Practice Exam Flashcards

(89 cards)

1
Q

What strategy did the organization use when it purchased insurance to cover likely losses from hurricanes?

A) Risk mitigation
B) Risk transference
C) Risk avoidance
D) Risk acceptance

A

Risk transference

The organization used risk transference. The organization purchased insurance to cover likely losses incurred if hurricanes were to strike, thereby transferring the risk to a third party to manage it. Transferring risk does not eliminate it; it transfers the responsibility of managing the risk to the third party, which in this case was the insurance agency.
Buying insurance is a classic example of risk transference in project management.

This strategy involves transferring the risk of loss to another party, in this case, an insurance company.

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2
Q

Which of the following project management elements helps you establish project management benchmarks or expectations, and to track and communicate the project progress?

A) Milestones
B) Schedule forecast
C) Cost forecasts
D) Issue logs

A

A) Milestones

Milestones help you to establish project management benchmarks or expectations, and to track and communicate the project progress. The milestones for a project should present a clear sequence of events that will incrementally build up to the completion of the approved project. The completion of milestones should be communicated to the project sponsor and project stakeholders.

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3
Q

Which of the following statements describe the purpose of defining the high-level scope in the project Initiation phase? (Choose two.)

A) It contains the specific budget that will be required to complete project activities.

B) It includes a schedule for producing each deliverable.

C) It serves as an input to planning the resource-related and technological requirements of the project.

D) It clarifies what will be included in the project and what is beyond the range of activities and results.

A

C) It serves as an input to planning the resource-related and technological requirements of the project.

D) It clarifies what will be included in the project and what is beyond the range of activities and results.

A written high-level scope definition aids in future planning of a project by identifying the requirements of the project and the specific elements to be included in the project. The high-level scope is written during project initiation and becomes part of the project charter.
A high-level scope does not include exhaustive calculations for budget. This is part of cost management planning, which occurs during the Planning phase. The project charter will include a high-level estimation of costs, but not budget calculations.

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4
Q

Which of the following is an item that displays KPIs pertaining to specific projects, metrics for a project’s overall performance and progress, and critical issues, and can be customized to fit the needs of the project?

A) Process diagram
B) RACI matrix
C) Project management dashboard
D) Balanced score card

A

C) Project management dashboard

A project management dashboard displays KPIs pertaining to specific projects, metrics for a project’s overall performance and progress, and critical issues that require further attention. The dashboard can be customized to fit the needs of the project. Dashboards are included with most project management scheduling software or can be created through the use of spreadsheet templates.

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5
Q

The Initiating process results in all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) the project charter
B) the project scope statement
C) the stakeholder register
D) formal authorization of the project

A

C) the stakeholder register

The Initiating process involves the formal authorization and beginning of a new project (or project phase). The Initiating process includes the Develop Project Charter process and the Identify Stakeholders process. The official outputs of the Initiating process are the project charter, the stakeholder register, and the stakeholder management strategy. A preliminary scope statement may be created during this process, but not the scope statement.

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6
Q

TXGlobal Inc. has grouped all its employees based on functional specialty, such as accounting, HR, procurement, finance, marketing, and production. To which of the following roles do the employees in these functional groups report?

A) Project coordinator
B) Functional manager
C) Project manager
D) Project expeditor

A

B) Functional manager

As TXGlobal Inc. has grouped all its employees based on their functional specialties, it can be categorized as a functional organization. The employees and resources report to a functional manager.

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7
Q

Which of the following is an example of a company’s assets that is NOT also considered intellectual property?

A) Internal client list
B) Copyrights
C) Trademarks
D) Patents

A

C) Trademarks

Trademarks are symbols and images that are used to represent a company or a company’s product, service, or feature. They are indicated by a ™ superscript. Examples include the image of the letters VW in a circle for Volkswagen, the Nike checkmark, and the Coca-Cola ribbon.

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8
Q

Which of the following is associated with regulated data and the privacy of a data subject’s electronic information in the European Union?

A) COPPA
B) GLBA
C) PIPEDA
D) GDPR

A

D) GDPR

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is associated with privacy of your electronic information in the European Union (EU) or European Economic Area (EEA). In general terms, the GDPR provides individuals with the controls to grant or revoke a company’s permission to use data collected online

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9
Q

Your project team has created a custom clothing inventory management system based on a predetermined client profile. The model client has the following requirements for an application:
The budget is capped at $50,000
There are five product SKUs to migrate
At least two employees are available to manage the system

Which of the following is NOT a risk of using a product developed for a predetermined client?

A) It can offer an over-abundance of features and functionality.
B) It might not find a target audience.
C) It can be an incorrect match to product needs.
D) It can be an optimized solution for specific audiences.

A

B) It might not find a target audience.

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10
Q

You are managing a project for a local children’s museum. You are given a chart that shows the attendance statistics grouped by age since the project began.

Which type of tool have you been given?

A) histogram
B) Ishikawa diagram
C) control chart
D) scatter diagram

A

A) histogram

You have been given a histogram. Histograms are charts used to assess the quality of deliverables and the performance of the project.

A histogram is a graphical representation of the distribution of numerical data.

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11
Q

Doris, the project manager, is overseeing a technical project that requires basic knowledge of a certain application. Two developers on the team want to learn the application, and ask Doris to send them on a week-long training session.
Doris determines that sending both resources to this training would harm the project schedule. The schedule will only allow one team member to attend the training. Doris needs to mitigate this situation to keep the project on track. She wants to allow both individuals to work with her to come up with a decision on who will attend the training. Which conflict resolution technique should she use?

A)Withdraw/avoid

B)Compromise/reconcile

C)Smooth/accommodate

D)Force/direct

A

C) Smooth/accommodate

Doris should use the compromise/reconcile conflict resolution technique. This technique takes suggestions from both parties involved in conflict and tries to come to a compromise

This technique involves taking suggestions from both parties and trying to reach a mutually acceptable solution.

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12
Q

Which of the following characteristics is NOT one of the primary elements of a Scrum retrospective?

A) It urges the team to discuss alternative ideas that increase efficiency.
B) It helps the team focus primarily on hindrances.
C) It helps in team formation and enhances team bonding within the team.
D) It helps build the team’s sense of ownership and time and effort management.

A

B) It helps the team focus primarily on hindrances

As this is a negatively worded question, the correct answer is helping the team focus primarily on hindrances that are beyond the control of the team. The Scrum retrospective does NOT help the team to focus primarily on hindrances that are beyond the control of the team. Hindrances are often beyond the team’s control. Focusing on them would lower the team’s morale.

This technique would not involve the team members in the decision-making process.

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13
Q

Which of the following options are threats to the security of mobile devices? (Choose all that apply.)

A) Theft
B) End-of-life devices or OSes
C) Application permissions
D) Unsecured Wi-Fi connections
E) Malicious applications
F) Remote access restrictions

A

A) Theft
B) End-of-life devices or OSes
C) Application permissions
D) Unsecured Wi-Fi connections
E) Malicious applications

This approach ensures both team members feel involved in the decision.

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14
Q

Metroil Inc. has set up a tool for stakeholders and departments to view key performance indicators specific to individual projects including their overall performance, progress, and concerns. Which tool was provided?

A) Dashboard
B) Issues log
C) Action items list

A

A) Dashboard

A project dashboard can be viewed by stakeholders and departments to share information relating to the overall performance, progress, and concerns of specific projects.

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15
Q

Which of the following options is true regarding a project manager’s level of authority within a functional organization?

A) Moderate to high authority
B) Total authority
C) High authority
D) Limited or no authority

A

D) Limited or no authority

In a functional organization, a project manager has little or no authority to make decisions.

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16
Q

Mayuri is managing a software migration project. The software being implemented aims to track various customer data in order to achieve customer retention and inform future marketing strategies. Which type of software project is Mayuri managing?

A) ERP
B) CRM
C) EDRMS
D) CMS

A

B) CRM

Mayuri is handling a migration to a CRM system. A customer relationship management (CRM) system is a type of software that assists with managing and tracking customer data, for the purpose of achieving customer satisfaction and retention. Examples of data collected include product purchases, support inquiries and complaints, and shopping preferences

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17
Q

Steven, the project manager, is reviewing a request to move one team member, Sarah, to a different task based on her skill set. Steven feels that Sarah is more suited to the new task and will complete it more quickly than her original task. Steven evaluates the impact of the change and lists its justification. Which of the following project constraints should Steven evaluate to find the impact of the requested change? (Choose two.)

A) Project scope
B) Project cost
C) Project schedule
D) Project quality

A

C) Project schedule
D) Project quality

Based on the information from the scenario, Steven should evaluate the impact of the requested change on project costs and project schedule. Project costs need to be evaluated because the team member being moved to the task may cost more or less than the original team member. The project schedule needs to be evaluated because the project manager feels that Sarah will complete the task more quickly than the original team member would.

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18
Q

After project members enter a password, the project website prompts them to provide answers to security questions, such as the name of a childhood sweetheart or the color of your first car. What type of multifactor authentication is this?

A) Something you know
B) Something you do
C) Something you have
D) Something you are

A

A) Something you know

Any security question is something you know. This includes a password, a PIN, the name of a childhood sweetheart, the color of your first car, or the answer to a similar question.

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19
Q

You are the manager of a project that is creating a new application for your company’s sales department. During the project, the sales department supervisor moves to another department, and a new supervisor is hired from outside the company. Which project document needs to be updated?

A) Budget
B) Schedule
C) Stakeholder register
D) Issue log

A

C) Stakeholder register

When a new supervisor is hired, the stakeholder register needs to be updated. The purpose of the stakeholder register is to document the list of personnel impacted by a project, and their influence over and interest in the project. You would also need to update the communication plan.

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20
Q

Using your project’s WBS, you have created an activity list identifying the activities to be performed for the project. What is the NEXT step you should take?

A) Estimate the duration of each activity.
B) Create a project schedule based on the identified list of activities.
C) Identify dependencies between activities and order the activities in a logical order of completion.
D) Update the project charter to include the list of activities that will be required for the project.

A

C) Identify dependencies between activities and order the activities in a logical order of completion.

The next step you should take is to identify dependencies between activities and order the activities in a logical order of completion. After identifying the activities to be performed in a project during Planning, these activities must be sequenced into a logical order that reflects any dependencies between the activities.

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21
Q

Which process prevents privilege creep?

A) permission auditing
B) security clearances
C) background checks
D) usage auditing

A

A) permission auditing

Permission auditing and review ensures that users have the appropriate permissions to complete the tasks that are part of their job. By implementing permission auditing and review, you ensure that privilege creep does not occur.

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22
Q

In which of the following environments would you build your application?

A) Production
B) Beta
C) Development
D) Staging

A

C) Development

The development environment is where software is developed by writing the code that makes the software operational.

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23
Q

The new security plan for your organization states that all data on your servers must be classified to ensure appropriate access controls are implemented. Which statements are true of information classification? (Choose three.)

A) A data custodian must determine the classification of an information asset.

B) A data owner must determine the information classification of an asset.

C) Data classification refers to assigning security labels to information assets.

D) The two primary classes of data classification deal with military institutions and commercial organizations.

E) The two primary classes of the data classification scheme apply to nonprofit organizations and financial institutions

A

B) A data owner must determine the information classification of an asset.
C) Data classification refers to assigning security labels to information assets.

D) The two primary classes of data classification deal with military institutions and commercial organizations.

Data classification refers to assigning security labels to information assets. The data owner must determine the information classification of an asset. Data classification is the most crucial method used to ensure data integrity. It is the responsibility of the data owner to decide the level of classification that the information requires. One purpose of information classification is to define the parameters required for security labels. After being classified, it is difficult to declassify data.
There are two main data classification systems: commercial and military. The types of commercial data classification are as follows:
Confidential: Sensitive information that requires special protection from unauthorized modification or deletion. This is the only common category between the commercial and military classification systems

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24
Q

NuTex Inc. is a company based in Europe, working on a project for a customer based in a different time zone in a rural area of Ecuador. Dave Jones, a project manager, must establish a communication plan for future meetings and discussions between the developers and the customer. The project sponsor wants daily meetings scheduled. Which of the following communication methods would BEST accommodate time zone differences?

A) Emails throughout the day
B) Enterprise social media posts at a pre-scheduled time every day

C) Voice conference at a pre-scheduled time every day
D) Video conference at a pre-scheduled time every day

A

C) Voice conference at a pre-scheduled time every day

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25
Which of the following three activities would you perform during the Closing phase of a project? (Select three.) A) Reconciling budgets B) Manage conflict C) Closing out contracts D) Train project team E) Validating project deliverables F) Check pre-existing contracts
A) Reconciling budgets C) Closing out contracts E) Validating project deliverables
26
You have invited the key stakeholders to the project kick-off meeting. Which item should be considered the most important goal in a kick-off meeting relative to key stakeholders within a project? A) Inform stakeholders of the communication methods to be used for change requests. B) Build consensus among project stakeholders about the goals of the project. C) Inform stakeholders of the meeting schedule for project status updates. D) Obtain any change requests these stakeholders may have.
B) Build consensus among project stakeholders about the goals of the project.
27
Scott is determining the durations of the tasks in a project. He is using the three-point estimation technique to accomplish this requirement. While doing this, he finds the following durations for Task 12: Most likely (tM) - 18 days Optimistic (tO) - 12 days Pessimistic (tP) - 22 days Now he has to calculate the duration of the task by using triangular distribution. Which of the following values will he find as the estimated duration of this task? A) 17.33 B) 14.66 C) 29.33 D) 8.66
A) 17.33 The task duration of Task 12 based on triangular distribution is 17.33 days. The formula to perform three-point estimation using triangular distribution is: tE = (tO + tM + tP) / 3 Therefore, Scott will calculate the duration of the task as: tE = (18 + 12 + 22) / 3 tE = 52 / 3 tE = 17.33 This formula requires three values: optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic. Three-point estimation is also known as program evaluation and review technique (PERT). Triangular distribution gives equal weighting to the three values.
28
Which of the following activities are performed in the Closing phase of a project? (Choose all that apply.) A) Releasing resources B) Rewarding the team C) Documenting lessons learned D) Archiving project documents
A) Releasing resources B) Rewarding the team C) Documenting lessons learned D) Archiving project documents All of these activities occur during the Closing phase
29
Which of the following statements correctly define projects and programs? (Choose two.) A) A project is a temporary endeavor with a definite start and end date, whereas a program is a collection of subprograms and other work that is managed in a coordinated fashion. B) A program can be broken down into projects. C) A project is an ongoing and repetitive work, whereas a program is a collection of non-project work that is managed in a coordinated fashion. D) A project can be broken down into programs. E) A program is an ongoing and repetitive work, whereas a project is a temporary endeavor with a definite start and end date. F) A project is a temporary endeavor with a definite start and end date, whereas a program is a collection of non-project work that is managed in a coordinated fashion.
A) A project is a temporary endeavor with a definite start and end date, whereas a program is a collection of subprograms and other work that is managed in a coordinated fashion. B) A program can be broken down into projects. A project is a temporary endeavor with a definite start and end date. A program is a collection of subprograms, projects, and other work that is managed in a coordinated fashion
30
Albert is managing a software tune-up project that involves handling various types of data, including auditing, budgeting, forecasting, and risk reporting. Which type of software project is Albert managing? A) Content management system (CMS) B) Enterprise resource planning (ERP) system C) Financial system D) Customer relationship management (CRM) system
B) Enterprise resource planning (ERP) system Albert is managing a financial systems project. Financial systems are a subcategory of ERP modules. but can be sold as standalone solutions. An enterprise resource planning (ERP) system consists of enterprise-wide software that manages daily operational business tasks, such as supply chain, logistics, finance, procurement, HR, and project management. ERP systems allow visibility into an organization’s processes by managing the full workflow cycle for logistics, financials, and production
31
When performing an analysis of the major causes for a problem, which tool allows you to identify the sub-causes of the problem? A) fishbone diagram B) Pareto diagram C) Gantt chart D) PERT
A) fishbone diagram The fishbone diagram, also called the cause-effect diagram, helps to analyze the major cause of a problem. It also helps to identify the sub-causes for the major cause once identified
32
Which statement BEST characterizes the cost performance baseline of a project? A) It is a time-phased budget used for measuring and monitoring cost performance on the project. B) It is used in the planning process to estimate potential costs for the activities associated with a project. C) It represents the cumulative costs incurred for a project. D) It is a static budget that serves as documentation of the original planned cost estimates of the project.
B) It is used in the planning process to estimate potential costs for the activities associated with a project. The cost performance baseline is a time-phased budget used for measuring and monitoring cost performance on the project.
33
Your company is establishing new employment candidate screening processes. Which of the following should be included? (Choose all that apply.) A) Verify all education. B) Perform a background check. C) Offboard the candidate. D) Check all references. E) Review military/employment records and experience.
A) Verify all education. B) Perform a background check. D) Check all references. E) Review military/employment records and experience.
34
With which contract types does the buyer bear most of the cost risk? A) Cost Plus Fixed Fee B) Fixed Price C) Fixed Price Incentive Fee D) Time and Materials
D) Time and Materials With a Time and Materials contract, the buyer has a moderate amount of cost risk. In a Time and Materials contract the seller charges the buyer a fixed fee, usually per hour or per item, and is reimbursed for materials.
35
Sam works for an organization that manufactures and processes different chemicals, including toxic chemicals. His organization recently has awarded a project to an e-learning firm to develop Web-based training. The Web-based training will deliver a comprehensive set of guidelines for handling toxic chemicals. Which of the following was the reason for initiating this project? A) Technological advance B) Legal requirement C) Environmental requirement D) Social need
C) Environmental requirement The project was initiated to fulfill the legal requirements of the organization. The handling of toxic chemicals is typically regulated by local, state, and federal regulations that must be met for the company to be licensed to produce such chemicals.
36
Which of the following statements state the characteristics of functional organizations with respect to resources/employees? (Choose three.) A) Resources/employees report to a functional manager who has experience in the same domain and who can understand and oversee the project work adequately. B) Resources/employees work in tandem with their peers from the same domain, which eventually leads to knowledge sharing and lateral role changes to learn new skills. C) Resources/employees move up within their functional domain, which gives them a reason to stay for the long term. The company benefits from their expertise and company knowledge over time. D) Over time, resources/employees gain experience in different types of projects.
A) Resources/employees report to a functional manager who has experience in the same domain and who can understand and oversee the project work adequately. C) Resources/employees move up within their functional domain, which gives them a reason to stay for the long term. The company benefits from their expertise and company knowledge over time. D) Over time, resources/employees gain experience in different types of projects.
37
You need to determine the amount of work effort required to complete a project. Which tool should you use? A) WBS B) Gantt chart C) SOW D) matrix
A) WBS The work breakdown structure (WBS) is used to determine the amount of work effort required to complete a project. It organizes and defines the total work scope of a project. The WBS includes a list of the deliverables, the activities required to produce the deliverables, and the predecessor and successor relationships between the tasks. Project managers use the WBS as a tool to estimate project costs, activity durations, and resource requirements.
38
Darren Thomas, a project manager, is creating a project status report. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately summarize the objectives of this document? A) It helps all stakeholders with informed decision-making and problem resolution. B) It helps to track and monitor project budget and costs. C) It helps to raise concerns and issues in a timely manner. D) It helps highlight issues that were faced in previous projects.
D) It helps highlight issues that were faced in previous projects. Because this is a negatively worded question, the correct answer is that is helps highlight issues that were faced in previous projects.
39
What is arranged in descending order of significance in a Pareto diagram? A) causes of problems B) resource usage C) cost of quality D) project risks
A) causes of problems A Pareto diagram is a quality control tool used to show the frequency of causes of problems in descending order of significance
40
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the uses of a scatter chart? A) Used in quality planning as a preventive approach B) Used to track productivity of employees and areas of improvement C) Used in the Control Quality process as a corrective measure D) Used to understand the influence of the independent variable on the dependent variable
A) Used in quality planning as a preventive approach As this is a negatively worded question, "Used to track productivity of employees and areas of improvement" is the correct answer. A scatter chart or scatter diagram cannot be used to track productivity of employees or to attain a detailed analysis of each employee's areas of improvement.
41
Which of the following is NOT shown in Gantt charts? A) The start and end date of the project B) The start and end date for each task C) The productivity of resources D) The tasks to be completed
C) The productivity of resources Gantt charts display information about tasks to be completed, milestones, start and end dates for each task, and start and end dates for the project, among other data. A Gantt chart represents schedule information where activities are listed in the vertical axis and dates are shown on the horizontal axis. It displays activity durations. Sometimes it may also display team members, but it does not display team member responsibilities.
42
Quint is managing a project to create a new medical screening system for hospitals. One of his top priorities is to help establish that the system will effectively meet industry standards and its intended requirements. Which project artifact would assist him with auditing the system once it is ready for regulatory review and approval? A) RACI matrix B) Requirements traceability matrix C) PERT chart D) Pareto chart
B) Requirements traceability matrix Quint would use a requirements traceability matrix (RTM) to assist with auditing the system once it is ready for regulatory review and approval. A requirements traceability matrix assists with tracking a project’s design requirements, tests, test results, and issues. An RTM proves that all requirements are fulfilled and validates that all test modules and scenarios were successfully completed.
43
The project team must implement a requested change into an existing software product. They are assigning a privacy impact rating to the data that will be handled and/or generated by the new application module. Which step in the software change control process are they performing? A) Requirements definition B) Release C) Risk assessment D) Approval E) Customer notification
A) Requirements definition They are performing the requirements definition step. Specifically, the team is identifying the security requirements for the solution. Assigning a privacy impact rating to the data helps to guide measures intended to protect the data from exposure.
44
Darren Thomas, a project manager, is creating a high-level communication plan for a waterworks project. Which of these elements should his communication plan NOT include? A) Communication tools and methods to be used during the project lifecycle B) Specific dates when meetings are to be scheduled C) The purpose of the communications plan and the approach to be followed D) Well-defined roles and their communication responsibilities throughout the project
B) Specific dates when meetings are to be scheduled
45
You are considering the sensitivity and criticality of your organization's data. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) Once data sensitivity and criticality are documented, the organization should work to create a data classification system. B) Data that is sensitive should also be considered critical. C) Criticality measures the importance of the data. D) Sensitivity determines how freely the data can be handled.
B) Data that is sensitive should also be considered critical. It is not true that sensitive data should also be considered critical data. Data considered sensitive may not necessarily be considered critical. Sensitivity and criticality are not related.
46
The project under development has several errors. You want to categorize the errors and find out the frequency of each error to help you to identify the causes of the errors and avoid them. What would help in that process? A) fishbone diagram B) PERT C) Pareto diagram D) Gantt chart
C) Pareto diagram Pareto diagrams are special bar graphs that give the percentage of a particular error or problem versus the total percentage of errors or problems. Pareto diagrams help rank the issues by their critical nature, depending on the frequency of the occurrence of the issue. A Pareto diagram helps analyze the type of error that occurs most often and initiate a resolution to the problem. It is easy to sort out the cause of errors because the errors are categorized in a Pareto diagram.
47
Which of the following issue types is MOST LIKELY to have an escalation plan that has been created, but not yet activated? A) High-priority issue B) Reoccurring issue C) Low-priority issue D) Medium-priority issue
B) Reoccurring issue
48
Tasks X, Y, and Z are performed in sequence, and the durations of all three tasks are equal. Task Z's duration needs to be reduced by 50 percent. What should you do to reduce the duration of the task? A) Train the team members on the technology used in Task Z. B) Perform Task Y and Task Z in parallel. C) Add more resources to Task Z. D) Reduce the scope for Task Z by 50 percent.
C) Add more resources to Task Z. To reduce the duration of any task, you can add more resources to the task or outsource the task for a shorter duration. You can also reduce the duration of the task by improving the productivity and motivating the team members to work longer hours. These efforts made to expedite the project are referred to as "crashing" the schedule.
49
Which of the following approaches are applicable to overcoming the flaws in matrix organization structures? (Choose three.) A) There should be clear and defined communication among all the project stakeholders to minimize the possibilities of conflict and confusion. B) Roles and responsibilities of all the project stakeholders should be clearly communicated and documented to avoid mistakes. C) Instead of sharing skilled and capable resources between different projects, specific resources should be recruited for specific projects. D) Responsibilities and authority should be effectively and clearly delegated.
A) There should be clear and defined communication among all the project stakeholders to minimize the possibilities of conflict and confusion. B) Roles and responsibilities of all the project stakeholders should be clearly communicated and documented to avoid mistakes. D) Responsibilities and authority should be effectively and clearly delegated. In matrix organizations, resources often have to report to both the functional manager and the project manager. There should be clear and defined lines of communication among all of the project stakeholders to minimize the possibilities of conflict and confusion. The delegation of responsibilities and distribution of authority should be effective and sensible to avoid any situations that could impact the efficiency and effectiveness of the operations. Roles and responsibilities of all the project stakeholders should be clearly communicated and documented to avoid mistakes.
50
Your organization wants to move to a cloud-based application development model. You are meeting with senior management to determine the budget for the upcoming year. Management is concerned about exceeding the budget due to uncontrolled cloud computing costs. They are also concerned about buying either too much or too little computing power in advance. Which two benefits of a cloud service model provide the ability to control costs and to use only as much computing power as required? (Choose two.) A) Elasticity B) Remote connectivity C) PAYG D) SLA
A) Elasticity C) PAYG Elasticity – The cloud solution automatically adds servers or other computing resources when the workload increases, and de-allocates them when the workload lessens. The consumer need not get involved with adding or removing resources, as the cloud automatically senses when more computing resources are required. PAYG – Pay-As-You-Go (PAYG) indicates that a cloud consumer only pays for the computing resources that are actually used. This means that if additional servers or networking options are added to support an increased workload, the consumer bears the extra costs. After the workload lessens, so do the corresponding costs.
51
Joe Hall, a project manager, is working on a document for a new project. The document will state how the project work is to be executed, monitored, and controlled. Which document is Joe creating? A) Scope statement B) Project charter C) Action items D) Project management plan E) Requirements management plan
D) Project management plan Joe is working on the project management plan. The project management plan is a formal, approved document used to manage project execution. It includes those actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate planning activities. It also defines how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed.
52
Which of the following documents should be updated with possible responses to each identified risk? A) Risk response log B) Risk register C) Risk assumption log D) Risk review log
B) Risk register The risk register lists all identified risks and all possible responses to each identified risk.
53
Which three activities would you perform during the planning phase of a project? (Select three.) A) Kick off project B) Validate deliverables C) Train project team D) Assign resources E) Build a project schedule F) Manage conflict
C) Train project team D) Assign resources E) Build a project schedule Assigning resources involves reviewing your resource pool and performing a needs assessment and gap analysis to determine which human and physical resources are needed for your project, and which are already available. Once this analysis is completed, a plan should be created to request the appropriate and available resources for formal assignment to tasks and activities. Building a project schedule entails detailing the who, what, and when of a project’s activities.
54
You are the manager of a project that is creating a new application for the Marketing department in your company. During the project, the Marketing department supervisor moves to another department, and a new supervisor is hired from outside the company. Of which type of communication trigger is this an example? A) Milestone B) Resource change C) Stakeholder change D) Schedule change
C) Stakeholder change
55
Which of the following roles is considered to be the issue manager for a project and owns the issue management process? A) Project manager B) Product manager C) Head of the project management office D) All project team members are equally responsible
A) Project manager Project managers are considered to be the issue manager for their project and own the issue management process. Issue managers help their teams codify reported issues as soon as possible, establish communication channels, and review open issues regularly for discussion and resolution.
56
Isla is working with the procurement team to review a list of potential vendors for her upcoming CMS upgrade project. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of having a prequalified list of vendors in the discovery/concept phase? A) Streamlined procurement processes B) Minimal time investment to vet vendors C) Faster onboarding D) Decreased cost
D) Decreased cost Having a prequalified list of vendors does NOT always mean a minimal time investment to vet vendors.
57
You are a project manager of a large infrastructure development project. This project has experienced some scope change, which has been approved by the stakeholders, and the WBS has been updated. As a result of this, which additional document will require revision? A) schedule management plan B) scope C) quality management plan D) schedule
A) schedule management plan The schedule management plan describes how to manage changes to the schedule. This is defined in the planning process and is used to make changes to the schedule. The schedule management plan will not undergo a revision as a result of a change in scope.
58
Which of the following three activities would you perform during the Initiation phase of a project? (Select three correct options.) A) Kick off the project B) Identify stakeholders C) Create a business case D) Develop the project charter E) Build the project schedule F) Validate deliverables
B) Identify stakeholders C) Create a business case D) Develop the project charter A project charter is a concise, formal document that details the high-level engagement and activities of a project. Identifying stakeholders includes assessing who should be involved with the project, what their role will be, and how you would like to interact with them in terms of engagement and reporting.
59
Which of the following statements describes the purpose of a project schedule? (Choose three.) A) Mitigating the impact of employee or vendor attrition during the project B) Calculating a stipulated time frame for project completion in order to determine the start and end dates for each activity C) Analyzing the possibility of delays in completion of each activity D) Determining resource allocation over the course of the project
B) Calculating a stipulated time frame for project completion in order to determine the start and end dates for each activity C) Analyzing the possibility of delays in completion of each activity D) Determining resource allocation over the course of the project Project scheduling is a planning activity that involves estimating and allocating tasks to team members. A project schedule describes the start and finish date of each task. A project schedule is an important part of the project planning phase. It helps calculating a stipulated time frame for project completion, allowing the project manager to determine the start and end dates of each activity. In addition, it helps predict possible delays in completion of each project activity, if any, and smooths out resource allocation. Mitigating the impact of employees or vendor attrition is not one of the objectives of creating a project schedule. This is usually part of the risk management plan and resource management plan.
60
One of your project's tasks has an Early Start of week 9, an Early Finish of week 15, a Late Start of week 12, and a Late Finish of week 18. What is the task's float? A) 9 B) 6 C) 12 D) 3
B) 6 The task's float is 3. Float, or slack, is defined as the amount of time that a particular task can slip before the critical path is affected. Basically, this is how long a task can be delayed without affecting the overall finish date of the project. You can calculate the slack for an activity using LS - ES or LF - EF. In this scenario, the task has a Late Start of week 12 and an Early Start of week 9. You can use the formula LS - ES, which yields float for the task of 12 - 9, or 3. Using the formula LF - EF yields an identical result.
61
In which of the project phases is the project charter approved? A) Execution B) Closing C) Initiation D) Planning
C) Initiation The project charter is approved in the Initiation phase. The Initiation phase is the first phase in a project's lifecycle, which involves starting a new project by defining its objectives, scope, and business purpose
62
What is the final step in the formal change control process? A) To communicate the change’s deployment. B) To update all affected project documentation. C) To validate that the change was correctly implemented. D) To implement the change.
D) To implement the change.
63
You are managing a project that is developing an order-entry program. The project plan has been signed off on, and the project is well under way. You are investigating why some developers are missing their task deadlines. You discover that end users have been requesting that additional screens be added to the system. The programmers on the team have been fulfilling their requests, even though these additional screens were not part of the original project scope. What best describes this scenario? A) scope change B) scope creep C) project change D) product change
B) scope creep In this scenario, scope creep is occurring. Scope creep occurs when work is added to a project without adjusting other constraints to compensate, such as schedule, budget, and resources. Scope creep can cause cost overruns, missed deadlines, and a distorted final product.
64
Xavier has recently been assigned to a corporate construction project with a $500,000 budget. He and his project team are all globally distributed. Due to some temporary safety concerns, it has been determined that only the facilities manager, who is managed by a third party, should be the only team member with authorization to travel to and from the worksite for the time being. What type of access should Xavier ensure is established for his project team members? (Choose all that apply.) A) VPN access B) Access control C) Facility access D) Remote access
A) VPN access B) Access control D) Remote access
65
Several changes have been requested for the project you are currently managing. Which action would NOT require a change to the cost performance baseline? A) modifying the cost estimates for project activities B) reducing the project scope C) incurring costs of purchasing raw materials D) adding to the project scope
B) reducing the project scope All of the other options are incorrect because they could result in a change to the cost performance baseline. Changes that affect the costs of a project, which include schedule or scope changes, will affect the budget.
66
During which risk management process would a project manager decide to transfer a risk? A) Quantitative risk analysis B) Plan risk response C) Monitor and control risk D) Risk identification
D) Risk identification Risk identification is the project management process that determines events that might affect a project if they were to occur, and documents their characteristics.
67
Max Wilson, a project manager, is working closely with his team members to make the deadline for a deliverable that is scheduled for the following day. A team member approaches Max with a query that needs immediate resolution if the deliverable is to be completed. The query is complex and requires a short but in-depth discussion to clarify it. What should Max do? A) Send a text message requesting that the customer call him later in the day. B) Call the customer, and request a time to discuss the issue at hand. C) Wait until the next status call, and raise the concern then. D) Email the query to the customer, and request a response at the earliest possible time.
B) Call the customer, and request a time to discuss the issue at hand. Max should call the customer and request a time to discuss the issue at hand. The query should be resolved as soon as possible because it affects the development of a deliverable that is due the following day
68
The project being managed by one of your peers is not progressing well. This is the first time that this person has been in the project manager role. In one of the senior management review meetings, this project manager is asked to show the status of the project. What should this project manager use to show the status to senior management? A) milestone chart B) Gantt chart C) network diagram D) control chart
A) milestone chart The project manager should use the milestone chart to show the status of the project to the senior management. A milestone chart shows only major events and only shows the completion of activities. It is best suited to report progress to senior management.
69
Which of the following statements are true about a fishbone diagram? (Choose three.) A) It is also called a histogram. B) It is also called an Ishikawa diagram. C) It identifies the potential cause of problems and the root cause affecting the performance of the project. D) It is also called a cause-and-effect diagram.
B) It is also called an Ishikawa diagram. C) It identifies the potential cause of problems and the root cause affecting the performance of the project. D) It is also called a cause-and-effect diagram. A fishbone diagram is also called cause-and-effect diagram or an Ishikawa diagram. It analyzes causes of events pertaining to the project and their effects, and identifies the potential causes of problems and the root cause affecting the performance of the project.
70
Ellen, a project manager, has been working on a document for a new project. The document includes the project's purpose, a stakeholder list, a summary of high-level risks, a summary project schedule, a budget, a list of requirements for project approval, and a description of the project manager's level of authority. Which document is Ellen creating? A) Organizational chart B) Dashboard information C) Project management plan D) Project charter
D) Project charter Ellen is creating the project charter. The project charter includes the project purpose, a stakeholder list, high-level requirements, high-level assumptions and constraints, high-level risks, a summary schedule and budget, project approval requirements, and the project manager's level of authority. The project charter is created during the Initiating phase.
71
Which is NOT a conflict resolution technique? A) discussion B) compromising C) confronting D) avoidance
A) discussion Discussion is not a conflict resolution technique. Conflict resolution techniques are confronting (problem solving), compromising, withdrawal (avoidance), smoothing, and forcing.
72
In which situation would a unit price contract be most appropriate? A) When the scope is well-defined B) When the task size varies C) When a quantity of a deliverable is known D) When the work is similarly sized
D) When the work is similarly sized A unit price contract would be most appropriate for similarly sized bundles of work. Unit price contracts involve a buyer paying a fixed price for each work unit. It is a low-risk contract for both buyer and vendor. Examples of a unit price contract would be hours for consulting, lumber for building a house, and labor hours for a plumber.
73
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding barriers to communication between two or more organizations where cultural differences exist? A) Cultural discrimination implies actions taken to exclude another group from being treated the same way as the "dominant" culture. B) Cultural prejudice can have both positive and negative implications for a cultural group. C) Ethnocentrism is the belief that one's own culture is better than other cultures. D) Stereotyping is an uneducated and oversimplified portrayal of another race, ethnic group, or culture.
B) Cultural prejudice can have both positive and negative implications for a cultural group. Because you are looking for the FALSE definition, you should select the option that says that cultural prejudice can have both positive and negative implications for a cultural group. Cultural prejudices never have positive implications. It is necessary to be respectful and tolerant of cultural differences to aid effective communication.
74
If the cost variance and the schedule variance are both greater than zero, then: A) The labor rates have escalated since the project started. B) The cost variance is due to the schedule variance. C) The variance is favorable to the project. D) The project will face time and cost overruns.
C) The variance is favorable to the project. If the cost variance and the schedule variance are both greater than zero, the variance is favorable to the project. A positive cost variance states that the project is under budget. A positive schedule variance states that the project is ahead of schedule. When both are positive, then the variance is favorable to the project.
75
Which of the following is the BEST usage of real-time surveys and polls? A) Amassing complex information from a small group of people B) Gathering simple information from a large group of people C) Getting simple information from a small group of people D) Soliciting complex information from a large group of people
B) Gathering simple information from a large group of people The best usage of real-time surveys and polls is gathering simple information from a large group of people. As surveys and polls are flexible and quick enough to use, they can be placed on intranets and sent via email.
76
Your team has implemented a distributed system composed of a presentation layer, a logic layer, and a data layer. What is this arrangement called? A) CMS B) multitiered architecture C) data warehousing D) ERP
B) multitiered architecture A multitiered architecture ( also called n-tier ) is one in which the solution is distributed across multiple systems, with each performing a different function and operating at a different tier. In this example, it is a three-tier system, but multi-tier architecture can be four or two tiers as well.
77
Your current project can be summarized as: EV is 250,000 AC is 300,000 PV is 425,000 What is true about the project's schedule? A) It is proceeding at a rate of approximately 59 percent of the originally planned rate. B) It is proceeding at a rate of approximately 112 percent of the originally planned rate. C) It is proceeding at a rate of approximately 45 percent of the originally planned rate. D) It is proceeding at a rate of approximately 42 percent of the originally planned rate.
A) It is proceeding at a rate of approximately 59 percent of the originally planned rate. It is proceeding at a rate of approximately 59 percent of the originally planned rate. In this scenario, you are evaluating the schedule performance. First, you calculate the schedule performance index (SPI). The SPI can be calculated using this formula: SPI = EV / PV In this scenario, SPI would be calculated as SPI = 250,000 / 425,000 = .5882352, or approximately 59 percent. This means your project is proceeding at approximately 59 percent of the rate you originally planned. All of the other options are incorrect because they are not accurate statements about the project's schedule.
78
Before creating the schedule for a building construction project, Donald must define the dependencies between the project tasks. The piping and wiring by the project team must be completed prior to the start of drywall or sheetrock installation. Which type of dependency does this require? A) Mandatory internal dependency B) Mandatory external dependency C) Discretionary external dependency D) Discretionary internal dependency
A) Mandatory internal dependency This case requires a mandatory internal dependency. Mandatory dependencies involve physical limitations and contractual or legal obligations. Internal dependencies fall within the team's control and are based on the relationship between project activities and internal project resources
79
Lauren is managing a project that is near completion. All deliverables have been validated, and her stakeholders let her know today that the project is approved. Now that she can start closing the project, what does Lauren need to do NEXT? A) Reconcile budgets against actuals B) Validate all project deliverables C) Review the scope document to confirm deliverables D) Close out all contracts
D) Close out all contracts Lauren should close out all contracts as the next step in the closing process. This task can only start once all deliverables have been transferred and verified, and project approvals are obtained from stakeholders. Some activities that are part of closing out contracts include reviewing terms against the deliverables, submitting all purchase orders, confirming invoices are paid, and closing out expense reports
80
You need to determine the duration, costs, and resources required for individual work packages. Which of the following should you create? A) resource management plan B) project schedule C) earned value analysis D) work breakdown structure (WBS)
D) work breakdown structure (WBS) The work breakdown structure (WBS) is performed to determine the duration, costs, and resources required for individual work packages. It is a micro-level planning tool of project development. Each major activity is subdivided into tasks, and tasks are further subdivided into work packages
81
Which of the following measures is NOT an appropriate action for a project manager to take with respect to building trust? A) Inform all stakeholders when risks occur. B) Instruct the team to communicate with each other and stakeholders if problems arise. C) Confront team members in private to help resolve the issues. D) Document all issues and conflicts that arise in the project.
D) Document all issues and conflicts that arise in the project. Documenting all issues and conflicts that arise in the project is NOT an appropriate way for a project manager to build trust. Team members may see it as the project manager documenting issues to use against them later.
82
With respect to risk mitigation which of the following statements is correct? A) Risk mitigation is a process to decrease the risk to the company. B) Risk mitigation is a process to decrease the risk to the client. C) Risk mitigation is a process to decrease the risk to the project. D) Risk mitigation is a process to decrease the risk to the sponsor.
C) Risk mitigation is a process to decrease the risk to the project. Risk mitigation is a process to decrease the risk to the project's objectives, to ensure reduction of the possibilities that a threat or risk will occur, while also ensuring that the impact of a risk would be considerably reduced if it were to occur at all
83
Which of the following charts is a type of bar chart that shows the distribution of variables and their frequency, and is used during quality control? A) Gantt chart B) Run chart C) Scatter chart D) Histogram
D) Histogram A histogram is a type of bar chart that shows the distribution and frequency of each variable. It is used during quality control to track statistics over time that can be used to show the causes of problems. A special type of histogram, a resource histogram, tracks resource usage over time. An example of a histogram is shown in the following exhibit:
84
During a project review meeting, two team members argue over which is the best option for expediting the product development to meet the project deliverable date. You are the project manager, and you propose that both options be tried out to ascertain which one is the best to adopt. Which conflict resolution technique are you using? A) avoidance B) confronting C) compromising D) forcing
C) compromising You are using compromising. Compromising, also known as problem solving, deals with arriving at a solution that requires both the parties to give up some things and brings satisfaction to both the parties.
85
When is a contingency plan implemented during a project? A) After a low-priority risk occurs B) Before a risk occurs C) After a pre-defined trigger occurs D) After a low-priority issue occurs E) Before an issue occurs
C) After a pre-defined trigger occurs A contingency plan is implemented during a project when a pre-defined trigger occurs. Also called a risk contingency plan, backup plan, or fallback plan, a contingency plan is part of a contingent response strategy that details how to handle high-impact risks or issues if they occur
86
Rena is pulling her local team together to review a very large diagram of her company’s omnichannel retail experience. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use for this purpose? A) Pareto diagram B) Fishbone diagram C) Online whiteboard D) Printed poster
D) Printed poster A printed poster is the best tool to use for the purpose of reviewing a very large diagram. Print media, which includes materials such as brochures, manuals, flip cards, and posters, can come in handy in certain project situations.
87
The purpose of team-building activities is to: A) persuade team members to work extra hours B) connect team members emotionally C) comply with PMI guidelines of project management D) enhance team performance
D) enhance team performance The purpose of team-building activities is to enhance team performance.
88
A customer of NuTex, LLC approached them after hiring an analyst to write the requirements document for a new project. Joel Hall, the project manager, accepted the requirements document and started the project. Twenty resources were assigned to the team. However, after the system design was underway, Joel realized that several key requirements were poorly defined. As a result, the initial discussion of what the customer wanted did not match the requirements document. What are three potential sources of the scope mismatch? (Choose three.) A) The project management plan lacked a detailed scope statement. B) Requirements were not correctly gathered. C) The project manager did not caution the team members against gold plating. D) The project manager did not audit each team member's task as it was
A) The project management plan lacked a detailed scope statement. B) Requirements were not correctly gathered. C) The project manager did not caution the team members against gold plating. A) The project management plan lacked a detailed scope statement: The project manager's plan should have included a detailed scope statement to clearly define what was included and excluded from the project. Without this, there is no baseline for the team to work from, leading to confusion and mismatches later on. B) Requirements were not correctly gathered: The problem indicates the requirements were poorly defined, which points to a failure in the initial requirements gathering process. The analyst may not have spoken to the right people, asked the right questions, or documented the information accurately, leading to a mismatch with the customer's actual needs. C) The project manager did not caution the team members against gold plating: "Gold plating" occurs when the team adds features or functionality that were not part of the original requirements. By not cautioning the team, the project manager allowed for scope creep, where the project's scope expands beyond what was initially agreed upon, even if the additions seem beneficial.
89
John is developing the schedule of his first project. He has identified the project tasks, determined their duration, and determined the sequence in which the tasks can be executed. Now he has to create a diagram so that the stakeholders understand this sequence easily. Which of the following tools can John use? (Choose all that apply.) A) Gantt chart B) Project schedule network diagram C) Activity list D) Milestone list
A) Gantt chart B) Project schedule Gantt chart: A bar chart that visually displays the timeline of each task, including their start and finish dates, as well as dependencies between tasks, making it easy to understand the project sequence. Project schedule network diagram: A flowchart-like diagram that shows the logical sequence of tasks and their dependencies, visually illustrating how tasks are connected and which ones must be completed before others can start.