OBGYN Exam 2 > Practice Questions > Flashcards

Practice Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the drug of choice for maintaining glycemic control in pregnant people with gestational diabetes when medication is necessary?

a. metformin
b. insulin
c. vitamin A
d. spironolactone

A

b. insulin

it does not cross the placenta

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2
Q

Cytomegalovirus can be passed through __________

a. semen

b. blood

c. the placenta

d. All of the above

A

d. all of the above

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3
Q

Prenatal screening for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is routinely performed.

true or false?

A

false

there is also no in utero treatment for CMV

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4
Q

A glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1C) level of 8% in a pregnant person with pregestational diabetes indicates that blood glucose levels are well controlled.

true or false?

A

false

it should be between 6-6.5%

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5
Q

Assessing the pregnant person with heart disease for cardiac decompensation is vital because their __________ impacts the health of the fetus.

a. blood type

b. hemodynamic status

c. cardiovascular output

d. cholesterol level

A

b. hemodynamic status

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6
Q

Breastfeeding the newborn is encouraged in a birthing parent with tuberculosis who is receiving medication therapy.

true or false?

A

true

as long as they are on a medication regimen

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7
Q

Only symptomatic pregnant people should be screened for group B streptococcus (GBS) colonization with a rectovaginal culture at 35 to 37 weeks’ gestation.

true or false?

A

false

everybody should be screened

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8
Q

Which of these is routinely offered to all older pregnant patients for early detection of chromosomal abnormalities.

a. A cesarean delivery

b. An IUD

c. A sputum test

d. Amniocentesis

A

d. amniocentesis

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9
Q

Acquired heart disease may be rheumatic in origin.
true or false?

A

true

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10
Q

Sickle cell disease is an autosomal recessive inherited condition resulting in a defective hemoglobin ____.

A

B

S

D

A

S

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11
Q

Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice to prevent seizures in a woman with severe preeclampsia.

true or false?

A

true

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12
Q

A decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid to less than 500 mL is termed ___________.

A

oligohydramnios

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13
Q

Placenta previa is a condition that is commonly associated with bleeding during the latter portion of pregnancy.

true or false?

A

true

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14
Q

Gestational hypertension can be differentiated from chronic hypertension, which appears before the ___ week of gestation.

A

20th

gestational HTN is after the 20th week

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15
Q

What does an RH negative woman need to receive after a spontaneous abortion?

A

RhoGAM

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16
Q

Apparent vaginal bleeding is a consistent finding in women with abruptio placentae.

true or false?

A

false

it happens in some cases, but not all

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17
Q

Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of morning sickness.

true or false?

A

true

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18
Q

The ovary is the most common site of implantation with an ectopic pregnancy.

true or false?

A

false

it is the fallopian tube

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19
Q

The two most common types of gestational trophoblastic disease are hydatidiform mole and ___.

A

choriocarcinoma

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20
Q

Hypertonic uterine dysfunction is more common in multiparous women.

true or false?

A

false

they are at higher risk for hypotonic dysfunction

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21
Q

The vertical incision is most commonly used for cesarean birth.

true or false?

A

false

the low transverse is the most common incision

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22
Q

Prolonged gestation is the most common reason for inducing labor.

true or false?

A

true

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23
Q

A ___________ cervix is shortened, centered, softened, and partially dilated.

a. complete

b. unripe

c. ripe

d. unfavorable

A

c. ripe

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24
Q

Bed rest on the right side enhances placental perfusion.

true or false?

A

false

lying on the left side enhances placental perfusion

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25
___ is defined as abnormal or difficult labor. a. Uterine dysfunction b. Precipitous c. Dystocia d. Protraction
c. dystocia
26
The nurse uses Leopold maneuvers to identify any deviations in fetal presentation or position. true or false?
true
27
___ drugs promote uterine relaxation by interfering with uterine contraction. a. Pitocin b. Steroidal c. Anti-anxiety d. Tocolytic
d. tocolytic
28
___ labor is one that is completed in less than 3 hours. a. Uterine dysfunction b. Precipitous c. Dystocia d. Protraction
b. precipitous
29
A person in labor experiences two types of pain: ___. a. visceral and somatic b. front and back c. contractions and cramping d. managed and unmanaged
a. visceral and somatic
30
The fetal stage is the first stage of fetal development during pregnancy. true or false?
false | the **prembryonic** stage is first
31
A pictorial analysis of the number, form, and size of a person’s chromosomes is termed ___________. a. genotype b. phenotype c. karyotype d. graphotype
c. karyotype
32
In the fetus, the ductus ___________ connects the main pulmonary artery to the aorta. a. arteriosus b. venosus c. ovale d. foramen
a. arteriosus
33
A person's observable outward characteristics are called their___. a. genotype b. chromosomes c. phenotype d. genome
c. phenotype
34
Genes are made up of chromosomes. true or false?
false
35
The chorion and amnion form the amniotic sac. true or false?
true
36
The respiratory system forms from the mesoderm. true or false?
false, it forms the endoderm
37
Sickle cell disease is an example of an autosomal __________ inherited disorder. a. mitochondrial b. structural c. dominant d. recessive
d. recessive
38
A person’s genome represents that person’s genetic blueprint. true or false?
true
39
The ideal time for genetic counseling is ___ conception. a. after b. before c. 1 to 5 days prior to d. 1 to 5 days after
b. before
40
Elevated hCG levels are a completely reliable sign of pregnancy. true or false?
false
41
The influence of progesterone leads to decreased peristalsis in the pregnant person. true or false?
true | it relaxes smooth muscle leading to decreased peristalsis
42
The compulsive ingestion of nonfood substances is termed ___. a. ARFID b. cravings c. pica d. OCD
c. pica
43
The recommended amount of weight gain during pregnancy is based on the number of fetuses you are carrying and your starting ___. a. body mass index (BMI) b. appetite c. age d. size
a. BMI
44
Presumptive signs of pregnancy are a positive indicator of pregnancy. true or false?
false
45
Oxytocin, responsible for uterine contractions, is released from the ___ pituitary gland. a. anterior b. posterior c. left d. right
b. posterior
46
During the first few months of pregnancy, estrogen stimulates uterine growth. true or false?
true
47
Pregnant people commonly experience the emotional response of ___ during the first trimester of pregnancy. a. depression b. compulsivity c. mania d. ambivalence
d. ambivalence
48
Fundal height is not a reliable indicator of gestational weeks after 36 weeks’ gestation. true or false?
true
49
The ____ is a unique endocrine gland with the ability to form protein and steroid hormones. a. thyroid b. pituitary c. placenta d. adrenal
c. placenta
50
There are no diagnostic tests to reliably determine the existence of premenstrual disorder. true or false?
true
51
Oral contraceptives work primarily by suppressing ovulation by adding ___ and ___ to the body a. estrogen and progesterone b. GnRH and estrogen c. progesterone and TSH d. LH and FSH
a. estrogen and progesterone
52
The absence of menses is called a. menopause b. amenorrhea c. anorexia d. PMD
b. amenorrhea
53
Most girls in the United States menstruate by the age 14. true or false?
false
54
Monitoring basal body temperature is an example of a ___ method of contraception. a. pharmacologic b. fertility awareness c. barrier d. intuitive
b. fertility awareness
55
The DEXA scan is a screening test for detecting ___. a. PMD b. endometriosis c. menopause d. osteoporosis
d. osteoporosis
56
The diaphragm is an example of a barrier method of contraception. true or false?
true
57
___ refers to a condition in which functioning endometrial tissue is found outside the uterine cavity. a. Cystitis b. Perimenopause c. Endometriosis c. Fibroids
c. endometriosis
58
Estrogen deficiency is commonly manifested by hot flashes and night sweats. true or false?
true
59
Bone loss accelerates in the third or fourth decade and declines rapidly after menopause. true or false?
false
60
The ___ method of preparing for labor involves the use of specific breathing and relaxation techniques. a. Alexander b. Lamaze c. natural d. doula
b. Lamaze
61
Urinary frequency is a common complaint during the ___ and third trimesters. a. first b. second c. final d. fourth
a. first
62
Increased vaginal discharge during the first trimester is a normal finding. true or false?
true | leukorrhea
63
Varicosities of the rectum, or ___, result from progesterone-induced vasodilation and the pressure of the enlarging uterus. a. fissures b. prolapse c. hemorrhoids d. flatulence
c. hemorrhoids
64
Food allergies are less likely to develop in a ___ baby. a. larger b. smaller c. bottle-fed d. breastfed
d. breastfed
65
The heat associated with saunas and hot tubs may cause fetal ___. a. pericardium b. contractions c. kicks d. tachycardia
d. tachycardia
66
At 12 weeks’ gestation, the uterine fundus can be palpated at the umbilicus. true or false?
false | it is palpable near the pubic symphysis
67
Nagele’s rule to determine the expected date of birth is less accurate for women with irregular menstrual cycles. true or false?
true
68
The optimal time for alpha-fetoprotein screening is 16 to 18 weeks of gestation. true or false?
true
69
A contraction stress test is commonly performed in place of a biophysical profile. true or false?
false
70
Chlamydia is the most common bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI) in the United States.
True
71
The vaccine for human papillomavirus is designed to prevent A) ovarian cancer. B) syphilis. C) cervical cancer. D) pregnancy.
cervical cancer
72
When the CD4 T-cell count reaches _____ or less, a person is considered to have AIDS. A) 500 B) 400 C) 300 D) 200
200
73
The most effective treatment for syphilis is erythromycin.
False. It's Penicillin
74
If vulvovaginal candidiasis is not treated effectively during pregnancy, the newborn can develop an oral infection known as A) thrush. B) HPV. C) syphilis. D) gonorrhea.
Thrush
75
Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV)
True
76
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection.
False
77
The number of females with HIV infection and AIDS has been increasing steadily worldwide.
True
78
Treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) includes education to prevent _________. A) use of antibiotics B) abstinence C) use of condoms D) recurrence
D) recurrence
79
Infection with trichomoniasis doubles the risk of A) early menopause. B) HIV infection. C) unplanned pregnancy. D) cervical cancer.
B) HIV infection.
80
Date rape drugs are also known as “________ drugs.” A) disco B) frat C) club D)sleep
Club
81
The goal of intervening with a victim of abuse is to enable them to gain ___________ of their life. A) awareness B) control C) perspective D) freedom
B) control
82
Rape is an expression of violence, not a sexual act
TRUE
83
Victims of abuse rarely describe themselves as abused.
True
84
Female genital mutilation is also known as female __________. A) piercing B) maturation C) organ removal D) circumcision
D) circumcision
85
The cycle of violence consists of _________ phases. 2 3 4 5
4PHASES
86
Fear of the batterer often motivates a pregnant person to escape an abusive relationship. TRUE FALSE
FALSE
87
Symptoms of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) are divided into four groups: intrusion, _____________, hyperarousal, and cognitive and mood symptoms. A) avoidance B) emotional C) acceptance D) judgment
A) Avoidance
88
An abusive relationship between parents can perpetuate future abusive relationships in the children. TRUE FALSE
True
89
A nurse should screen for abuse at every health care visit. TRUE FALSE
TRUE
OBGYN Exam 2
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