Practice Question Part 2 Flashcards by Cari Nicholas

Follicle stimulating hormone receptors are found on which of the following ovarian cell types?
Choose one answer.
a. Granulosa cells
b. Thecal cells
c. Stromal cells
d. Large luteal cells

a. Granulosa cells

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Connexin proteins play an important role in which of the following follicular events?
Choose one answer.
a. Dominant follicle selection
b. Activation of the second meiotic division
c. Maintaining intra-cellular connections between adjacent granulosa cells
d. Maintaining oocyte arrest

d. Maintaining oocyte arrest

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Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the anterior pituitary?
Choose one answer.
a. Luteinizing hormone
b. Thyroid stimulating hormone
c. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
d. Prolactin

c. Gonadotropin releasing hormone

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Primary follicle development involves which of the following changes?
Choose one answer.
a. Increase in oocyte volume and antrum formation
b. Granulosa cell proliferation and antrum formation
c. Meiotic changes in the oocyte and granulosa cell proliferation
d. Granulosa cell proliferation and an increase in oocyte volume

d. Granulosa cell proliferation and an increase in oocyte volume

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Which of the following tissue layers are common to all regions of the female reproductive tract?
Choose one answer.
a. Endothelial, basalis, muscular
b. Compactum, mucosal, serosa
c. Basalis, muscular, mucosal
d. Serosa, mucosal, muscular

d. Serosa, mucosal, muscular

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The LH surge is triggered under which of the following hormonal conditions?
Choose one answer.
a. Static estrogen and decreasing gonadotropin levels
b. Increasing FSH and high estrogen levels
c. High estrogen and moderate androgen levels
d. High estrogen and decreasing FSH levels

d. High estrogen and decreasing FSH levels

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The subunits of Activin and Inhibin combine to produce how many types of each protein?
Choose one answer.
a. Three inhibin; three activin
b. Two activin; three inhibin
c. Two activin; two inhibin
d. Two inhibin; three activin

d. Two inhibin; three activin

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It is estimated that the human female has approximately how many primordial follicles at menarche?
Choose one answer.
a. 450
b. 1,000-2,000
c. 2,000,000
d. 400,000

d. 400,000

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Select the stage of oocyte maturation that has the longest duration?
Choose one answer.
a. Secondary oocyte
b. Primordial oocyte
c. Oogonia
d. Primary oocyte

d. Primary oocyte

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Which of the following events takes place in the uterine tissue during the menstrual cycle?
Choose one answer.
a. Myometrial receptivity during the luteal phase
b. Endometrial proliferation during the luteal phase
c. Endometrial secretion and decidualization during the luteal phase
d. Myometrial differentiation during the follicular phase

c. Endometrial secretion and decidualization during the luteal phase

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Select the cell type(s) that express follicle stimulating hormone receptors in the follicle?
Choose one answer.
a. Granulosa cells
b. Stromal and basal cells
c. Thecal cells
d. Granulosa and thecal cells

a. Granulosa cells

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Which of the following describes the number of carbon atoms in progesterone?
Choose one answer.
a. 21
b. 22
c. 19
d. 18

a. 21

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hich of the following describes an example of cytoplasmic maturation?
Choose one answer.
a. Betaglycan secretion
b. Resumption of meiosis
c. Glutathione accumulation
d. Polar body extrusion

c. Glutathione accumulation

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Which of the following describes gonadotropin releasing hormone function in the adult female?
Choose one answer.
a. It is a heptapeptide produced by neurons in the hypothalamus
b. Its secretion is influenced by Kisspeptin
c. It is highly sensitive to negative feedback regulation by high levels of estrogen
d. It is secreted continuously and accumulated levels determine its effect on the anterior pituitary

b. Its secretion is influenced by Kisspeptin

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Select the answer that best describes a feature of infertility diagnosis and treatment?
Choose one answer.
a. > 25% of couples failing to conceive will have a diagnosis of male infertility
b. All women with tubal disease will benefit significantly from IVF treatment
c. Male age is not considered a determinant of treatment outcome
d. Delayed menstruation is due to pregnancy

a. > 25% of couples failing to conceive will have a diagnosis of male infertility

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1) DNA content of the zygote immediately after fertilization?
Choose one answer.
a. Duplicated haploid
b. Haploid
c. Diploid
d. Duplicated diploid

c. Diploid

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Human chorionic gonadotropin is best described by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. High levels persists for two months
b. It can bind to trophoblast receptors
c. It is produced by small thecal lutein cells
d. It is a trimeric protein

a. High levels persists for two months

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Glutathione is a marker of which of the following processes in the oocyte?
Choose one answer.
a. polar body extrusion
b. meiotic cleavage
c. cytoplasmic maturation
d. nuclear maturation

c. cytoplasmic maturation

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Human sperm gain the potential to fertilize an oocyte at which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. During their passage between the cumulus cells
b. While stored in the epididymis
c. During their passage through the female reproductive tract
d. Ejaculation

c. During their passage through the female reproductive tract

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Zygotic genome activation is considered to commence at which stage of human embryo development?
Choose one answer.
a. 18 hours post-insemination
b. Late 4-cell stage
c. Blastocyst stage
d. Late 2-cell stage

b. Late 4-cell stage

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Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of the events in the oocyte following fertilization?
Choose one answer.
a. Intracellular calcium release – protein lipase C release – pronuclear formation
b. Meiotic re-activation – intracellular calcium release – polar body extrusion
c. Meiotic re-activation – chromosome condensation – polar body extrusion
d. Intracellular calcium release -meiotic re-activation – separation of chromatids

d. Intracellular calcium release -meiotic re-activation – separation of chromatids

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At fertilization, the human sperm contributes which of the following organelles to the oocyte?
Choose one answer.
a. A centriole and nuclear DNA
b. A centriole and the pericentriolar material
c. Mitochondria and the acrosome
d. Nuclear DNA and the acrosome

a. A centriole and nuclear DNA

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Polyploidy in the fertilized egg may result from which of the following events?
Choose one answer.
a. A cracked zona pellucida
b. Absence of actin microfilaments
c. Failure of protamine removal in the male pronucleus
d. Premature cortical granule exocytosis

a. A cracked zona pellucida

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The frequency of embryo cell cleavage is most appropriately described by which of the following?
Choose one answer.
a. At a constant frequency
b. Gradually become less frequent
c. Infrequent followed by a more frequent cell cleavage rate
d. Fluctuating in frequency

c. Infrequent followed by a more frequent cell cleavage rate

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Human embryo implantation can be divided into phases that occur in which order? Choose one answer. a. endometrial trophectoderm interation – invasion – adhesion – digestion b. hatching – apposition – invasion – syncytialization c. adhesion – apposition – hatching – invasion d. blastocoel formation – digestion – invasion - adhesion

b. hatching – apposition – invasion – syncytialization

Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens results from which of the following causes? Choose one answer. a. Androgen insensitivity b. Failure of the abdominal phase of testicular descent c. An ion transport deficiency d. Endocrine disruptors

c. An ion transport deficiency

In congenital absence of the seminal vesicles, what would be missing? Choose one answer. a. testosterone b. mucus c. fructose d. carnitine

c. fructose

Which of the following describes a patient with Klinefelter syndrome? Choose one answer. a. XO b. AZFc deletion c. Azfa or b deletion d. XXY or XX/XXY

d. XXY or XX/XXY

Which of the following describes changes occurring in the spermatozoon in the female reproductive tract? Choose one answer. a. increase in adenyl cyclase activity b. dephosphorylation of spermatozoal proteins c. stabilization of the surface membrane d. decrease in internal calcium levels

a. increase in adenyl cyclase activity

Which of the following structures is involved in flagella movement? Choose one answer. a. mitochondrial sheath b. centriole c. axoneme d. posterior ring

c. axoneme

Which of the following would describe a role estrogen plays in regulating spermatogenesis? Choose one answer. a. estrogen may decrease GnRH pulse frequency at the hypothalamus b. estrogen may increase pituitary responsiveness to GnRH c. estrogen may increase GnRH pulse frequency at the pituitary d. estrogen promotes testosterone production by upregulating aromatase

a. estrogen may decrease GnRH pulse frequency at the hypothalamus

Spermiogenesis is defined by which of the following processes? Choose one answer. a. the decent of the testis into the scrotum during development b. acrosome and flagellar formation and sperm head condensation c. mitosis, meiosis, differentiation d. the release of the mature spermatozoa into the lumen of the seminiferous epithelium

b. acrosome and flagellar formation and sperm head condensation

Spermatogenesis is defined by which of the following processes? Choose one answer. a. acrosome and flagellar formation and sperm head decondensation b. the release of the mature spermatozoa into the lumen of the seminiferous epithelium c. mitosis, meiosis, differentiation d. the decent of the testis into the scrotum during development

c. mitosis, meiosis, differentiation

Which of the following is NOT associated correctly? Choose one answer. a. diploid - spermatid b. spermatogonia - seminiferous epithelium c. spermatocyte - meiosis d. testosterone - Leydig Cell

a. diploid - spermatid

How often is a new cycle of spermatogenesis (cycle of seminiferous epithelium) initiated by the spermatogonia? Choose one answer. a. 75 days b. 15-16 days c. 7 days d. 1 day

b. 15-16 days

Spermiogenesis results in proliferation of spermatogonia type A. Choose one answer. a. False b. True

a. False

What cell gives rise to the primary spermatocyte? Choose one answer. a. spermatogonia B b. spermatid c. Sertoli cell d. spermatogonia C

a. spermatogonia B

The acrosome is formed from what part of the spematid? Choose one answer. a. centrosome b. nucleolus c. nucleus d. Golgi apparatus

d. Golgi apparatus

Which of the following is ordered in the correct sequence of events? Choose one answer. a. FSH - spermatogonia - spermatid b. prolactin - Sertoli cell - spermatogonia c. LH - Leydig cells - testosterone d. FSH - Sertoli cell - testosterone

c. LH - Leydig cells - testosterone

The bulk of the seminal fluid is contributed by what gland? Choose one answer. a. epididymis b. prostate c. seminal vesicles d. Cowper glands

c. seminal vesicles

Differentiation of spermatozoa into cells capable of motility occurs where? Choose one answer. a. seminal vesicles b. rete testis c. seminiferous epithelium d. epididymis

d. epididymis

Karyotype analysis on infertile couples can explain what approximate percentage of infertility? Choose one answer. a. 8-12% of Y chromosome microdeleted men b. only Turner and Klinefelter men and women c. 11% of infertile couples d. 4% of men with strict morphology defects

c. 11% of infertile couples

A male factor patient is evaluated. Based on the initial examination and laboratory tests, it is suspected that the patient may be taking anabolic steroids. Which of the following would support this diagnosis? Choose one answer. a. decreased intratesticular testosterone, high LH, high FSH b. increased intratesticular testosterone, low LH, high FSH c. small testes, high LH, low FSH d. small testes, low LH, low FSH

d. small testes, low LH, low FSH

In a semen analysis report, hypospermia reflects which of the following conditions? Choose one answer. a. decreased ejaculate volume b. low cellularity of the seminiferous epithelium c. increased ejaculate volume d. a semen sample delivered to the laboratory cooled on ice

a. decreased ejaculate volume

Which of the following methods to determine semen volume is acceptable in WHO 5th edition? Choose one answer. a. measuring the volume directly by sequential use of two volumetric pipets and, provided the two volumes are within 10%, reporting the average b. calculating the volume by subtracting the tare weight from the post-collection specimen container weight and assuming the density of semen is 1 g/mL c. pipetting the sample from the collection container up into a volumetric pipet and measuring the volume from the markings on the volumetric pipet d. calculating the volume of the cylinder using the equation πr3h

b. calculating the volume by subtracting the tare weight from the post-collection specimen container weight and assuming the density of semen is 1 g/mL

What is considered the lower reference limit for normal sperm morphology according to WHO 5th edition? Choose one answer. a. 4% normal forms b. 14% normal forms c. 50% normal forms d. 30% normal forms

a. 4% normal forms

Which of the following is not used to perform a sperm count? Choose one answer. a. capillary chamber b. microcell slide c. neubauer hemocytometer chamber d. makler chamber

a. capillary chamber

Necrozoospermia refers to which of the following? Choose one answer. a. high percent of abnormal sperm b. low sperm motility c. sperm with bent necks d. non viable sperm

d. non viable sperm

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of the CASA systems for semen analysis? Choose one answer. a. measurements are consistent b. they are accurate at all sperm concentrations c. they provide motion characteristics of the sperm d. they are objective and reproducible

b. they are accurate at all sperm concentrations

The semen analysis should be performed? Choose one answer. a. after the semen has been refrigerated for 30 minutes b. within 1 hour of ejaculation c. by the gynecologist d. only by the lab director

b. within 1 hour of ejaculation

According to WHO 4th edition, which of the following is the recommended period of abstinence for a semen analysis? Choose one answer. a. a minimum of 3 days but no longer than 7 days b. a minimum of 2 days but no longer than 5 days c. a minimum of 7 days d. a minimum of 48 hours but no longer than 7 days

d. a minimum of 48 hours but no longer than 7 days

Which of the following statements is NOT a recommended practice for performing a semen analysis? Choose one answer. a. masturbation is the preferred method of collecting a semen sample b. sperm motility should be analyzed within one hour of specimen collection c. wet prep analysis should be performed prior to objective analysis of sperm count, motility and kinetics d. if collected at home, semen samples should be placed on ice for delivery to the laboratory

d. if collected at home, semen samples should be placed on ice for delivery to the laboratory

A patient presents with semen analysis results as follows: Count 17 X 106/ml Motility 30% Morphology 8% normal forms Choose one answer. a. teratozoospermic b. normal c. oligoteratozoospermic d. asthenozoospermic

d. asthenozoospermic

The presence of sperm agglutination may be indicative of which of the following? Choose one answer. a. teratozoospermia b. Prolonged abstinence period c. Presence of antisperm antibodies d. pyospermia

c. Presence of antisperm antibodies

What is considered the lower reference limit for normal sperm motility according to WHO 5th edition? Choose one answer. a. 32% progressive motility b. 30% motility c. 50% motility d. 35% total motility

a. 32% progressive motility

Which of the following test is used to measure antisperm antibodies in serum, seminal plasma or cervical mucus? Choose one answer. a. sperm penetration test b. sperm chromatin structure assay c. indirect immunobead test d. direct immunobead test

c. indirect immunobead test

The following statements about cervical mucus are FALSE? Choose one answer. a. acts as a sperm reservoir, gradually releasing sperm over time b. provides energy sources for sperm c. protects sperm from the hostile acidic environment of the vagina d. initiates the sperm acrosome reaction

d. initiates the sperm acrosome reaction

Which of the following sperm function test measures the ability of sperm to transport fluid? Choose one answer. a. hemizona binding test b. acrosome reaction test c. hypo-osmotic swelling test d. sperm penetration test

c. hypo-osmotic swelling test

Which hormones are responsible for producing copious amounts of thin, clear, acellular and alkaline cervical mucus? Choose one answer. a. Estradiol b. Progesterone c. prolactin d. testosterone

a. Estradiol

Which of the following can be induced by exposing sperm to calcium ionophores in vitro? Choose one answer. a. capacitation b. hyperactive motility c. acrosome reaction d. Hypo-osmotic swelling

c. acrosome reaction

What does sperm chromatin structure assays measure? Choose one answer. a. Presence or absence of the Y chromosome in sperm b. The acrosome reaction c. Capacitation of sperm d. DNA fragmentation in sperm

d. DNA fragmentation in sperm

The presence of circulating antisperm antibodies in men is most often associated which of the following? Choose one answer. a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Ciliary dyskinesia c. Vasectomy d. Hirsutism

c. Vasectomy

What does the sperm penetration assay measure? Choose one answer. a. Fertilization potential of sperm b. Ability of the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida c. Sperm motility d. Sperm morphology

a. Fertilization potential of sperm

The sperm penetration assay is performed by using which of the following? Choose one answer. a. Zona pellucida obtained from human ova that failed to fertilize in vitro b. Seminal plasma c. Zona-free hamster eggs d. Serum

c. Zona-free hamster eggs

Which of the following tests are used to measure the presence or absence of antisperm antibodies? Choose one answer. a. Immunobead test b. Sperm penetration assay c. Semen analysis d. Sperm TUNEL assay

a. Immunobead test

A sperm sample intended for ICSI has been treated with 3 mM pentoxyfylline. One hour later the motility is 0%. What is the most likely explanation for this finding? Choose one answer. a. ejaculated sperm do not respond to pentoxyfylline b. the PVP in the ICSI medium adversely reacted with the pentoxyfylline c. the period of time between treatment and use was too long d. 3 mM pentoxyfylline is an inappropriate concentration

3 mM pentoxyfylline is an inappropriate concentration

If ICSI is used, which of the following events in the fertilization process is no longer required? Choose one answer. a. protamine replacement b. syngamy c. the acrosome reaction d. phospholipase C release from the sperm

c. the acrosome reaction

Which of the following is true regarding semen processing methods? Choose one answer. a. there is increased DNA fragmentation after density gradient centrifugation compared to the swim up method b. there is a higher proportion of motile sperm after a simple wash compared to the swim up method c. a 100% density gradient completely removes non-motile sperm d. there is decreased DNA fragmentation after density gradient centrifugation compared to simple wash

d. there is decreased DNA fragmentation after density gradient centrifugation compared to simple wash

Sperm preparation (washing) prior to intrauterine insemination is performed for several reasons. Which of the following is not beneficial following gradient separation for intrauterine insemination? Choose one answer. a. removal of decapacitation factors b. isolation of motile sperm, and usually a higher percentage of normal morphological forms c. reduction of seminal pathogen concentration d. all of the above are beneficial

d. all of the above are beneficial

Capacitation of spermatozoa in vitro results in several structural/physiological changes. Which of the following changes is/are associated with capacitation of human spermatozoa in vitro? Choose one answer. a. removal or efflux of unesterified cholesterol from the membrane b. tyrosine phosphorylation (protein modification) c. fenestration of the phospholipid membrane d. all of the above

d. all of the above

The pH of culture media can be managed by the use of one or more buffer systems, representing the two broad categories of buffers that are available in commercial human gamete/embryo culture media. Which of the following buffer systems are available for human gamete/embryo culture commercially? Choose one answer. a. phosphate buffer system b. MOPS buffer system c. HEPES buffer system d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Calculate the efficiency of motile sperm recovery following gradient separation preparation for the following: Pre-wash analysis is 2.5ml semen volume, 120.0m/ml sperm concentration and 50% motility. Post-wash analysis is 0.5ml volume, 40m/ml sperm concentration and 75% motility. Further, calculate how many micro-liters of this same post-wash sample would be needed to obtain 800,000 motile sperm for a conventional insemination procedure for IVF. Choose one answer. a. 10% motile sperm recovery efficiency; approximately 27ul b. 15% motile recovery efficiency; approximately 41ul c. 20% motile recovery efficiency; approximately 14ul d. 25% motile sperm recovery efficiency; approximately 54ul

a. 10% motile sperm recovery efficiency; approximately 27ul

Which of the following is/are markers for oocyte developmental competence? Choose one answer. a. transition from germinal vesicle stage to metaphase II b. ability to breakdown/remodel the sperm nuclear component c. mitotic progression, blastomere polarity and differentiation to blastocyst phenotype d. all of the above

d. all of the above

There are different methods to enhance or induce spermatozoa capacitation and/or increase qualitative motility. Which of the following methods can be used? Choose one answer. a. incubation of washed spermatozoa in a bicarbonate buffered medium with albumin at 37C under 5%CO2 for four hours b. incubation of washed spermatozoa with pentoxyfylline c. incubation of washed spermatozoa with prepared follicular fluid aspirates d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Direct microscopic evaluation, of cumulus enclosed oocytes or oocytes that have been stripped of cumulus, is only truly accurate for determining which of the following: Choose one answer. a. cytoplasmic maturation b. developmental competence c. mitotic competence d. nuclear maturation

d. nuclear maturation

In recent years, there have been numerous clinical reports and discussions regarding preventing transmission of seminal pathogens at time of intrauterine insemination or IVF, e.g., HIV, HepB/C, and so forth. Which of the following sperm separation methods guarantees removal of all pathogens from the final product? Choose one answer. a. multiple interface gradient separation b. swim-up separation c. multiple interface gradient separation followed by swim-up separation d. none of the above methods can guarantee removal of all pathogens

d. none of the above methods can guarantee removal of all pathogens

Which of the following procedures must be performed due to changes that occur in oocytes after vitrification? Choose one answer. a. Culture medium supplementation with growth factors b. Assisted hatching c. Oocyte activation d. ICSI

d. ICSI

Which of the following is the most accurate description of when a conventional insemination should be performed? Choose one answer. a. 4-6 hours after the time of oocyte retrieval b. Within 4 hours of the time of oocyte retrieval c. 40-42 hours after the patient was given their hCG injection d. Up to 40 hours after the patient was given their hCG injection

c. 40-42 hours after the patient was given their hCG injection

What is the typical percentage of polyvinyl pyrrolidone (PVP) by volume that is found in the solution used to immobilize and catch sperm cells for ICSI? Choose one answer. a. 3-5 b. 12-15 c. 17-20 d. 7-10

d. 7-10

Which one of the following would allow a laboratorian to most easily visualize the metaphase spindle in a mature oocyte? Choose one answer. a. An inverted microscope with phase contrast illumination b. A dissection microscope with dark field illumination c. Differential interference contrast (DIC) microscopy d. Polarized light microscopy

d. Polarized light microscopy

Which of the following has not been used to collapse blastocysts prior to vitrification? Choose one answer. a. Hypermolar sucrose solution b. ICSI needle c. Chymotrypsin d. Biopsy

Chymotrypsin

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding polar body biopsy? Choose one answer. a. d. Polar body DNA may degenerate before the biopsy can be performed b. Two separate biopsies are needed c. All embryo aneuploidies can be screened d. The procedure is technically difficult

c. All embryo aneuploidies can be screened

Which of the following is TRUE regarding blastocyst biopsy? Choose one answer. a. If the hole in the zona is large, the risk of pulling the whole embryo out of the zona in minimized b. Assisted hatching on day 2 or 3 allows the laboratorian to make the most precise hole in the zona without damaging cells c. Biopsied cells should be rinsed in PVP immediately after biopsy d. The biopsy pipette should have an inner diameter of 50-55µm

b. Assisted hatching on day 2 or 3 allows the laboratorian to make the most precise hole in the zona without damaging cells

During an ICSI procedure, which of the following critical components is NOT brought into the egg by the sperm cell? Choose one answer. a. Centriole b. Paternal genome c. Calcium lactate d. Phospholipase Czeta

c. Calcium lactate

Which one of the following is least likely to be used for assisted hatching? Choose one answer. a. Chymotrypsin b. Laser ablation c. Glass needle d. Acidified Tyrode’s medium

a. Chymotrypsin

Which of the following occurs rapidly in mature oocytes that are allowed to cool to room temperature? Choose one answer. a. Tubulin depolymerization b. Membrane polarization c. Premature cortical granule release d. Zona hardening

a. Tubulin depolymerization

When was the first successful IVF birth reported? Choose one answer. a. 1980 b. 1968 c. 1982 d. 1978

d. 1978

Clomiphene citrate is what type of stimulation protocol Choose one answer. a. hypothalamic stimulation b. direct stimulation c. assisted stimulation d. indirect stimulation

d. indirect stimulation

Exogenous stimulation requires an understanding of negative feedback mechanisms. Choose one answer. a. False b. True

b. True

Exogenous gonadotropin stimulation of a follicular wave will prevent which of the following? Choose one answer. a. atresia b. rupture c. ovulation d. maturation

a. atresia

Clomiphene citrate stimulation works by binding estrogen receptors of the hypothalamus preventing the negative feedback action of exogenous estrogen. Choose one answer. a. False b. True

b. True

Which of the following initiates the ovulatory process? Choose one answer. a. GnRH b. FSH c. hCG d. LH

d. LH

An antagonist binds to cell receptors triggering a response similar to the naturally occurring hormone. Choose one answer. a. True b. False

b. False

Which of the following ingredients is present in the highest molar concentration in embryo culture medium? Choose one answer. a. Water b. Amino acids c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Pyruvate

a. Water

Which one of the following ingredients would NOT be found in all commercial human blastocyst culture medium? Choose one answer. a. Amino acids b. Pyruvate c. Sucrose d. dAntioxidants

c. Sucrose

Which of the following is a known function of EDTA in culture medium? Choose one answer. a. Promotes free radical formation b. Helps embryos get through the 2-cell block c. Nutrient d. Stimulates glucose uptake

b. Helps embryos get through the 2-cell block

Which one of the following is measured by a Fyrite analyzer in the IVF laboratory? Choose one answer. a. VOC levels in air b. O2 concentration in the culture incubator c. C02 concentration in the culture incubator d. Particle counts in air

c. C02 concentration in the culture incubator

What is the usual life span of an oxygen sensor inside an embryo culture incubator? Choose one answer. a. 1 year b. 3-5 years c. 2-3 years d. 10 years

c. 2-3 years

A laboratory has set the gas phase in their embryo culture incubator to 9% CO2 in air and the pH of their culture medium is 7.25 after overnight equilibration. Which one of the following could explain this result? Choose one answer. a. The laboratory is located at high altitude b. The CO2 sensor in the incubator is being affected by high humidity c. The laboratorian mistakenly equilibrated handling medium (HEPES buffered) instead of culture medium d. The pH meter is reading too low

a. The laboratory is located at high altitude

Which one of the following enters and leaves the cells of the embryo by simple diffusion only (i.e. there is no carrier-mediated transport of the substance)? Choose one answer. a. Lactate b. Amino acids c. Glucose d. Pyruvate

a. Lactate

Which mechanism do embryos rely on to incorporate protein from culture medium? Choose one answer. a. Carrier-mediation b. Osmosis c. Endocytosis d. Phagocytosis

c. Endocytosis

A laboratory is preparing their own culture medium from raw chemicals. After completion, the osmolality of the medium is 280 mosmoles/Kg? Which statement best describes the medium? Choose one answer. a. The osmolality can be adjusted to the correct value by adding a few drops of dilute HCl b. The laboratorian needs to slowly add sodium bicarbonate to the medium until the correct osmolality is reached c. The medium has the correct osmolality for embryo culture d. Too much water was added to the medium

c. The medium has the correct osmolality for embryo culture

Which of the following combination of ingredients can be found in a commercial culture medium designed for embryo culture up to the 8-cell stage? Choose one answer. a. Only essential amino acids and alanine b. Only essential amino acids and glycine c. Only non-essential amino acids and the stable derivative of glutamine d. Only non-essential amino acids and taurine

c. Only non-essential amino acids and the stable derivative of glutamine

Which of the following statements is correct? Choose one answer. a. embryos have low glucose and high O2 consumption at cleavage stages b. embryos have high glucose and high O2 consumption at the blastocyst stage c. embryos have high glucose and high O2 consumption at cleavage stages d. embryos have low glucose and high O2 consumption at the blastocyst stage

a. embryos have low glucose and high O2 consumption at cleavage stages

Which of the follow components are found in every commercial culture medium designed for human embryo culture? Choose one answer. a. amino acids b. hyaluronic acid c. pyruvic acid d. penicillin and streptomycin

c. pyruvic acid

Which of the following cannot be used to perform QC on the CO2 level in you culture incubator? Choose one answer. a. gas analyzer b. pH meter c. hygrometer d. fyrite

c. hygrometer

Which of the following variables will not directly affect pH readings taken in culture medium under oil? Choose one answer. a. humidity b. temperature c. atmospheric pressure d. altitude

a. humidity

An embryologist drives a battery powered portable incubator from San Francisco (sea level) to Denver (altitude 1600m). The display reads 6% CO2 at the beginning of the journey. What will the display read at the end of the trip in Denver? Choose one answer. a. < 6% CO2 b. the displayed value will depend on the atmospheric pressure at the destination c. > 6% CO2 d. 6% CO2

d. 6% CO2

The term “pHi” refers to? Choose one answer. a. the pH inside the embryo b. the in vivo pH c. the pH in the culture medium d. the interval between medium pH and pH inside the embryo

a. the pH inside the embryo

Aneuploidy has been most associated with which of the following morphological anomalies? Choose one answer. a. Odd blastomere number b. Cleavage of the zygote before 27 hours post-insemination c. Cytoplasmic inclusions d. Multinucleation

d. Multinucleation

Effective embryo selection criteria include all of the following parameters EXCEPT? Choose one answer. a. Objectivity b. Ease of application c. Technical proficiency d. Standardization

c. Technical proficiency

Human blastocysts examined on day 5 post-insemination were observed to have approximately what ratio of inner cell mass to trophectoderm cells? Choose one answer. a. 1:3 b. 1:6 c. 1:10 d. 1:16

a. 1:3

Cleavage stage embryos commonly display which of the following features under the light microscope? Choose one answer. a. Clearly defined polar bodies b. A thinning zona pellucida c. Nucleated blastomeres d. Varying patterns of fragmentation

d. Varying patterns of fragmentation

Morulae are characterized by which of the following? Choose one answer. a. Prolonged cell division cycles > 24 hours b. A totipotent cell population c. An increased diameter compared to earlier cleavage stage embryos d. A polarized outer cell population

d. A polarized outer cell population

Embryos with the highest implantation potential are characterized by which of the following? Choose one answer. a. 10 or more cells on day 3 of development b. Large, eccentrically placed pronuclear structures c. Accumulation of small pockets of fluid late on day 4 post-insemination d. Early compaction on day 2 post-insemination

c. Accumulation of small pockets of fluid late on day 4 post-insemination

Which of the following statements is consistent with the observed rates of aneuploidy in human gametes and embryos? Choose one answer. a. Aneuploidy can occur in embryos from women of all ages b. A significant incidence of aneuploidy is evident in sperm from older males c. Trisomy of chromosomes 21 and 18 are the most common genetic errors d. Aneuploidy in the oocyte arises mostly during the completion of the second meiotic division

a. Aneuploidy can occur in embryos from women of all ages

Embryos with 50% or more fragmentation are most likely associated with which of the following? Choose one answer. a. Polyploidy b. Abnormal sperm parameters c. Unfavorable culture conditions d. Arrested development

d. Arrested development

Developmental failure in human embryos occurs most frequently at which stages of development? Choose one answer. a. Cleavage of the zygote and blastulation b. Third mitotic division and blastulation c. Second meiotic and second mitotic divisions d. Fertilization and the second mitotic division

b. Third mitotic division and blastulation

Metabolomic analysis of embryos has been investigated as a technique to assess which of the following? Choose one answer. a. Protein profiling b. Establishment of developmental milestones c. An embryos well-being d. RNA expression profiling

c. An embryos well-being

At transfer where should the embryo be placed in the uterine cavity? Choose one answer. a. 1-3mm from the fundus b. Into the endometrium c. More than 1/3 but less than ½ the way into the uterus d. Just beyond the internal os

c. More than 1/3 but less than ½ the way into the uterus

Cramping is an adequate indicator for uterine contractility? Choose one answer. a. False b. True

a. False

When is mucus on a catheter after a transfer a problem? Choose one answer. a. When there is a large amount on the outside of the catheter b. Where there is some within the catheter c. Mucus on the catheter is always a problem d. A little mucus is always expected an is not a problem

b. Where there is some within the catheter

Which of the following statements are true regarding microorganisms found in the female reproductive tract at transfer? Choose one answer. a. The presence of any type of microbes are detrimental to implantation b. The presence of H2O2 producing Lactobacillus enhances implantation c. The presence staph viridans increases implantation d. There are naturally many forms of microorganisms in the female tract and they have no impact on implantation

b. The presence of H2O2 producing Lactobacillus enhances implantation

When do women typically resume normal progesterone production after transfer? Choose one answer. a. Around three weeks after transfer b. Progesterone supplementation is not required after transfer c. Around one week after transfer d. Around six weeks after transfer

a. Around three weeks after transfer

A patient with globozoospermia would like to attempt a conventional insemination with 100,000 sperm per oocyte during an IVF cycle. The patient would be advised that the sperm are likely to fail at which of the following stages? Choose one answer. a. binding to the zona pellucida b. forming pronuclei c. activating the oocyte after fertilization d. fusing with the oolemma

a. binding to the zona pellucida

Globozoospermia can result from which type of deficiency? Choose one answer. a. gene dosage change of DPY19L2 b. gene dosage change of SHOX c. Y chromosome microdeletion of spermatogenesis associated genes in AZFc d. mutation of genes affecting the centrioles and axonemal complex

a. gene dosage change of DPY19L2

Why is identification of translocations present in fertile men and women important for couples? Choose one answer. a. translocations are associated with SHOX syndrome b. balanced translocation in the infertile individual may result in unbalanced translocations in the offspring c. translocations cause Klinefelter syndrome d. translocations cause XYY male syndrome

b. balanced translocation in the infertile individual may result in unbalanced translocations in the offspring

Most chromosomal aneuploidies occur: Choose one answer. a. after the first and second meiotic division b. during mitosis c. before the first and second meiotic division d. during the first and second meiotic division

d. during the first and second meiotic division

Nuclear conversion allows the examination of chromosomes in Choose one answer. a. anaphase b. telophase c. metaphase d. prophase

c. metaphase

Comparative genomic hybridization is a new technique related to FISH providing information on the relative copy number of all chromosomal regions larger than 20Mb in less than 48hr. Choose one answer. a. False b. True

a. False

The sensitivity of detection of fluorescent-PCR is greater than PCR by which of the following? Choose one answer. a. 1,000 fold b. 100 fold c. 10,000 fold d. 10 fold

a. 1,000 fold

ICSI is necessary in patients affected by a single gene disorder. Choose one answer. a. False b. True

b. True

Which of the following cryoprotectants is routinely used in slow freezing protocols for sperm cells? Choose one answer. a. DMSO b. PrOH c. Glycogen d. Glycerol

d. Glycerol

Which one of the following statements is TRUE? Choose one answer. a. For fertility preservation, the WHO manual (5th edition) recommends freezing for men with any motile sperm in their specimen b. Embryo grade or quality is not a critical component in the success of a blastocyst cryopreservation program c. Sperm survival after freezing and thawing should be similar between males with high quality semen samples d. Vitrification has been shown to give higher rates of 2PN (zygote) survival when compared to slow freezing

a. For fertility preservation, the WHO manual (5th edition) recommends freezing for men with any motile sperm in their specimen

A laboratorian is making up a solution for which one of the ingredients is fresh chicken egg yolks. What will this solution be used for? Choose one answer. a. Vitrification of chicken embryos b. Slow freezing of sperm c. Vitrification of 2PN zygotes d. Slow freezing of blastocysts

b. Slow freezing of sperm

A laboratorian is using a commercial embryo vitrification solution that contains DMSO and 1,2-propanediol as its primary cryoprotectants. Which additional cryoprotectant is the solution likely to contain? Choose one answer. a. Glycerol b. Raffinose c. Glucose d. Sucrose

d. Sucrose

How many steps (or solutions) are typically used in an oocyte vitrification protocol? Choose one answer. a. 1 b. 4 c. 2 d. 3

c. 2

According to the WHO laboratory manual for the examination and processing of human semen, 5th Edition, what is the average expected survival of motile sperm cells after freezing and thawing? Choose one answer. a. 70% b. 50% c. 80% d. 60%

b. 50%

Which one of the following is a disadvantage to using plastic straws for vitrification of embryos? Choose one answer. a. Occupy too much storage space b. Poor thermal conductivity c. May transmit viruses d. Difficult to seal

b. Poor thermal conductivity

A laboratorian is having trouble with straws exploding after vitrification and during warming. Which of the following could NOT explain this problem? Choose one answer. a. The straws are being cooled too rapidly during vitrification b. Weaknesses in the straw walls causing cracking and leaking during storage and handling c. The straws are not certified by the manufacturer for vitrification d. The straws are not being sealed completely prior to vitrification

a. The straws are being cooled too rapidly during vitrification

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding sperm cryopreservation? Choose one answer. a. Glycerol is the most commonly used cryoprotectant b. Sperm have a high surface area to volume ratio c. The HOS test can be used to identify live sperm after cryopreservation d. Sperm contain less total intracellular water than many other cells

c. The HOS test can be used to identify live sperm after cryopreservation

According to the WHO laboratory manual for the examination and processing of human semen, 5th edition, how many sperm samples should be cryopreserved and stored by men undergoing elective fertility preservation? Choose one answer. a. 10 b. The WHO manual does not make a specific recommendation on how many samples to store c. Enough normal specimens for 10 or more inseminations d. 5

c. Enough normal specimens for 10 or more inseminations

Which of the following best describes frozen tissue that that has not yet been characterized as being suitable for transplantation? Choose one answer. a. Transplant only with consent b. Quarantined c. Ready for discard d. Hazardous

b. Quarantined

A laboratory is tracking a specific data point. It is described as a simple and easy to perform measurement, it is useful, it is reliable, it is not influenced by external factors and it measures the outcome of a specific process. How is this piece of data best defined? Choose one answer. a. Quality assurance b. Quality control c. Functional control d. Key performance indicator

d. Key performance indicator

A laboratorian is creating a temperature log for a new room in which a hormone analyzer is going to be installed. How should the acceptable temperature range for the room be established? Choose one answer. a. The range should be established based on the analyzer manufacturer’s operating specifications b. The range should be consistent with the temperature ranges in other rooms in the facility c. The laboratory director should be asked what they think is an acceptable range d. The laboratorian should choose a range that is comfortable for the employees to work in

a. The range should be established based on the analyzer manufacturer’s operating specifications

Which of the following best describes the goal of continually striving to achieve higher standards in all aspects of service provision within the embryology laboratory? Choose one answer. a. Quality assurance b. Quality control c. Benchmarking d. Quality improvement

d. Quality improvement

When is an andrology laboratory NOT required perform a bioassay on specimen cups? Choose one answer. a. If the cups have been already been certified by the manufacturer b. If the cups are purchased independently by patients and used to collect samples at home c. If the cups are FDA approved for collecting semen d. If the cups are supplied by a trusted manufacturer

c. If the cups are FDA approved for collecting semen

Which of the following best defines the closeness of the agreement of a test result with the true value? Choose one answer. a. Reliability b. Repeatability c. Preciseness d. Accuracy

d. Accuracy

What type of error will occur if a laboratorian only counts a limited number of spermatozoa? Choose one answer. a. Systematic b. Sampling c. Control d. Random

b. Sampling

A laboratory makes and uses video recordings of sperm samples as part of their daily QC for semen analyses. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the use of these recordings? Choose one answer. a. They should be of a magnification similar to that observed in the microscope when actual patient specimens are observed b. They can be used for routine QC of sperm motility c. The use of a camera and screen for routine specimen assessments, at the same magnification and contrast as the video recordings, increases the validity of the recordings for QC d. They can be used for proficiency testing

d. They can be used for proficiency testing

What is best defined by the following statement: A program that defines that policies and processes consistently conform to requirements for quality? Choose one answer. a. Quality assurance b. Quality improvement c. Quality control d. Quality management

a. Quality assurance

Look at the list of 5 items below. How are these items best defined? 1. Oocyte damage rate 2. ICSI fertilization rate 3. Percentage of embryos that are high quality on Day 3 4. Percentage of zygotes that become blastocysts 5. IUI clinical pregnancy rate Choose one answer. a. Key performance indicators b. Quality control measures c. Intra laboratory quality controls d. Clinical outcome standards

a. Key performance indicators

Aneuploidy has been most associated with which of the following morphological anomalies? Choose one answer. a. Cytoplasmic inclusions b. Odd blastomere number c. Multinucleation d. Cleavage of the zygote before 27 hours post-insemination

c. Multinucleation

Which of the following statements is consistent with the observed rates of aneuploidy in human gametes and embryos? Choose one answer. a. Aneuploidy can occur in embryos from women of all ages b. Trisomy of chromosomes 21 and 18 are the most common genetic errors c. A significant incidence of aneuploidy is evident in sperm from older males d. Aneuploidy in the oocyte arises mostly during the completion of the second meiotic division

a. Aneuploidy can occur in embryos from women of all ages

Which of the following is true for PGD? Choose one answer. a. It is not safer than elective termination b. It can test for something for which there is a known specific mutation c. It is less complex than PGS d. It can test for a copy number chromosome defect

b. It can test for something for which there is a known specific mutation

In order for a SNP profile to be potentially informative for identifying a linked marker for inheritance in an offspring what must be true? Choose one answer. a. One parent must be homozygous and one parent must be heterozygous b. The mother must be homozygous c. The father must be heterozygous d. Both parents must be homozygous

a. One parent must be homozygous and one parent must be heterozygous

Which of the following is NOT true regarding SNPs? Choose one answer. a. Occur normally throughout a person’s DNA b. Each SNP represents a single string of DNA responsible for an adverse mutation c. Most SNPs have no effect on health or development d. Are the most common type of genetic variation among people

b. Each SNP represents a single string of DNA responsible for an adverse mutation

Using the data below what is the status of the resultant embryo? A family presents for IVF with PGD. They already have an impacted child. SNP analysis reveals the following information: Impacted child Maternal A, B, D, mutation, H, I, k Paternal a, b, d, mutation, H, I, K Informative SNPs Maternal - D, H, k Paternal - a, b, I Obligate SNPs A, B, d, H, I, K Choose one answer. a. Affected b. Carrier – paternal contribution abnormal c. Normal d. Carrier – maternal contribution abnormal

c. Normal

Recombination can be a problem for PGD? Choose one answer. a. True b. False

a. True

What is a centimorgan? Choose one answer. a. The area of DNA around the centromere b. Distance between chromosome positions for which there is 1% chance of a crossover c. 100 base pares of DNA d. Areas of sister chromatids that crossover during recombination

b. Distance between chromosome positions for which there is 1% chance of a crossover

Which is true regarding mitochondrial DNA disorders? Choose one answer. a. The embryo is typically mosaic for the disorder b. PGD is the preferred method to diagnose c. They are inherited from the paternal DNA d. A diagnosis of a normal oocyte is highly predictive of a normal embryo

a. The embryo is typically mosaic for the disorder

The type of budget that is used for the continuous operation of an organization, and the primary budget employed by lab managers is: Choose one answer. a. forecast budget b. operational budget c. zero-based budget d. capitol budget

b. operational budget

A purchase order that requests that certain supplies be delivered automatically in the number and frequency requested is Choose one answer. a. standing order b. invoice c. goods and services order d. blanket order

a. standing order

A system of diagnostic codes which identifies a patient’s illness, injury or complaint is termed: Choose one answer. a. IRS codes b. CFR codes c. ICD-10 codes d. CPT codes

c. ICD-10 codes

Which of the following is a federal reimbursement plan that benefits people over the age of 65? Choose one answer. a. Affordable Care Act (ACA) b. Medicare c. Medicaid d. Blue Cross/Blue Shield

b. Medicare

Which of the following budgets include items such as salaries and benefits which are increased or decreased on the basis of the previous years budget? Choose one answer. a. Zero-based budget b. Forecast budget c. Capital budget d. Operational budget

b. Forecast budget

Which of the following is TRUE regarding Social Security tax? Choose one answer. a. It is the same as unemployment compensation b. It is calculated as 7.65% of gross wages c. It can range from 25-35% of salary d. It is calculated only on overtime pay

b. It is calculated as 7.65% of gross wages

Which of the following costs change with production volume? Choose one answer. a. Production costs b. Indirect costs c. Variable costs d. Fixed costs

c. Variable costs

Which of the following is intended to cover the costs of inpatient hospitalization, hospice care, and home health care? Choose one answer. a. Medicare Part A b. Medicare Part B c. Medicare Part D d. Medicare Part C

a. Medicare Part A

Which of the following is a list of descriptive terms and identifying codes for reporting medical services performed by a physician? Choose one answer. a. ICD10 Codes b. BC/BS Codes c. CPT Codes d. AMA Codes

c. CPT Codes

Which of the following error influences values consistently in one direction? Choose one answer. a. Random error b. Active error c. Systematic error d. Latent error

c. Systematic error

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Stark law? Choose one answer. a. it limits the amount a laboratory can charge for a test over and above the amount the reference laboratory charges the referring laboratory b. it requires informed consent for patient participation in a medical research study c. it prohibits a physician from referring Medicare patients for testing to a laboratory with which the physician has a financial relationship d. it requires that a CLIA-certified laboratory refer specimens to reference laboratories that are certified for the test to be performed

c. it prohibits a physician from referring Medicare patients for testing to a laboratory with which the physician has a financial relationship

A plan to assist hospitals and laboratories in devising internal controls that foster adherence to federal and state laws is: Choose one answer. a. CLIA '88 b. quality control c. quality assurance d. model compliance plan

d. model compliance plan

Questions that are improper to ask during a potential employee interview include: Choose one answer. a. information related to previous sick leave from work b. how a particular disability occurred c. whether the applicant's family has illness d. all of the above

d. all of the above

Which of the following is NOT an example of an “Anti-kickback” violation? Choose one answer. a. a referral laboratory providing free pick-up and disposal of biohazardous waste unrelated to specimen collection b. a referral laboratory providing computers and fax machines used exclusively for sending results to the referral laboratory c. providing a phlebotomist who also performs other duties such as performing clerical services for the physician’s office d. a referral laboratory providing free laboratory testing for physicians, their employees or family members

b. a referral laboratory providing computers and fax machines used exclusively for sending results to the referral laboratory

The probability of correctly identifying a diseased patient as diseased is termed: Choose one answer. a. false negative b. sensitivity c. specificity d. false positive

b. sensitivity

Which of the following is FALSE regarding PPM testing? Choose one answer. a. The procedure must be categorized as highly complex b. PPM tests are those that performed only during the patients visit and on the specimen obtained during that visit c. Qualitative semen analysis can be considered a PPM test d. The procedure may be performed by a midlevel practitioner under the supervision of a physician

a. The procedure must be categorized as highly complex

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding proficiency testing? Choose one answer. a. In a very large laboratory, the supervisor is the only person who should perform and report the results of PT b. PT samples should be run in triplicate to ensure accuracy, even though the standard protocol calls for duplicate sample testing c. It is acceptable to send PT samples to a reference laboratory d. Once PT results have been reported, it is acceptable to use left-over samples for internal quality control procedures

d. Once PT results have been reported, it is acceptable to use left-over samples for internal quality control procedures

Who is responsible for evaluating the competency of all testing personnel and assuring that the staff maintain the competency at least semiannually in a laboratory performing high complexity testing? Choose one answer. a. General supervisor b. Testing personnel c. Technical supervisor d. Clinical consultant

c. Technical supervisor

How often should the competency of testing personnel be performed? Choose one answer. a. Every six months b. If test methodology changes c. Every three months during the first year of employment, and then annually d. At the time of employment, and then every 6 months

b. If test methodology changes

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the laboratory procedure manual? Choose one answer. a. Manufacturer’s package inserts may supplement, but not replace, procedures b. Procedures must be signed and dated by the director before use c. Old, outdated procedures must be destroyed to ensure that old procedures are not mistakenly followed d. Procedures must be re-approved and dated if directorship changes

c. Old, outdated procedures must be destroyed to ensure that old procedures are not mistakenly followed

What is the Clinical Laboratory Improvement Advisory Committee? Choose one answer. a. it is the regulation that governs the way clinical laboratories may bill for Medicare patients b. it is a committee of experts in laboratory services that advises and makes recommendations both technical and scientific to CMS regarding laboratory regulation c. it is the regulation that governs the testing of human tissues and fluids for the diagnosis, prevention, or treatment of disease d. it is a committee of CMS employees that implements the CLIA regulations

b. it is a committee of experts in laboratory services that advises and makes recommendations both technical and scientific to CMS regarding laboratory regulation

Which of the following laboratories are exempt from the CLIA regulation? Choose one answer. a. laboratories performing NIDA testing b. physician offices performing PPMs c. facilities in nursing homes performing blood testing for diabetes d. laboratories performing testing on prison inmates

a. laboratories performing NIDA testing

Tests covered under CLIA include; waived, moderate complexity, and high complexity. Choose one answer. a. False b. True

b. True

CLIA '88 regulations take precedence over state and local laws. Choose one answer. a. False b. True

a. False

Within what time period must a laboratory performing high complexity testing notify CMS of a change in technical supervisor? Choose one answer. a. within 5 business days b. within 30 days c. before the next inspection cycle d. there is no requirement to notify CMS of a change in technical supervisor

b. within 30 days

The laboratory must report to CMS within 30 days a change in: Choose one answer. a. laboratory general supervisor b. laboratory director c. laboratory telephone number d. laboratory clinical director

b. laboratory director

CLIA regulations allow for fines of up to $10,000 per day of violation for deficiencies that pose immediate jeopardy. Choose one answer. a. True b. False

a. True

Oral laboratory test requests are allowed if the laboratory receives written authorization within 60 days. Choose one answer. a. True b. False

b. False

Which of the following best describes a “Certificate of Registration”? Choose one answer. a. is given to laboratories performing high, moderate or waived testing after they have met the requirements for certification b. is given to laboratories performing only waived testing after they have met all requirements for certification c. is given to laboratories performing high, moderate, or waived testing after they have been approved by a private accreditation program approved by CMS d. is given to laboratories performing non-waived testing until they have met all the requirements for a certification of compliance

d. is given to laboratories performing non-waived testing until they have met all the requirements for a certification of compliance

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the requirement of notifying CMS of a change in the laboratory? Choose one answer. a. no later than 6 months after performing tests that are not included on the Certificate of Compliance b. within 6 months of change of laboratory ownership c. within 30 days after any deletions or changes in tests which are included on the Certificate of Compliance d. within 6 months of change in the laboratory director

a. no later than 6 months after performing tests that are not included on the Certificate of Compliance

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the proficiency testing (PT)? Choose one answer. a. PT documents must be kept for 5 years b. once PT results are reported, left-over samples must be destroyed and may not be used for routine QC c. the laboratory supervisor is the only person allowed to perform PT d. PT samples may not be sent to a reference laboratory for analysis and reporting

d. PT samples may not be sent to a reference laboratory for analysis and reporting

Which of the following is issued to the laboratory when it meets the standards of a private non-profit program approved by CMS? Choose one answer. a. Certificate of Waiver b. Certificate of Accreditation c. Certificate of Registration d. Certificate of Compliance

b. Certificate of Accreditation

Which of the following is NOT required to be included on a patient test requisition? Choose one answer. a. patient’s sex and age or date of birth b. date of specimen collection c. name and address of person performing the test d. patient’s name or unique ID

c. name and address of person performing the test

Which of the following laboratories are NOT required to follow the requirements of CLIA’88? Choose one answer. a. laboratories certified by the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA) in which drug testing is performed which meets NIDA guidelines b. laboratories that are accredited by COLA c. research laboratories that perform testing on human specimens and report patient specific results d. laboratories that are inspected by the College of American Pathologists (CAP)

a. laboratories certified by the National Institute on Drug Abuse (NIDA) in which drug testing is performed which meets NIDA guidelines

How long must OSHA training records of employees be maintained by the laboratory? Choose one answer. a. 2 years beyond employment b. 5 years c. 3 years from the date of each training session d. 2 years

c. 3 years from the date of each training session

Clinical laboratories should have three separate but coordinating plans, including a Bloodborne Pathogen Plan, a Hazardous Communication Plan, and a Chemical Hygiene Plan. Choose one answer. a. True b. False

a. True

According to OSHA regulations, the frequency with which gloves should be changed is most accurately described as which of the following? Choose one answer. a. twice per hour b. within 5 minutes after leaving the work area c. at least once per hour d. when they have been penetrated by blood or other potentially infectious materials

d. when they have been penetrated by blood or other potentially infectious materials

The laboratory safety officer is responsible for the writing and monitoring of the exposure control plans but not the training of the personnel in the proper handling of blood and body fluids. Choose one answer. a. True b. False

b. False

How soon must hepatitis-B vaccines be offered to new employees? Choose one answer. a. within 10 days of employment b. at orientation c. within 30 days of employment d. prior to starting in the laboratory

a. within 10 days of employment

How soon must gloves be replaced after contamination? Choose one answer. a. at the end of the shift b. prior to leaving the area c. as soon as practical d. immediately

c. as soon as practical

Which of the following is the definition of a pictogram? Choose one answer. a. phrase that describes recommended measures that should be taken to prevent adverse effects resulting from a hazard exposure b. word used to indicate the relative level of severity of hazard and alert the reader to potential hazard on label c. statement assigned to a hazard class d. composition that may include a symbol plus other graphic elements that is intended to convey specific information about the hazard of a chemical

d. composition that may include a symbol plus other graphic elements that is intended to convey specific information about the hazard of a chemical

Marks: 1/1 By which date must employers have trained their workers on the new label elements and the SDS format? Choose one answer. a. June 1, 2016 b. June 1, 2015 c. The date has not yet been set d. December 1, 2013

d. December 1, 2013

Which of the following is TRUE regarding hepatitis B vaccination? Choose one answer. a. Booster doses must be provided if recommended b. Vaccines must be available within the first week of initial employment c. Employers are only required to test employees 6 months and 12 months after exposure d. Employs may be required to pay for vaccines

a. Booster doses must be provided if recommended

According to OSHA, who is responsible for writing and monitoring an exposure control plan for the laboratory? Choose one answer. a. Laboratory director b. Laboratory safety officer c. Technical supervisor d. General supervisor

b. Laboratory safety officer

Which of the following is FALSE regarding standard (universal) precautions in the laboratory? Choose one answer. a. Assumes all used needles and sharps are contaminated b. Assumes all blood and body fluids are contaminated with HIV or HBV c. Considers all patients potentially infectious d. Only applies to patients that have been confirmed to be HIV positive

d. Only applies to patients that have been confirmed to be HIV positive

Which of the following is NOT a work practice control? Choose one answer. a. Handicap accessible lavatories b. Appropriate disposal containers c. Appropriate sharps containers d. Hand washing facilities

a. Handicap accessible lavatories

Which of the following is FALSE regarding personal protective equipment (PPE)? Choose one answer. a. Laboratories must provide required PPE to personnel at no charge b. PPE includes bandages applied to minor cuts and scrapes c. Home laundering of PPE is prohibited d. Gloves, masks and disposable gowns must be placed in red-bag lined containers after each use

b. PPE includes bandages applied to minor cuts and scrapes

When is employee training on blood-borne pathogens required? Choose one answer. a. Anytime a new director is hired b. Every six months c. Within 2 weeks of an exposure d. At the time of initial employment

d. At the time of initial employment

Practice Question Part 2 Flashcards

(209 cards)