Practice Exam 3 Flashcards

(76 cards)

1
Q

An individual that believes they can profit from examining historical trading volumes (AKA ________________ analysis), does NOT believe in any form of _______________ Market Hypothesis.

A

Technical Analysis, Efficient Market Hypothesis.

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2
Q

In general, Efficient Market Hypothesis believes that all available information is already ______________ in a stock’s price.

A

Reflected

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3
Q

The semistrong form asserts that all technical analysis data and all other _____________ available information on the company, such as earnings reports, is ______________ in a stocks price.

A

Publicly, Reflected

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4
Q

The _______ form of the EMH asserts that a stocks price already reflects all information related to _______________ analysis, though ______________ analysis can still be useful.

A

Weak, Technical analysis, Fundamental analysis.

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5
Q

The _________ form asserts that all historical data and company information - publicly available and privately known only to ______________ is reflected in a stocks price.

A

Strong, Insiders.

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6
Q

It is ____________ for an investment advisor to lend money to a client, there are exceptions, one of which is that the client is _____________ with the investment adviser; employment is affiliation.

A

Prohibited, Affiliated.

The other exception to the lending rule would be if the IA is in the business of lending money as part of his business.

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7
Q

If a Canadian firm does not have an office in the states, and a Canadian client is temporarily in the states, the broker-dealer would need a _____________ registration in order to continue doing business with the client while in the states.

A

Limited Registration.
It is a very difficult process but worth it for a large client.

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8
Q

NASAA Model Rules define ______________ business practices to include, among other things, “providing a report… to any advisory client prepared by someone other than the adviser without disclosing that fact.”

A

Unethical

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9
Q

A ____________ _____________ relations order is a court judgment, decree, or order for a retirement plan to pay all or part of a retirement allocation to a spouse.

A

A qualified domestic relations order (QDRO)

The receiver of the benefits is taxed at his own rate, not that of the original plan participant.

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10
Q

An IA is obligated to try to get “best execution” on securities transactions for clients.
IA should consider:

A

Total cost, quality, execution capability, commission rate, financial responsibility, responsiveness to the adviser (not the client), and the value of any research services (soft dollar) provided.

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11
Q

Offer of rescission includes a ___________ of the original investment, along with a reasonable rate of interest, minus any income gained on the investment.

A

Return

Opportunity cost is never part of an offer of rescission.

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12
Q

Mutual funds with no sales charge can be called “___-______” only if they have 12b-1 fees of up to .25% of net assets.

A

No-Load

Investment advisors must disclose all breakpoints or ways that clients may reduce their sales charges. The qualifications of the fund managers are not necessary.

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13
Q

___________ persons involve employees, directors, officers, and fiduciaries with “access” to inside information about securities gained from working with or for an investment advisor. Such persons must report their securities holdings to the chief compliance officer within _______ days of gaining that access and then again at least annually.

A

Access Persons
10 days

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14
Q

If an investment advisor accepts $________ of prepaid advisory fees (or more) within the upcoming _______ months (or less), then the adviser is considered to have taken custody of client funds under NASAA’s interpretation.

A

$500
6 Months

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15
Q

The discounted cash flow (DCF) analysis is a valuation method based on the notion that the _________ of a company (and its stock price) can be calculated by summing the __________ value of its projected free cash flows.

A

Value
Present Value

DCF calculates the company’s projected cash flows.

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16
Q

Broker transactions, or transactions in which a firm helps to broker a deal between a buyer and a seller, are also known as ____________ transactions. They take place in the ____________ market, with the profits going to the investor who is selling the securities and not the issuer.

A

Agency transactions
Secondary Market

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17
Q

When a firm buys securities from a client or sells securities to a client from its own account, it is acting as a dealer and serving as _____________ to the trade. They are also __________ market transactions.

A

Principal to the trade.
Secondary Market transactions

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18
Q

Which of the following are considered when evaluating a customer’s tax status?

Age
Citizenship
Total earnings as of the last day of the tax period
Residency

A

Age, total earnings, and residency.

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19
Q

A TIPS is a Treasury Inflation Protection Security. The ____________ is adjusted upward by the ______________ rate each year, and at maturity, the holder receives the inflated principal amount.

A

Principal
Inflation Rate

$1000 inflated by 2.50% annually equals $1000 x 1.025 x 1.025 x 1.025 x 1.025 x 1,025 =$1,131
On a 5 year maturity
$1000 x 2.50% = 1025 $1000 x 1.025 = 1025

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20
Q

The Internal Rate of Return is the true yield maturity of an investment. The IRR of an investment assumes that cash flows generated by the investment are ______________ at the __________ rate of return.

A

Reinvested
Internal

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21
Q

A 15% ____________ deviation means that the investment return can vary _______ or ________ 15%.

A

Standard deviation
Plus or minus

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22
Q

The Standard and Poor’s 500 Index is based on the market _____________ of the 500 largest companies headquartered in the United States.

A

Capitalization

It is a large-cap index.

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23
Q

_________ literature is defined as a communication that goes to a __________ audience, including market and research reports, form letters that re not broadly distributed, password-protected websites.

A

Sales literature
Specific Audience

The difference between advertising and sales literature is how broad the intended audience is.

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24
Q

The RRR (Required Rate of Return) is the ___________ return that an investment must offer in order for someone to decide to buy it. A trader would buy a security if the expected rate of return was ___________ than the required rate of return.

A

Minimum return
Greater

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25
Which item is NOT included in a client’s income statement? Salary Insurance policy amount Interest from municipal bond investments Property taxes
Insurance policy amount. The cash value of whole or universal life insurance is included on the clients balance sheet as an asset.
26
An ETN is a type of ____________ product offered by a _________ that gives a return tied to a benchmark index. ETN’s give no interest or dividend payments, so they are not suitable for an investor seeking income.
Structured Bank ETNs are suitable for investors seeking long term capital gains.
27
A __________ bond is not a security; it is an insurance policy against theft or embezzlement by a person or individual.
Surety
28
The Prudent Investor Act requires that fiduciaries manage the assets of their beneficiaries based upon: _____________ portfolio theory.
Modern
29
There is no requirement to ____________ the commission charged to customers at the time of the trade or at the time of settlement. The only requirement is that the commission be disclosed on the trade ______________.
Disclose Confirmation
30
A broker-dealer buying IPO shares for its own or for employee accounts is “withholding the issue from sale to the public” with the intention of taking a “_______ ________” on the likely __________ price movement once the issue opens for trading in the market.
Free Riding Upward
31
Delivering a prospectus _______ the transaction settles is not __________.
After Allowed
32
A ___________ contract is NOT defined as a security.
Futures Contract Rights, Warrants, Options and ADRs are all securities.
33
In relation to NASAA’s Statement on Records Retention for Registered Investment Advisers, an RIA: Must retain both ___________ and ____________ e-mails.
Personal and Business
34
When information on a ____________ covered adviser’s Form ADV changes during the year, the FCA must __________ file an amended form.
Federal covered adviser Promptly File
35
A state-registered IA, has _______ days to file an amended Form ADV.
30 Days
36
Under the provisions of the Uniform Securities Act, the determinant of whether an IA can take custody of client funds is whether the IA has taken out a ________ bond.
Surety Bond The adviser must have a higher minimum net worth than advisors without custody.
37
A Securities Professional may be fined $_________ per violation of the Uniform Securities Act and receive up to _______ years of prison time per violation.
$5000 3 years
38
When a stock reaches its support level, it is _________ and investors are likely to start _________ it.
Oversold Buying it
39
___________ traded corporations usually register by filing.
Publicly
40
How is shareholders’ equity calculated on a company’s balance sheet? Subtracting total ___________ from total ____________.
Total liabilities from total assets.
41
Under NASAA rules, Investment Advisers must retain copies of all advertising for: ____ years, with the first ______ years kept in the principal office of the adviser.
5 years 2 years in the principal office.
42
A donor advised fund DAF allows investors to donate directly to a charitable fund but retain control over the assets. Donors get an ______________ tax deduction for amount contributed, but contributions are irrevocable. The donor decides when and how much to _________________ from the fund to various charities.
Immediate tax deduction Contribute
43
The Uniform Securities Act provides that State-registered advisers with offices in many States only have to comply with the record keeping rules set forth by the Administrator of the States in which the Adviser is _________________.
Headquartered
44
Federal covered advisers are required to register with _____
SEC
45
An investor would enter into a forward contract for the following reasons: to ____________ risk and to ____________.
Hedge risk Speculate
46
A mutual fund sales charge can be calculated by: ________________ the NAV from the ______ and then ____________ by the ________.
Subtracting the NAV from the POP and then dividing by the POP.
47
Time Weighted Return will be the same as Dollar Weighted Return for an individual customer that has a mutual fund holding if: actual _______ deposits into the mutual fund and actual ____________ out of the mutual fund are ignored.
Cash Withdrawals
48
Justin is a 20 year old intern, the company has him call local residents to tell them about QRSTs services and sign them up to their email list. He earns $5 commission when he signs someone up. Does Justin need to be registered in order to perform this task?
Yes, Justin is doing one of the tasks in the USA that requires registration: solicits, offers or negotiates for the sale of or sells investment advisory services.
49
A portfolio manager is constructing a portfolio of two stocks, and wants the stocks to be as uncorrelated as possible. Which of the following correlation values is best suited to the manager’s goals? -1 -0.5 0.1 1
0.1 At 0 there is no correlation, meaning stocks move independently of each other. At 1 stocks are perfectly correlated At -1 stocks opposite, if one goes up the other goes down.
50
Investment advisers that take custody of client securities must _____________ keep the securities in the care of a qualified custodian, such as a bank or broker-dealer.
Physically
51
Investment advisers must provide the qualified custodian’s _____________ information to their clients.
Contact
52
The IA’s must ensure that account ______________ are sent to their clients at least ___________, either by the qualified custodian or the investment adviser.
Statement Quarterly
53
The Administrator must be notified promptly in writing using Form _____ of when the adviser takes custody of the securities, not ____ days later but promptly.
ADV 30 days
54
Generally sales of mutual fund shares are considered ________ transactions because when an investor buys shares of a mutual fund, the shares are issued new, and when sold they are ____________ by the fund.
Issuer Redeemed A mutual fund decides to sell some of its securities out of its portfolio. THIS IS NOT AN ISSUER TRANSACTION because the shares are coming from the portfolio not the issuer.
55
A registered adviser in the state __________ say that he or she is approved or certified by the Administrator of the state.
CANNOT
56
A state securities Administrator has jurisdiction over transactions that ____________ in or are __________ to his state.
Originate Offered
57
A bond’s yield to maturity is most closely associated with its ____________ rate of _________.
Internal rate of Return
58
A company’s assets minus its liabilities is its:
Net Worth
59
The management style that a mutual fund’s portfolio manager will follow is described in the ______________ policy _____________.
The investment policy statement A mutual fund’s investment policy statement includes the types of investments, the managers investment goals, and the strategies used to meet those goals. It also includes management styles such as active, passive, growth, or value based investing.
60
An Administrator can ____________ subpoenas issued by another state administrator or regulatory agency requiring an individual or firm from its state to testify in an out-of-state hearing.
Enforce
61
________ accounts can include real estate and life insurance.
UTMA UTMA accounts can include real estate, life insurance, and annuities.
62
The Investment Company Act of 1940 defines three types of investments companies: management companies (open and closed-end funds are types of management companies) ______ Investment trusts, and _______ amount certificates.
Unit Face
63
If the securities mentioned in the advertisement qualify for an ______________, they do not need to be ___________ to be offered or sold.
Exemption Registered
64
A withdrawal request becomes effective ______ days after it is filed. After that, you are under the jurisdiction of the Administrator for _____ year.
30 days 1 year
65
A futures contract _____________ its holder to buy or sell an asset at a _________ price or time.
Obligates Fixed
66
A trustee has a fiduciary responsibility to the _______________ of the trust.
Beneficiary
67
The size quote of 10 x 10 = 10 round lots of 100 shares = 1000 shares both bid and offer.
New customers of the investment adviser must receive the “Brochure” at or prior to entering into an advisory contract. Existing customers must be sent an updated “Brochure” at least annually if there are material changes.
68
Advisers must retain most records for _____ years, and the first ______ years worth of records must be kept at the adviser principal _________.
5 years 2 years Office
69
________ weighted average return is the measure used for mutual fund performance charts.
Time weighted average return
70
The only policy that has fixed premiums, guaranteed cash value, and a fixed death benefit amount is _________ life insurance.
Whole
71
An IAR of a Federal covered adviser must register only in states where they maintain a ___________ __________.
Physical Office.
72
Under State law, no exemption from registration as an investment adviser is permitted if the firm’s advice relates solely to exempt securities, such as municipal. However, an adviser that gives advice solely about _________________ securities is exempt from registration.
U.S. Government Securities
73
As part of its business continuity plan, an investment adviser must designate a ___________ contact person who will contact regulators in case of business disruption.
Regulatory
74
Calculating the _________ of a portfolio is one of the most common ways to quantify an investment advisers performance.
Alpha
75
Pharmaceutical companies are _____________ and are not affected by the business cycle. In good times or bad, people must take prescribed drugs.
Defensive.
76
Investment Adviser registration applications filed with the SEC must be granted or a proceeding started to deny registration within ______ days of filing.
45 days