippery
29
What are adverse drug reactions?
An unwanted or harmful reaction that occurs after administration of a drug and is suspected or known to be to due to the drug
30
What percentage of hospital admissions are due to ADRs?
6-7%
31
ADRs occur in what percent of hospital inpatients?
10-20%
32
Implications of ADRs?
adverse effect on patients quality of life Can cause patients to lose trust Increased cost of patient care Lengthen hospital stays May mimic disease, causing unnecessary investigations
33
What does type A ADRs stand for?
augmented
34
What are type A ADRs?
``` Predictable Does related Morbidity high Mortality low Usually stops when the drug is withdrawn ```
35
Examples of type A ADRs?
Bleeding from warfarin | Antimuscarinic side effects from TCAs
36
Antimuscarinic ADRs mneumonic?
``` SLUMBAG Salivation, secretions, sweating (lack of) Lacrimation (lack of) Urinary retention Miosis Bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, bowel movement Abdominal cramps, anorexia GI upset ```
37
What do type B ADRs stand for?
bizarre
38
What are type B ADRs?
unpredictable Rare Often severe
39
Examples of type B ADRs?
anaphylaxis from antibiotics | Agranulocytosis from clozapine, carbimazole and carbamazepine
40
What do type C ADRs stand for?
Continuous
41
What are type C ADRs?
when the patient has been taking for a long time | Need to assess benefits vs risks of continuing treatment
42
Example of a type C ADR?
osteonecrosis of the jaw with bisphosphonates
43
What do type D ADRs stand for?
delayed
44
What are types D ADRs?
It can happen after the course of medication has been completed
45
Example of a type D ADR?
Tendon rupture with ciprofloxacin
46
What do type E ADRs stand for?
end of use
47
What are type E ADRs?
withdrawal symptoms
48
Example of a type E ADR?
Benzodiazepine withdrawal
49
Groups most vulnerable to ADRs?
``` Elderly Renal impairment Hepatic impairment Children Pregnancy Breast-feeding Women (due pharmacokinetics, immunology and hormones) ```
50
Frequency of a very common ADR?
More than 1 in 10
51
Frequency of a common ADR?
1-10 to 1-100
52
Frequency of an uncommon ADR?
1 in 100 to 1 in 1000
53
Frequency of a rare ADR?
1 in 1000 to 1 in 10,000
54
Frequency of a very rare ADR?
less than 1 in 10,000
55
What does frequency not known mean in regards to ADRs?
frequency is not defined by product literature, or the side effect has been reported from post-marketing surveillance data
56
Top 10 drugs that cause ADRs?
``` NSAIDs Diuretics Warfarin ACE inhibitors/ AII antagonists Antidepressants Beta-blockers Opiates Digoxin Prednisolone Clopidogrel ```
57
ADRs from NSAIDs?
``` GI bleeding Poetic ulceration Haemorrhagic cerebrovascular event Renal impairment Wheezing Rash ```
58
ADRs from Diuretics?
Renal impairment Hypotension Electrolyte disturbance Gout
59
ADRs from warfarin?
GI bleeding Haematuria High INR Haematoma
60
ADRs from ACE inhibitors/AII antagonists?
Renal impairment Hypotension Electrolyte disturbance Angioedema
61
ADRs from antidepressants?
``` Confusion Hypotension Constipation GI bleeds Hyponatremia ```
62
ADRs from beta-blockers?
Bradycardia Heart block Hypotension Wheezing
63
ADRs from opiates?
Constipation Vomiting Confusion Urinary retention
64
ADRs from digoxin?
Symptomatic toxic levels
65
ADRs from prednisolone?
Gastritis GI bleeding Hyperglycaemia Osteoporotic fracture
66
ADRs from clopidogrel?
GI bleeding
67
What drug reactions should be reported by the yellow card scheme?
Serious reactions from established drugs | All reactions from new drugs
68
What is pharmacovigilance?
Monitoring the use of medicines in everyday practice to identity ADRs Assessing risks and benefits of medications Providing information to healthcare professions to optimise safety Monitoring the effect of any action taken
69
Drugs that increase the risk of falls in the elderly?
``` benzodiazepines Antidepressants Sedatives Antipsychotics Anticonvulsants Anticholinergics Opioids Antihypertensives ```
70
What kind of drugs require close monitoring?
those with a narrow therapeutic index
71
Drug interaction definition?
when the effect of one drug is changed by the presence of another drug, food, drink or an environmental chemical agent
72
Types of pharmacodynamic drug reactions?
interference with drug effects of receptor Interference with a physiological control process Additive or opposing physiological effects
73
What is serotonin syndrome?
increased stimulation of serotonin receptors through increased release, reduced reuptake of serotonin and increased stimulation of receptors
74
Symptoms of serotonin syndrome?
``` mental status changes GI disturbances Agitation Confusion Hallucinations Hyperthermia Tremor ```
75
Drugs that can cause serotonin syndrome?
``` Ondansetron Triptans SSRIs Mirtazapine Fentanyl Tramadol Cocaine St. Johns wort Legal highs ```
76
What are pharmacokinetic drug interactions?
When the presence of one drug increased or decreased the concentration of another More difficult to predict All ADME
77
What are absorption drug interactions?
Formation of insoluble complexes | Enhanced absorption
78
Examples of absorption drug interactions?
Alendronic acid has decreased bioavailability when taken with calcium Rivaroxaban had increased absorption when taken with food
79
What are distribution drug interactions?
drugs that compete for the same transport proteins | Inhibition of efflux transporters
80
Examples of distribution drug interactions?
Verapamil affects P-gp efflux pumps, so less digoxin is transported back out. Increasing digoxin concentrations Phenytoin and valproate compete for the same protein binding site, usually displacing phenytoin
81
Examples of drugs that commonly interact with CYP enzyme inhibitors and inducers?
``` warfarin Contraceptive pill Theophylline Corticosteroids Tricyclics Pethidine Statins ```
82
What do CYP inducers do?
Reduce the concentration of drugs that are metabolised by CYPs
83
Examples of CYP inducers?
``` CRAPGPS Carbamazepine Rifampin Alcohol Phenytoin Griseofulvin Phenobarbital Sulphonylureas ```
84
Why do CYP inhibitors do?
increase the concentration of drugs that are metabolism by CYPs
85
Examples of CYP inhibitors?
``` SICKFACESCOM Sodium valproate Isoniazid Cimetidine Ketoconazole Fluconazole Alcohol and grapefruit juice Chloramphenicol Erythromycin Sulfonamides Ciprofloxacin Omeprazole Metronidazole ```
86
Example of food/drink being a CYP inhibitor?
cranberry juice inhibits CYP2C9, which breaks warfarin down, leading to increased levels of warfarin Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, which breaks down statins leading to increased exposure. This can lead to rhabdomyolysis
87
How can CYP induction cause toxic metabolites?
paracetamol is usually conjugated with glutathione to form a non-toxic metabolite Once this is used up, paracetamol can conjugate with other compounds to produce toxic metabolites
88
Name a drug that can act as both a CYP inducer and inhibitor depending on the scenario?
Ritonavir
89
What is a sign?
It can be objectively observed by the healthcare professional
90
What is a symptom?
What is observed by the patient and cannot be directly measured
91
What is biomedical testing?
the area of biomedical science that is concerned with the analysis of body specimens
92
Types of biospecimen?
``` urine Blood Tissues Cells DNA RNA Proteins ```
93
Types of routine biomedical tests?
``` Microbiology Virology Haematology Coagulation Clinical biochemistry Toxicology Immunology/serology Immunohaematology Urinalysis Histopathology Cytopathology Electron microscopy Genetics TFTs Lipid profile ```
94
How can drugs affect biomedical tests?
``` in vivo In vitro (interference with analytical procedure) ```
95
Types of in vivo effects on biomedical tests?
such as raised LFTs or other tests due to drug side effects
96
Types of in vitro effects on biomedical tests?
Alteration of chemical reactions, cause of turbidity in the reaction system, interference with enzyme reactions, cross-reaction with antibodies, radioactive interference
97
What are the 12 standards for medical notes?
1) Should be available at all times during hospital stay 2) Every page should have name, identification number and hospital location 3) Standardised structure and layout 4) Documentation should reflect continuum of care (chronological) 5) Standardised proforma to document admission, handover and discharge 6) Every entry dated, timed (24hr clock), legible with name signed and printed. Alterations should be countersigned 7) Entries made as soon as possible 8) Should identify most senior professional present and consultant 9) Agreed transfer of care if consultant changes 10) Entry should be made everytime doctor sees patient. If no entry for 4 days (acute) or 7 days (long-stay) the next entry should explain why 11) Discharge summary should be commenced when patient is admitted 12) Clearly record advanced decisions such as refusing treatment, DNAR, consent
98
What are Korotkoff sounds?
Noises used to measure blood pressure manually. It is when the blood pressure cuff changes the flow of blood through the artery
99
What does NEWS stand for?
National Early Warning Score
100
What does a NEWS score take into account?
``` Respiratory rate Oxygen saturations (including if any supplementary oxygen) Temperature Systolic blood pressure Heart rate Consciousness ```